Free Printable NEET Qualifying II

1.

A conveyor belt is moving at a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of friction between them is µ = 0.5. The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to rest on it, taking g = 10 ms^–2 is :-

a)

0.4 m

b)

1.2 m

c)

0.6 m

d)

Zero

2.

A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the distance and the time are e₁ and e₂ respectively, the percentage error in the estimation of g is :-

a)

$e_1+2e_2$

b)

$e_1+e_2$

c)

$e_1-2e_2$

d)

$e_1-e_2$

3.

A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an amount of heat Q in time t. The metallic rod is melted and the material is formed into a rod of half the radius of the original rod. What is the amount of heat conducted by the new rod, when placed in thermal contact with the two reservoirs in time t:-

a)

$\frac{Q}{2}$

b)

$\frac{Q}{4}$

c)

$\frac{Q}{16}$

d)

$2Q$

4.

Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at distance R from the centre of the Sun is :-

Where

\sigma

is the Stefan's constant.

a)

$r_2\sigma(t+273)^4/R^2$

b)

$4\pi r^2\sigma t\ ^4\$ / $R^2$

c)

$r^2\sigma\ (t+273)^4/4\pi R^2$

d)

$16\pi^2r^2\sigma\ t^4/R^2$

5.

A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If f is the electric flux in units of voltmeter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of voltmeter will be :-

a)

$\frac{q}{\in_0}-\Phi$

b)

$\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{q}{\in_0}-\Phi\right)$

c)

$\frac{q}{2\in_0}$

d)

$\frac{\Phi}{3}$

6.

The Earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv, where v is its escape velocity from the surface of the Earth. the value of f is :-

a)

$\sqrt{2}$

b)

$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}$

c)

$\frac{1}{3}$

d)

$\frac{1}{2}$

7.

Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them –

a)

Decreases with mass number at low mass numbers

b)

Increases with mass number at low mass numbers

c)

Decreases with mass number at high mass numbers

d)

Increases with mass number at high mass numbers

8.

A particle moves along a circle of radius $\left(\frac{20}{\pi}\right)m$

with constant tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the particle is 80 m/s at the end of the second revolution after motion has begin, the tangential acceleration is :–

a)

$40\ ms^{-2}$

b)

$640\ \pi\ ms–2$

c)

$160\ \pi\ ms–2$

d)

$40\ \pi\ ms–2$

9.

The vector sum of two forces is perpendicular to their vector differences. In that case, the forces :–

a)

Are equal to each other.

b)

Are equal to each other in magnitude.

c)

Are not equal to each other in magnitude.

d)

Cannot be predicted

10.

An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound with a speed 1/5th of the speed of sound. The wavelength and frequency of the source emitted are $\lambda$ and f respectively. The apparent frequency and wavelength recorded by the observer are respectively :–

a)

$1.2f,\ 1.2\lambda$

b)

$1.2f,\ \lambda$

c)

$f,\ 1.2\lambda$

d)

$0.8f,\ 0.8\lambda\$

11.

An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227°C and 127°C. It absorbs 6 kcal at the higher temperature. The amount of heat (in kcal) converted into work is equal to :–

a)

4.8

b)

3.5

c)

1.6

d)

1.2

12.

Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter 8 × 10^-3 m. The water velocity as it leaves the tap is 0.4 ms^-1. The diameter of the water stream at a distance 2 × 10^-1 m below the tap is close to :-

a)

9.6 × 10^-3 m

b)

3.6 × 10^-3 m

c)

5.0 × 10^-3 m

d)

7.5 × 10^-3 m

13.

Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5cm is nearly (Surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm^-1) :-

a)

2 $\pi$ mJ

b)

0.4 $\pi$ mJ

c)

4 $\pi$ mj

d)

0.2 $\pi$ mJ

14.

A Young's double slit experiment uses a monochromatic source. The shape of the interference fringes formed on a screen is-

a)

hyperbola

b)

circle

c)

straight line

d)

parabola

15.

When an unpolarized light of intensity $I_0$ is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which does not get transmitted is-

a)

$\frac{1}{2}I_0$

b)

$\frac{1}{4}I_0$

c)

Zero

d)

$I_0$

16.

The ratio of K.E. of the particle executing S.H.M.at mean position to the K.E. at point whose distance is half of amplitude is :

a)

$\frac{1}{3}$

b)

$\frac{2}{3}$

c)

$\frac{4}{3}$

d)

$\frac{3}{2}$

17.

The amplitudes of two waves undergoing interference are in ratio of 3 : 1. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity would be :-

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

4:1

d)

4:3

18.

A torque of 30N m is acted on a 5kg wheel of moment of inertia 2 kg m² for 10 second. Then the angle rotated by wheel in 10 second

a)

750 rad

b)

1500 rad

c)

3000 rad

d)

6000 rad

19.

A ring is suspended from its one end and oscillating then its time period for small oscillations will be :-

a)

$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{g}}$

b)

$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{2R}{g}}$

c)

$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{R}{2g}}$

d)

$2\pi\sqrt{\frac{3R}{2g}}$

20.

Choose the only false statement from the following :-

a)

Substances with energy gap of the order of 10eV are insulators.

b)

The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature

c)

In conductors, the valence and conduction bands may overlap.

d)

The resistivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature

21.

The Young’s modulus of a metal is 1.2 × 10¹¹ Nm^-2 and its inter atomic force constant is 3.6 × 10^-9 N/m, then the average distance between atoms is -

a)

15Å

b)

3 × 10^-16 m

c)

3 × 10^-20 m

d)

none of these

22.

The radius of the nucleus of ₈O¹⁶ is 3 × 10^-15 m. Its density in kg/m³ will be about :-

a)

2.35 × 10^-17

b)

2.35 × 10¹⁴

c)

10¹⁴

d)

2.35 × 10¹⁷

23.

A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground with some initial velocity $v_0$ . If $\frac{3^{th}}{4}$ of its kinetic energy in friction in time $t_0$ then co-efficient of friction between particle and the ground is:-

a)

$\frac{v_0}{2gt_0}$

b)

$\frac{v_0}{4gt_0}$

c)

$\frac{3v_0}{4gt_0}$

d)

$\frac{v_0}{gt_0}$

24.

Ampere circuital law is equivalent to :-

a)

Coulomb law

b)

Gauss law

c)

Gauss law in magnetism

d)

Maxwell law

25.

When a current carrying conductor is placed in magnetic field,then :-

a)

It always experience a force

b)

It may experience a force

c)

It never experience a force

d)

None

26.

A particle is moving along a circular path. The angular velocity, linear velocity, angular acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant respectively are; $\overrightarrow{w},\ \overrightarrow{V},\ \overrightarrow{\alpha}\ and\ \overrightarrow{a_c}$

Which of the following relation is not correct ?

a)

$\overrightarrow{w}\perp\overrightarrow{V}$

b)

$\overrightarrow{w}\perp\overrightarrow{a_c}$

c)

$\overrightarrow{w}\perp\overrightarrow{\alpha}$

d)

$\overrightarrow{V}\perp\overrightarrow{\alpha}$

27.

An organ pipe produces a fundamental frequency of 320 Hz at 47°C. At 27°C the fundamental frequency of pipe would be :-

a)

310 Hz

b)

320 Hz

c)

330 Hz

d)

340 Hz

28.

According to the graph point 3 of the curve is located in :-

a)

Active region

b)

Saturation region

c)

Cut off region

d)

None of the above

29.

For a CE transistor amplifier which of following parameter governs the operating point of the amplifier.

a)

Operating value of V_CE and I_B

b)

Biasing of transistor

c)

Both (A) and (B)

d)

None of the above

30.

There is a uniformly charge sphere with total charge +Q and radius R what will be value of electric flux paasing through a imaginary concentric sphere of radius R/2 :-

a)

$\frac{Q}{2\epsilon_0}$

b)

$\frac{Q}{4\epsilon_0}$

c)

$\frac{Q}{8\epsilon_0}$

d)

Zero

31.

Space between plates of a capacitor is filled two dielectric slab of dielectric constant k₁ and k₂. Its equivalent dielectric constant will be :-

a)

$\frac{k_1+k_2}{2}$

b)

$\frac{2k_1k_2}{k_1+k_2}$

c)

$\frac{k_1k_2\left(d_1+d_2\right)}{k_1d_2+k_2d_1}$

d)

$\frac{k_1k_2}{k_1d_2+k_2d_1}$

32.

The ratio of $C^{14}$ and $C^{12}$ in a fossil wood is $\frac{1}{16}$ relative to living wood. The half life of $C^{14}$ is 5700 years. The age of fossil wood is-

a)

1.14 x $10^4$ years

b)

2.28 x $10^4$ years

c)

9.12 x $10^4$ years

d)

18.24 x $10^4$ years

33.

A transparent cube of 0.21 m edge contains a small air bubble. Its apparent distance when viewed through one face of the cube is 0.10 m and when viewed from the opposite face is 0.04 m. The actual distance of the bubble from the second face of the cube is :-

a)

0.06 m

b)

0.17 m

c)

0.05 m

d)

0.04 m

34.

An unpolarized beam of light is incident on a glass surface at an angle of incidence equal to the polarizing angle of the glass. Read the following statements :-

(i) The reflected beam is completely polarized

(ii) The refracted beam is partially polarized

(iii) The angle between the reflected and the refracted beam is 90°.

Which of the above statements is/are true ?

a)

(i) only

b)

(ii) only

c)

(i) and (iii)

d)

All the statements are true

35.

One kilowatt hour is a unit of :-

a)

Energy

b)

Power

c)

Electric charge

d)

Electric current

36.

a)

$–2Ka^2$

b)

$2Ka^2$

c)

$-Ka^2$

d)

$Ka^2$

37.

The period of oscillation of a bar magnet in a vibration magnetometer is 2 sec. The period of oscillation of a bar magnet whose magnetic moment is 4 times that of Ist magnet is :-

a)

4 sec

b)

1 sec

c)

2 sec

d)

0.5 sec

38.

Identify the paramagnetic substance :-

a)

Iron

b)

Aluminium

c)

Nickel

d)

Hydrogen

39.

Lenz's law is consistent with law of conservation of :-

a)

Current

b)

emf

c)

Energy

d)

All of the above

40.

A flux of 1 mWb passes through a strip having an area A = 0.02 m² . The plane of the strip is at an angle of 60° to the direction of a uniform field B. The value of B is :-

a)

0.1 T

b)

0.058 T

c)

4.0 mT

d)

None of the above

41.

Which of the following statement is incorrect about friction ?

a)

Limiting static friction is independent of area of contact.

b)

Kinetic friction is independent of area of contact.

c)

Kinetic friction is nearly independent of velocity of bodies.

d)

Kinetic friction is self adjusting

42.

If the given graph is possible in realistic situations, then y and x variables may represent respectively :-

a)

acceleration and time

b)

velocity and time

c)

velocity and displacement

d)

displacement and time

43.

A Carnot's engine used first an ideal monoatomic gas then an ideal diatomic gas. if the source and sink temperature are 411°C and 69°C respectively and the engine extracts 1000 J of heat in each cycle, then area enclosed by the PV diagram is

a)

100 J

b)

300 J

c)

500 J

d)

700 J

44.

If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley and surface is 0.1, then tension in the string connecting masses is -

[Take g = 10 m/s² ] ?

a)

48 N

b)

51 N

c)

53 N

d)

55 N

45.

Position-time graph of a body of mass 0.5 kg is shown. Time interval between two consecutive impulses and the magnitude of that impulse is ?

a)

5 s, 4 N-s

b)

10 s, 4 N-s

c)

10 s, 2 N-s

d)

5 s, 2 N-s

46.

The correct order of increasing s-character (in percentage) in the hybrid orbitals of following molecules/ions is :-

(I) CO₃^-2

(II) XeF₄

(III) I₃^-

(IV) NCl₃

(V) BeCl₂

a)

II < III < IV < I < V

b)

II < IV < III < V < I

c)

III < II < I < V < IV

d)

II < IV < III < I < V

47.

In NaCl the centres of two nearest like-charged ions are present at a distance of :-

a)

$\frac{1}{2}a\sqrt{2}$

b)

$\frac{1}{2}a$

c)

$\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}a$

d)

$\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}2a$

48.

Oxyacid of chlorine show similarity in :-

a)

Basicity and oxidising nature

b)

Hybridisation state and Basicity

c)

Shape and bond angle

d)

Number of $\pi$ bond and acidic nature

49.

has correct IUPAC name :-

a)

5-Nitro-4-Methoxy-1-Pentene

b)

1-Nitro-2-Methoxy-4-Pentene

c)

4-Methoxy-5-Nitro-1-Pentene

d)

2-Methoxy-1-Nitro-4-Pentene

50.

2-Hexyne can be converted into trans-2-hexene by the action of :-

a)

H₂ -Pd/BaSO₄

b)

Na+Liq.NH₃

c)

NaBH₄

d)

All above

51.

d-tartaric acid & meso tartaric acid are :-

a)

Diastereomer

b)

Enantiomer

c)

Geometrical isomer

d)

Positional isomer

52.

Among TiF₆^2-,CoF₆^3-, Cu₂Cl₂ and NiCl₄^2- the colourless species are :-

a)

CoF₆^3- and NiCl₄^2-

b)

TiF₆^2- and CoF₆^3-

c)

NiCl₄^2- and Cu₂Cl₂

d)

TiF₆^2- and Cu₂Cl₂

53.

$C_2H_5-Br+CH_3ONa\ \rightarrow\ A\ _{\overrightarrow{\left(cold\right)}}^{\ \ \ Hi}\ B,\$ product B is

a)

$CH_3Br+C_2H_5I$

b)

$CH_3I+C_2H_5I$

c)

$CH_3Br+C_2H_5OH$

d)

$CH_3I+C_2H_5OH$

54.

Which one of the following does not correctly represent the order of property indicated against it:

a)

Ti < V < Cr < Mn (Increasing melting point)

b)

Ti < V < Mn < Cr (Increasing 2nd ionisation enthalpy)

c)

Ti < V < Cr < Mn (Increasing number of oxidation states)

d)

Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn3+ (Increasing magnetic moment)

55.

Milli equivalent of :-

(a) Ca(OH)₂ in 74 gm

(b) NaOH in 20 gm will be respectively.

a)

2000, 500

b)

500, 2000

c)

50, 200

d)

200, 50

56.

The number of geometrical isomers for octahedral [CoC₄4 (NH₃ )₂] – , square planar [AuBr₂Cl₂ ] – and [PtCl₂ (en)] are :-

a)

2,2,2

b)

2,2,0

c)

3,2,2

d)

2,3,0

57.

Shape-selective catalysis is a reaction catalysed by ?

a)

zeolites

b)

enzymes

c)

platinum

d)

Ziegler-natta catalyst

58.

are respectively :-

a)

Acid, Carbon

b)

Acid, Aluminium

c)

Acid, Iron

d)

Acid, Sodium

59.

Order of rate of S_N 1 reactivity for following compound is :-

a)

I > II > III > IV

b)

I > II > IV > III

c)

II > I > IV > III

d)

I > IV > III > II

60.

Among the following, the compound that is both are diamagnetic and coloured is :-

a)

K₂Cr₂O₇

b)

(NH₄)₂ [TiCl₆]

c)

VOSO₄

d)

K₃[Cu(CN)₄]

61.

Which of the following is not essential amino acid:-

a)

Valine

b)

Leucine

c)

Arginine

d)

Aspartic acid

62.

Mixing of positively colloidal solution with negatively charged colloidal solution brings ____. The decreasing order of coagulating power of Na⁺ , Ba²⁺ and Al³⁺ for negatively charged colloidal solution is _____ ?

a)

mutual coagulation, Na⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Al³⁺

b)

mutual coagulation, Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

c)

coagulation, Na⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Al³⁺

d)

peptization, Al³⁺ > Ba²⁺ > Na⁺

63.

Which one of the following on reaction with lucas reagent gives white precipitate fastest :-

a)

b)

c)

d)

64.

Monomeric units of Bakelite is :-

a)

HCHO + Ph – OH

b)

c)

d)

HCHO + CF₂ = CF₂

65.

Given electrode potentials :

Fe³⁺ + e → Fe²⁺; E° = 0.771 volts

I₂ + 2e → 2I^–; E° = 0.536 volts

E° cell for the cell reaction

2Fe³⁺ + 2I^– → 2Fe²⁺ + I₂ is -

a)

(2 × 0.771 – 0.536) = 1.006 volts

b)

(0.771 – 0.5 × 0.536) = 0.503 volts

c)

0.771 – 0.536 = 0.235 volts

d)

0.536 – 0.771 = –0.235 volts

66.

For the non-stoichiometric reaction 2A + B → C + D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K.

For the reaction the rate of formation of C will be :

a)

$\frac{dc}{dt}=k\left[A\right]\left[B\right]^2$

b)

$\frac{dc}{dt}=k\left[A\right]$

c)

$\frac{dc}{dt}=k\left[A\right]\left[B\right]^{ }$

d)

$\frac{dc}{dt}=k\left[A\right]^2\left[B\right]^{ }$

67.

Sodium laurylsulphate has type :-

a)

Anionic detergent

b)

Cationic detergent

c)

Unionic detergent

d)

Artificial sweetner

68.

In the cyanide process involving extraction of silver, zinc is used industrially as an :-

a)

Oxidising agent

b)

Reducing agent

c)

Solvent

d)

Solvating agent

69.

Which one will not give alcohol on reduction with LiAlH₄ :-

a)

CH₃CONH₂

b)

CH₃COCl

c)

d)

All above

70.

Which will have minimum osmotic pressure ?

a)

200 mL of 2M NaCl solution

b)

200 mL of 1 M glucose solution

c)

200 mL of 2M urea solution

d)

All have same

71.

If electron affinity of Cl is 348 kJ/mol then how much energy is released to convert 1.0 gm Cl in Cl^– gas :-

a)

35.5 kJ

b)

17.7 kJ

c)

9.8 kJ

d)

3.2 kJ

72.

The ratio of difference between 1^st and 2^nd Bohr orbits energy to that between 2^nd & 3^rd orbits energy is :-

a)

$\frac{1}{2}$

b)

$\frac{1}{3}$

c)

$\frac{27}{5}$

d)

$\frac{5}{27}$

73.

The correct order of boiling point is :-

a)

b)

c)

d)

74.

How many compounds among following give white crystals when reacted with sodium bisulphite :-

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

75.

6.8 g H₂O₂ is dissolved in 0.2 L solution. Then solution will be labelled as :-

a)

22.4 V

b)

5.6 V

c)

10 V

d)

3 V

76.

For which element [IP₂ – IP₁ < 11 eV] is found:-

a)

Al

b)

Mg

c)

Ar

d)

None of These

77.

The total number of electrons present in 18ml water (density = 1g/ml) is :-

a)

6.023 × 10²³

b)

6.023 × 10²⁴

c)

6.023 × 10²⁵

d)

6.023 × 10²¹

78.

a)

b)

c)

d)

79.

Consider the following statements

I. In gaseous phase, the vapour pressure of CH₃COOH is less than expected.

II. In benzene, acetic acid dimerises.

III. CH₃OH is more viscous than H₂O.

IV. CH₃OCH₃ is non-polar but soluble in water.

Select the correct set of codes using T for true and F for false statements in given sequence.

a)

F T F T

b)

F T F F

c)

T F T T

d)

T T F F

80.

Ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA) in terms of $\Lambda_m^{\infty}$ and $\Lambda_m^{ }$

is :-

a)

$K_a=\frac{C\Lambda_m^{\infty}}{\left(\Lambda_m^{ }-\Lambda_{ }^{\infty}\right)}$

b)

$K_a=\frac{C\Lambda_m^2}{\Lambda_m^{\infty}\left(\Lambda_m^{\infty}-\Lambda_m^{ }\right)}$

c)

$K_a=\frac{C\left(\Lambda_m^{\infty}\right)^2}{\Lambda_m^{\infty}\left(\Lambda_m^{ }-\Lambda_{ }^{\infty}\right)}$

d)

None of These

81.

A complex containing K⁺ , Pt(IV) and Cl^– is 100% ionised giving i = 3. Thus, possible complex is:-

a)

K₂ [Pt Cl₄]

b)

K₂ [Pt Cl₆]

c)

K₃ [Pt Cl₅]

d)

K[Pt Cl₃]

82.

At low pressure, Vander Waal's equation is written as $\left(P+\frac{a}{V^2}\right)V=RT$

. The compressibility factor is then equal to :-

a)

$\left(1-\frac{a}{RTV}\right)$

b)

$\left(1-\frac{RTV}{a}\right)$

c)

$\left(1+\frac{a}{RTV}\right)$

d)

$\left(1+\frac{RTV}{a}\right)$

83.

Latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K and 1 atm pressure is 20.0 kcal/mol. What will be the change in internal energy (∆E) of 3 mol of liquid at same temperature :-

a)

57.0 Kca

b)

–57.0 Kcal

c)

27.0 Kcal

d)

–27.0 Kcal

84.

a)

1.27

b)

2.58

c)

4.17

d)

4.93

85.

a)

o–Bromo acetanilide

b)

n–Bromo acetanilide

c)

p–Bromo acetanilide

d)

m–Bromo acetanilide

86.

0.1 M formic acid solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH solution. What would be the difference in pH between 1/ 5 and 4/5 stages of neutralization of acid ?

a)

2 log 3/4

b)

2 log 1/5

c)

log 1/3

d)

2 log 4

87.

Br₂+ 2X ^-→ 2Br ^-+ X₂

Cl₂+ 2Y ^-→ 2Cl ^-+ Y₂

The incorrect match regarding above reaction is:-

a)

X₂ = I₂

b)

Y₂ = I₂

c)

X₂ = Cl₂

d)

Y₂ = Br

88.

a)

6

b)

8

c)

12

d)

4

89.

is:-

a)

α-D-(+)- Glucopyranose

b)

β-D-(+)- Glucopyranose

c)

α-D-(–)- Fructofuranose

d)

β-D-(–)- Fructofuranose

90.

, is -

a)

b)

c)

d)

91.

In DNA model of Watson and Crick, the major grooves represent one of the following sites.

a)

Binding of histone proteins

b)

Binding of acidic proteins

c)

Binding of RNA molecules

d)

Binding of glycoproteins

92.

The given figure shows a part of nephron, Identify and choose it from the given options

a)

Thin descending limb

b)

Thin ascending limb

c)

Thick ascending limb

d)

Proximal convulated tubules

93.

Huntington's disease is caused by which of the following reason?

a)

Autosomal gene on chromosome 7

b)

Sex-linked gene on X-chromosome

c)

Autosomal gene on chromosome 4

d)

Sex chromosomal monosomy

94.

Which one of the statement given below is not correct?

a)

As a result of light reaction, oxygem. NADPH and ATP are formed. Oxygen is relased into the atmosphere, white NADPH and ATP are utilised for reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrate in dark reaction.

b)

In C₃ plants, carbon dioxide, combines with RuBP to form phosphoglyceric acid, On the other hand in C₄ ^– plants, carbon dioxide is first picked up by phospho and pyruvate to form oxaloacetic acid.

c)

Cytochrome plays very important role in ETS of photosynthesis as well as respiration

d)

Energy is released during photorespiration and ammonia is not released from photoerspiration

95.

When gram, seeds and wheat grains are soaked in water , pea seeds showed more swelling than the wheat. The reason is

a)

Imbibition capacity of proteins is more than that of starch

b)

Presence of less hydrophilic colloids in the wheat grains

c)

Cell membrane of pea seeds is less permeable and cell wall of wheat grains are more permeable

d)

Cell membrane of pea seeds is more permeable and cell wall of wheat grains are less permeable

96.

Match the following columns.

Column I (Stop codon)

A. UAG

B. UAA

C. AGA

Column II (Also known as)

1. Opal

2. Ochre

3. Amber

4. Umber

a)

A-3, B-1, C-2

b)

A-4, B-1, C-3

c)

A-3, B-4, C-2

d)

A-3, B-2, C-1

97.

Which one is obtained by acetylation of morphine?

a)

Charas

b)

Cocaine

c)

Smack

d)

Crack

98.

Which of the following are the causes of insulin resistance?

I. Polycystic ovary disease

II. Hemochromatosis

III. Lipodystrophy

IV. Mutations of melanocortin receptors

a)

I and IV

b)

I,II,III and IV

c)

II and III

d)

II and IV

99.

Identify the marking in below graphs.

a)

A - Allopatric, B - Sympatric, C - Parapatric

b)

A - Sympatric, B - Parapatric, C - Allopatric

c)

A - Parapatric, B - Allopatric, C - Sympatric

d)

A - Allopatric, B - Parapatric, C - Sympatric

100.

Which of the following is/are true for Leber's hereditary Optic Neuropathy (LHON)

I. It is mitochondrial myopathy

II. It is characterised by short stature

III. It is characterised by acromegaly

IV. It is characterised by visual lose

a)

All are false

b)

II and III

c)

I and IV

d)

II and IV

101.

In the process of ATP synthesis , oligomycin and DCCD act at which place in figure

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

102.

Crown gall disease is caused which of the following pathogen

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

protozonns

103.

Which of the following is not an autotrophic microbe that fix atmospheric nitrogen?

a)

Anabaena

b)

Rhizobium

c)

Nostoc

d)

Oscillatoria

104.

In summer vacationyou have visited to your friend's residence. He informed you that recently he has donated his kidney to his father. When you enquired further , you have been told that your friend had opted for laproscopic way of kidney donation, instead of open way of open way of kidney donation. What might be the correct reason for it?

I. Your friend's age is below is 18 year.

II. It is less painful method

III. When laproscopic method is followed, other kidney does a quick hypertrophy

IV. Incision is not visible (Cosmetic reason)

a)

II and IV

b)

All are true

c)

All are false

d)

I and II

105.

Identify the incorrect statement (s) from following options.

I. Glycolate is formed, in illuminated chloroplast of C₃ plants

II. For every 2 glycolate molecules that leaves the chloroplast, one glycerate, derived from glycolate

III. One of the 4 carbons from the two glycolates is lost as CO₂.

IV. As 3 -phosphoglycerate, the 3 remaining carbons can reenter the Calvin cycle.

a)

II and IV

b)

I and III

c)

None of these statement is false

d)

I and II

106.

Your one of the relatives has just married. She called you and requested to suggest the most appropriate method of contraception. Which of the following contraception would be your first suggested choice?

a)

Oral contraceptive pills

b)

IUDS (Intrauterine devices)

c)

Tubectomy

d)

I-pill

107.

When osmotic potential is either zero or negative and pressure potential is positive, then the water potential will be

a)

Always negative

b)

Always positive

c)

some times negative and some times positive

d)

do not show any specificity

108.

Which of the following statement is not correct?

a)

Double fertilisation is characteristic feature of angiosperms. It was discovered by SG nawaschin

b)

In adventive embryos, embroys develop directly from the nucellus

c)

Miky water of coconut is called liquid endosperm

d)

In anatropous ovule, the micropyle, funicle and chalaza lie in a straight line

109.

All below are the symptoms of one of the following condition Urtirearia

Hypotension

Wheeze

Flushing

Angioedema of lips

a)

Mitral stenosis

b)

Aortic stenosis

c)

Acute asthma

d)

Anaphylaxis

110.

Hassal's bodies which area potent source of the cytokine TS2P, are found in one of the following organ

a)

Liver

b)

thymus

c)

adrenal

d)

thyroid

111.

When one molecule of glucose enters into glycolysis two molecules of pyruvic acid is formed then pyruvic acid enter into the Krebs' cycle. How many carbon dioxide molecules are formed when one glucouse molecule passes through glycolyis and Krebs' cycle

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

112.

A hormone is a class of regulatory biochemical produced in particular parts of organism by specific cells , glands and / or tissues. Identify the systemic hormone form the following options

a)

Oxytocin

b)

Somatostatin

c)

Melatonin

d)

Somatotrophin

113.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding oogenesis

a)

It has long cesting periods

b)

It forms one functional and three non- functional cells

c)

Its growth phase is very short

d)

The division of primary oocyte is not equal

114.

Which of the following combination of drugs has a dramatic rapid increase in sedative effect?

a)

Alcohol + Antihistamines

b)

Alcohol + Benzodiazepines

c)

Alcohol + Aspirin

d)

Amphetamine + Insuline

115.

Genetically modified foods contain

a)

Same number of genes as conventional crop

b)

Same number of genes as hybrid crop

c)

One or two additional genes

d)

Hundreds of additional genes

116.

Wobble pairing takes place

a)

Under unusual condition between homologous chromosomes of a somatic cell causing somatic crossing over

b)

In some cases between the third base of a codon and that of an anticodon

c)

In those rare instances where unequal crossing over takes place for the lack of segment to segment pairing

d)

In radiation included base deletion from one strand of a DNA molecule so that the complementary counter- part of the other strand exhibits mispairing

117.

Extinction of passenger pigeon (Ectopistus migratorius) is a result of one of the following causes

a)

absence of food

b)

presence of predators

c)

over exploitation by humans

d)

bird flu

118.

Which one of the following human genes has the longest stretch of DNA (~24 Mb)?

a)

Globin gene

b)

Histone gene

c)

Dystrophin gene

d)

tRNA gene

119.

Identify the correct statement regarding pBR322. It is a

a)

bacteriophage

b)

yeast

c)

plasmid

d)

parasite

120.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes allosteric enzymes?

a)

Not usually controlled by feedback inhibition

b)

Regulatory site may be catalytic site

c)

Michaelis- Menten kinetics describe their activity

d)

Effectors may enhance of inhibit substrate binding

121.

An individual had been diagnosed with a Salmonella infection, which he acquired. While on vacation. She had been treated with antibiotic and the diarrhoea she was experiencing , had resolved. One day later, he developed a chest pain in the centre of chest. The important point was that the person had never any problem with his cardiovascular system. Even at that time his BP and pulse rate is normal, But ECG. showed diffuse PR depression in the anterolateral leads. Most probable diagnosis of above history is

a)

angina pectoris

b)

pericarditis

c)

relation between Salmonella infection and chest pain could not be established

d)

typhoid

122.

Which of the following elements is/are trace elements or microelements for human?

I. Zinc

II. Manganese

III. Molybdenum

IV. Calcium

a)

All of these

b)

I, II and IV

c)

I, III and IV

d)

I, II AND III

123.

World Summit of Sustainable development 2002 was held in which of the following country?

a)

Rio, Brazil

b)

Sydney, Australia

c)

Johansburg, South Africa

d)

Amsterdam, Netherlands

124.

Recombination DNA technology can be used ot produce medically useful protein. Which of the following can be produced by using this technology?

a)

Somatostatin

b)

Insulin

c)

Interferon

d)

All of these

125.

'Decarboxylation' refers to the removal of a CO₂ molecule during a reaction. One of the following reaction involves decarboxylation. Identify that reaction

a)

Electron transport system

b)

Lactic acid fermentation

c)

Alcohol fermentation

d)

Glycolysis

126.

Identify the correct statement among following regarding the growth in plants

a)

Growth does not involve increase in parts

b)

Growth occurs during definite periods

c)

Growth is indeterminate

d)

Growing regions are absent

127.

If a strand of DNA has 0.1 mm length, what will be the ratio of length to diameter?

a)

500

b)

50

c)

50,000

d)

5000

128.

Which one of the following component can function as carrier in active absorption?

a)

Ferredoxin and cytochrome

b)

Cytochrome and lecithin

c)

Lecithin

d)

Plastoquinone

129.

What is common is Bryophyllum, Sanevieria and Kalanchoe?

a)

All are members of family - Rubiaceae

b)

All reproduce only sexually

c)

All reproduce by leaf cutting vegetatively

d)

All lack heterospory

130.

Different types of cleavage found in different organisms but the cleavage which found in human egg is

a)

Superficial

b)

Discoidal

c)

Radial

d)

Holoblastic

131.

Protein α –1 antitrypisn is used for the treatment of the disease

a)

cancer

b)

emphysema

c)

rheumatoid arthritis

d)

hepatitis B

132.

Among the following, which microorganism is photoautotrophic in nature

a)

Ferrobacillus

b)

Beggiotoa

c)

Nitrosomonas and Nitrosococcus

d)

Green-Sulphur bacteria and purple bacteria

133.

How does frogs differ from humans ?

a)

Frogs possess hepatic portal system

b)

Frogs have nucleated acid blood RBCs

c)

Frogs have thyroid gland

d)

Frogs contain paired cerebral hemispheres

134.

Detoxification process at cellular level is controlled by which of the following cell organelle?

a)

lysosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

ER

d)

Golgi complex

135.

What is the mass of living matter at a trophic level in an area at any time?

a)

Humus

b)

Standing crop

c)

Standing stage

d)

Detritus

136.

The photosynthetic or assimilatory roots are modification of roots which is found in

a)

Tinospora

b)

Dahila

c)

Banyan

d)

Asparagus

137.

Which of the following is not involved in this process is important biological process of fixing atmospheric nitrogen by microorganisms?

a)

Azotobacter

b)

Nitrosomonas

c)

Nostoc

d)

Anabaena

138.

Largest immunoglobulin is found in human blood is

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgD

d)

IgE

139.

In an angiospermic embryo sac, n, 2n, 3n conditions are found respectively in

a)

egg, synergids, antipodal

b)

endosperm , egg, zygote

c)

egg, zygote, endosperm

d)

endosperm, synergids, nucleus

140.

Graham's law is related with which of the following physiological process?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Plasmolysis

d)

Absorption

141.

Diapedesis is a frequently used term in biology. Its refer to

a)

Formation of WBC

b)

Formation of pus

c)

Formation of RBC

d)

Passage of WBC

142.

Find the correct statement from the followings, The word " tautonym" refers to

a)

Unscientific explanation of a biochemical phenomenon

b)

Common name to be used as scientific name

c)

Identical name of two different taxon

d)

When species name repeats the generic name

143.

The most active phagocytic white blood cells in the cell mediated immunity are

a)

Neutrophils and monocytes

b)

Lymphocytes and eosinophils

c)

eosinophils and neutrophils

d)

lymphocytes and macrophages

144.

Acetylcholine is a very important neurotansmitter in human disease caused by the deficieny of this acetylcholine in humans is

a)

Alzheimer's disease

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Schizophrenia

d)

Amnesia

145.

Which of the following is/ are true about species?

I. There is a complete anatomical similarity.

II. There is a broad similarity in morphological characters.

III. All the memebr of a species have similar karyotype

IV. The members are able to interbreed freely and produce fertile offsprings

a)

I, II and III

b)

II, III and IV

c)

I, II and IV

d)

All of these

146.

Singing birds make excellent pets if you enjoy the song of these flying creatures. The sound producing organ in these singing birds is

a)

air sacs

b)

larynx

c)

syrinx

d)

lungs

147.

Which of the following has no effect on the the second organism?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Amensalism

c)

Predation

d)

Commensalism

148.

Plants which can tolerate bright light are called

a)

Sciophytes

b)

xerophytes

c)

phreatophytes

d)

heliophytes

149.

Euploidy is best explained by

a)

Exact multiples of a haploid set of chromosomes

b)

One chromosome more than the haploid set of chromosomes

c)

One chromosome less than the haploid set of chromosomes

d)

One chromosome more than the diploid set of chromosomes

150.

Which of the following is considered to be the best chemical methods of fixing atmospheric nitrogen?

a)

Fisher method

b)

Decan method

c)

Haber-Bosch method

d)

Parnas-Meyerhoff method

151.

The inheritance of acquired character is given by Lamarck. Which of the following opposes the inheritance of acquired characters?

a)

Formation of germ cells from somatic cells

b)

Effect of chemicals

c)

Boring of pinna and nose of India women

d)

Effect of radiation

152.

According to Red Data Book (It is a document established for documenting rare and endangered species) red panda is

a)

Extinct species

b)

Vulnerable species

c)

Threatened species

d)

Endangered species

153.

Bursa of Fabricous is the primary lymphoid organ in birds. Bursa of Fabricous involved in the differentiation of

a)

B-cells

b)

T-cells

c)

primed cells

d)

plasma cells

154.

Photosynthesis consists of essentially two biological reactions, one followed by the other, the second of these reaction involve which of the following event given in the options?

a)

Fixes CO₂

b)

Traps light energy

c)

Synthesises starch

d)

Work only in the presence of light

155.

Which of the following is most likely to occur due to the damage of thymus in a child?

a)

Reduction in RBC count in blood

b)

Increase of antibody mediated immunity

c)

Decreased count of WBC and platelets in blood

d)

Loss of cell mediated immunity

156.

According to Darwin's theory of natural selection Australian marsupials is an example of which phenomenon.

a)

Parallel evolution

b)

Parallel radiation

c)

Adaptive radiation

d)

convergent evolution

157.

Which of the following is an example of recapitulation theory (ontogeny repeats phylogeny)?

a)

Canine teeth of dog

b)

Tadpole larva of frog

c)

Placenta of mammals

d)

Embryonic membrane of mammals

158.

Which microorganism from the given below is known as living fossil?

a)

Archaebacteria

b)

Virus

c)

Viroids

d)

PPLOs

159.

Blood pressure is the pressure of systolic and diastolic pressure . In which part of brain , reflexes for blood pressure are present?

a)

Medulla oblongata

b)

Crusa cerebri

c)

Corpora quadrigemina

d)

Pons varolii

160.

Gene responsible for biological nitrogen fixation is

a)

Cry –I gene

b)

ADA gene

c)

nif - gene

d)

Cry - II gene

161.

Biogeography is the distribution of organism. How many biogeographic regions are present in India?

a)

12

b)

10

c)

3

d)

9

162.

Some of the amino acid are non-coded amino acid. Non -coded amino acids in proteins are also called

a)

Neutral amino acid

b)

Polar amino acids

c)

Protein amino acids

d)

Rare amino acids

163.

Conservation of biodiversity can be done generally by ex situ and in situ conservation. One of the ex situ conservation methods for endangered species is

a)

Cryopreservation

b)

National Parks

c)

Wildlife Sanctuaries

d)

Biosphere Reserves

164.

The correct sequence of water flow into body of sycon and out of it is

a)

Ostia → Apopyles → Prosopyles → Osculum

b)

Osita → Prosopyles → Apopyles → Osculum

c)

Ostia → Osculum → Prosopyles → Spicules

d)

Osculum → Apopyles → Prosopyles → Osita

165.

CSF is a shock absorber for brain and spinal cord. The pH of Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) is

a)

302

b)

506

c)

7.33

d)

11.2

166.

In humans, dessication of the embryo inside the uterus is prevented by

a)

Allantois

b)

Placenta

c)

Chorion

d)

Amnion

167.

Phenotypic plasticity is the phenomenon is which

a)

genotypic changes in response to habitat

b)

migration temporarily

c)

phenotypic changes in response to variations in environment

d)

hibernation

168.

Necrosis in crops in due to the deficiency of which ions/ elements?

a)

calcium, phosphorus, potassium, zinc

b)

sulphur, calcium, potassium, molybdenum

c)

nitrogen, potassium, sulphur , molybdenum

d)

manganese, sulphur, nitrogen, calcium

169.

Tendency of one croos over to affect other is called

a)

coefficient of coincidence

b)

position effect

c)

interference

d)

cis-trans effect

170.

Which one of the following is true?

a)

Cockroach – 10 pairs of spiracles

b)

Earthworm – Setae are present on first clitellum

c)

Rat – Right kidney is slightly lower in position than left one

d)

Frog – body divisible into neck and trunk

171.

Stirred - tank bioreactors (most common type of aerobic bioreactor) have been designed for

a)

availability of oxygen throughout the process

b)

ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

c)

purification of the product

d)

addition of preservatives to the product

172.

Eggs of humans are (on the basis of amount of yolk present)

a)

alecithal

b)

mesolecithal

c)

microlecithal

d)

macrolecithal

173.

RQ (Respiratory Quotient) is the ratio of which gases during the respiration.

a)

$RQ=\frac{volumeofCO_{2\ }absorbed}{volume\ O_{2\ }absorbed}$

b)

$RQ=\frac{volumeofCO_{2\ }evolved}{volume\ O_{2\ }evolved}$

c)

$RQ=\frac{volumeofCO_{2\ }absorbed}{volume\ O_{2\ }evolved}$

d)

$RQ=\frac{volumeofCO_2\ evolved}{volume\ O_{2\ }absorbed}$

174.

Development of land plants, wingless insects and scorpions is an example of which type of evolution from the given below options.

a)

coevolution

b)

mimicry

c)

quantum evolution

d)

saltatory evolution

175.

Foramen of magendie is the median aperture of medulla oblogata which in turn is the component of

a)

Diencephalon

b)

Mesencephalon

c)

Rhombencephalon

d)

Prosencephalon

176.

The bond which is responsible for DNA (Deoxyribonucleic acid) strand to be antiparallel is

a)

phosphodiester bonds

b)

H- bonds

c)

peptide bonds

d)

disulphide bonds

177.

Formation of erythrocytes ios called erythropoiesis. In early few weeks of embryonic life. primitive nucleated RBCs are produed in the

a)

Liver

b)

Yolk sac

c)

bone marrow

d)

Both (B) and (C)

178.

In Lac-operon (inducible operon system) the repressor protein binds with which part of DNA

a)

Regulator gene

b)

Operator gene

c)

Promoter gene

d)

Structural gene

179.

DNA ligase is used to seal the two strands of DNA. This unique enzyme was firstly dicovered from which organism

a)

E.coil

b)

Φ × 176

c)

A. tumefaceins

d)

H.influenza

180.

Identify a Mendelian disorder from the following.

a)

Down's syndrome

b)

Turner's syndrome

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Klinefelter's syndrome

NEET Qualifying II

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 45hrs 0mins

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