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AQA AS Biology

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 2hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of bond that is formed when two amino acids combine?

a)

DNA and ATP

b)

Ester

c)

RNA and ATP

d)

Peptide

e)

Glycosidic

2.

Maltose is a disaccharide formed of glucose and which other monosaccharide?

a)

fructose

b)

lactose

c)

glucose

d)

galactose

3.

Which of the following statements about the polysaccharide glycogen is not true?

a)

Glycogen is made up of many α-glucose monomers.

b)

Glycogen is found in animal cells.

c)

Glycogen is formed of unbranched chains of glucose.

d)

Glycogen is a compound used for storage.

4.

Calculate the pH of a solution that has the hydrogen ion concentration of

2.75 × 10–4 M. Use the formula pH = −log10[H+].

a)

pH 2.56

b)

pH 4.44

c)

pH 3.5

d)

pH 3.56

5.

Which of these is a feature of all monounsaturated fatty acids?

a)

contain no hydrogen atoms

b)

a double bond between all of the carbon atoms

c)

are hydrophillic, so attract water

d)

one double bond between carbon atoms

e)

a phosphate group at the end of the fatty acid chain

6.

An unknown food substance was tested using a variety of techniques, the results are in the table below. Which substances does the food sample contain?

a)

starch and protein

b)

reducing sugar and fat

c)

non-reducing sugar and protein

d)

fat and starch

7.

Which property of a triglyceride fat makes it unsuitable to form a bilayer?

a)

It has a low mass to volume ratio.

b)

It has a high ratio of C–H bonds and carbon atoms.

c)

It has a high ratio of hydrogen to oxygen atoms.

d)

It is a non-polar molecule.

8.

When searching for life on other planets, which two substances should you look for?

a)

air and carbon

b)

water and carbon

c)

nitrogen and air

d)

carbon and nitrogen

9.

The graph below shows a reaction controlled by the digestive enzyme pepsin. The temperature is set at 30 °C and the pH at 6. What change would increase the rate of this reaction from point A.

a)

decrease the temperature

b)

decreasing the enzyme concentration

c)

decreasing the pH

d)

decreasing the substrate concentration

10.

Changes in the sequence of amino acids in haemoglobin can result in sickle cell anaemia. Which of the following statements about sickle cell anaemia is not true?

a)

Sickle cell is an infectious disease.

b)

The change in amino acid sequence causes a change in the tertiary structure of haemoglobin.

c)

Symptoms of sickle cell anaemia include lethargy, joint pain, and shortness of breath.

d)

Haemoglobin is a complex globular protein with an associated iron containing haem group.

11.

Potassium cyanide is non-competitive enzyme inhibitor. It inhibits an enzyme which is involved in respiration resulting in cells being unable to utilise oxygen. What would the effect of potassium cyanide have on the rate of respiration?

a)

Water can leave the root hair cells.

b)

aerobic respiration stops

c)

aerobic respiration is reduced

12.
1.1.5: Carbohydrates, proteins and lipid monomers are joined in reactions called...
a)
Condensation Reactions
b)
Hydrolysis Reactions
13.
1.1.5: Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids are broken down in reactions called...
a)
Condensation reactions
b)
Hydrolysis Reactions
14.
1.2.2: The bonds linking monosaccharides into polysaccharides are called
a)
Peptide bonds
b)
Glycosidic bonds
c)
Ester bonds
15.
1.2.6: This is a section of which molecule?
a)
Amylopectin
b)
Amylose
c)
Cellulose
16.
1.2.6: This is a section of which molecule?
a)
Amylose
b)
Amylopectin
c)
Cellulose
17.
1.1.5: What type of reaction forms polymers?
a)
hydrolysis
b)
condensation 
c)
combustion
18.
1.2.7: What is the test for reducing sugars?
a)
Biuret
b)
Ethanol
c)
Benedicts
d)
Iodine
19.
1.2.1: What is produced when maltose is hydrolysed?
a)
glucose and glucose
b)
glucose and fructose
c)
glucose and galactose
d)
galactose and fructose
20.
1.2.6: What property of starch makes it a suitable store in plants?
a)
unbranched
b)
insoluble
c)
large molecule
d)
difficult to break down
21.
1.2.6: What bonds form between cellulose molecules to make the resulting fibrils stronger?
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Hydrogen bonds
d)
Metallic bonds
22.
1.2.1: Oranic molecules that always contain carbon, oxygen and hydrogen, often in a 1:2:1 ratio
a)
carbohydrates
b)
functional groups
c)
enyzme
d)
monosaccaride
23.
1.1.4: What are the monomers of a polysaccharides?
a)
Amino Acids
b)
Nucleotides
c)
Triglycerides
d)
Monosaccharides
24.
1.2.1: A group of organic molecules that includes sugars, starch, and cellulose care called...
a)
proteins
b)
carbohydrates
c)
nucleic acids
d)
lipids
25.
What is the primary function of carbohydrates in your body?
a)
Speed up chemical reactions.
b)
Give immediate energy.
c)
Help to store energy.
d)
Build cell walls in plants.
26.
What is a biological molecule?
a)
organic molecule found in any organism
b)
any living thing
c)
any nonliving thing
d)
the building block of life
27.
1.2.2: Which of the following is not a monomer of a carbohydrate?
a)
Glucose
b)
Galactose
c)
Maltose
d)
Fructose
28.
1.2.3: What are the monomers of maltose?
a)
alpha glucose and beta glucose
b)
Alpha glucose and alpha glucose
c)
Beta glucose and beta glucose
d)
Beta glucose and galactose
29.
1.2.4: Glycogen is made from:
a)
alpha glucose molecules only
b)
Alpha and beta glucose molecules
c)
Beta glucose molecules only
30.
1.2.5: Cellulose is made from:
a)
alpha glucose molecules only
b)
Alpha and beta glucose molecules
c)
Beta glucose molecules only
31.
1.1.5: What molecule is lost during a condensation reaction?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Oxygen
c)
Water
d)
Hydrogen
32.
1.1.5 (application): What type of reaction involves the breaking of a chemical bond between 2 monomers using water?
a)
Condensation
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Hydrolysis
d)
Glycosidic
33.
1.1.3: What is the definition of a polymer?
a)
Molecules made from a large numberof monomers that are joined together
b)
Molecules made from a small number of monomers joined together
c)
Molecule made from monomers, some of which are joined together
34.
1.1.1: Cytochrome C is a protein used in respiration and is found in animal, plants and unicellular organisms.  Why is the wide spread occurrence of this compound evidence for evolution?
a)
It occurs in so many different organisms, it shows we all have a common ancestor
b)
Animals and plants might have evolved at a similar time
c)
Unicellular organisms evolved from animals
35.
1.2.3: what monosaccharaides make up to disaccharide Sucrose?
a)
Glucose and glucose
b)
Glucose and fructose
c)
Glucose and galactose
d)
alpha glucose and beta glucose
36.
1.2.3: what monosaccharaides make up to disaccharide Lactose?
a)
Glucose and glucose
b)
Glucose and fructose
c)
Glucose and galactose
d)
alpha glucose and beta glucose
37.
1.2.6: Which statement best describes the structure of cellulose?
a)
Long un-brnached chains of alpha glucose molecules, held together by hydrogen bonds.  These make strong fibres called microfibres
b)
Long chains of alpha glucose, held together by hydrogen bonds
c)
Short un-branched chains of beta glucose, which form strong fibres called macrofibrils
d)
Long, un-branched chains of beta glucose, which form strong fibres called microfibers (due to the hydrogen bonds present)
38.
1.2.6: What is the function of glycogen?
a)
Contains energy
b)
Used to store glucose
c)
Acts as an energy storage molecule in plants
d)
Acts as an energy storage molecule in animals
39.
1.2.4: Glycogen and starch are made of?
a)
Alpha glucose molecules joind by a glycosidic bond
b)
alpha glucose molecules formed by a hydrogen bond
c)
beta glucose molecules joined by a glycosidic bond
d)
beta glucose molecules joined by a condensation reaction
40.
1.2.6: Starch has 2 forms: Amylose and amylopectin.  Which statement best describes Amylose?
a)
It is a long un-branched chain of glucose molecules. It has a coiled structure
b)
It is a long, branched chain of glucose molecules.  It has many side branches that are broken down easily
c)
Amylose can be broken down quickly, so it releases energy quickly
41.
1.2.7: What colour would show a positive result in the iodine test?
a)
Green
b)
Blue
c)
Blue/black
d)
Purple
42.
1.2.7: What colour would show which substance contained the highest amount of reducing sugar in the benedicts
a)
Blue
b)
Orange
c)
Red
d)
Yellow
43.
1.2.7: What colour would show a negative result in the benedicts test?
a)
Red
b)
Yellow
c)
Blue
d)
Green
44.
1.2.7: If you have a sample of a non-reducing sugar, why would you add hydrochloric acid to a fresh sample before adding benedicts?
a)
To hydrolyse it and expose the reducing sugar ends of the molecule
b)
To break up the long chain molecule into smaller chains
c)
To give the molecule a charge
45.
1.2.6: Which statement best answers the question 'Why is glycogen good for storage?;
a)
It is a long chin molecule, containing many glucose molecules
b)
Lots of branches means it can be stored easily
c)
It has lots of branches that  which means glucose can be released quickly
46.

Maltose is a disaccharide and is made up of which two monosaccharides ...

a)

glucose + glucose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + galactose

d)

fructose + sucrose

47.

Sucrose is a disaccharide and is made up of which two monosaccharides ...

a)

glucose + glucose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + galactose

d)

fructose + sucrose

48.

Lactose is a disaccharide and is made up of which two monosaccharides ...

a)

glucose + glucose

b)

glucose + fructose

c)

glucose + galactose

d)

fructose + sucrose

49.

Polysaccharides form by which reaction ...

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Condensation

50.

Starch is an example of a polysaccharide, where is it found?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

51.

Glycogen is an example of a polysaccharide, where is it found?

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

52.

Which monomer makes up cellulose?

a)

alpha glucose

b)

beta glucose

53.

Role of lipids includes ...

a)

source of energy

b)

waterproofing

c)

insulation

d)

protection

54.

Triglycerides are so called because ...

a)

they have three fatty acids combined with glucose

b)

they have two fatty acids combined with glycerol

c)

they have three fatty acids combined with glycerol

d)

because they are three

55.

Phospholipids are similar to lipids except that one of the fatty acids is replaced with a phosphate molecule. Which of the following is true?

a)

Hydrophilic head and Hydrophilic tail

b)

Hydrophilic head and Hydrophobic tail

c)

Hydrophilic tail and Hydrophilic tail

d)

Hydrophilic head and Hydrophilic Head

56.

An amino acids has which of the following attached to the central carbon ...

a)

amino group

b)

carboxyl group

c)

hydrogen atom

d)

R (side) group

57.

The bond between amino acids are called ...

a)

peptide

b)

ester

c)

glycosidic

d)

phosphodiester

e)

hydrogen

58.

The bond between glucose molecules are called ...

a)

peptide

b)

ester

c)

glycosidic

d)

phosphodiester

e)

hydrogen

59.

The bond between DNA bases are called ...

a)

peptide

b)

ester

c)

glycosidic

d)

phosphodiester

e)

hydrogen

60.

The bond found in lipids are called ...

a)

peptide

b)

ester

c)

glycosidic

d)

phosphodiester

e)

hydrogen

61.

The bond found between a sugar and a base in a nucleotide is called ...

a)

peptide

b)

ester

c)

glycosidic

d)

phosphodiester

e)

hydrogen

62.

In the tertiary structure of a protein, which of the following bonds could be found ...

a)

ionic

b)

disulphide

c)

hydrogen

d)

glyosidic

63.

The base pair rule in DNA is

a)

A-G and C-T

b)

A-T and C-G

c)

A-A and T-T

d)

A-C and G-T

64.

If the % of Thymine in a cell is 34%, what is the % of Guanine?

a)

34

b)

68

c)

16

d)

0

65.

The site of cellular respiration is?

a)

rER

b)

Golgi Body/aparatus

c)

Vesicle

d)

Nucleus

e)

Mitochondria

66.

The organelle responsible for packaging and processing proteins is known as?

a)

rER

b)

Golgi Body/aparatus

c)

Vesicle

d)

Nucleus

e)

Mitochondria

67.

The organelle responsible folding the protein is?

a)

rER

b)

Golgi Body/aparatus

c)

Vesicle

d)

Nucleus

e)

Mitochondria

68.
This picture shows what type of lipid?
a)
unsaturated fat
b)
wax
c)
saturated fat
d)
steroid
69.
What type of lipid is this?
a)
steroid
b)
cholesterol
c)
phospholipid
d)
triglyceride
70.
In the phospholipid, the polar head is considered what type of structure?
a)
hydrophobic
b)
insoluble
c)
hydrophilic
71.

What is the chemical symbol of the iron containing haem group?

a)

Fe+

b)

Fe2+ 

c)

Fe3+

d)

Fe

72.

How many polypeptide chains is a haemoglobin molecule made of?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

73.

Haemoglobin has a high affinity for oxygen in areas with a...

a)

High partial pressure of carbon dioxide

b)

High partial pressure of oxygen

c)

Low partial pressure of oxygen

d)

Low partial pressure of carbon dioxide

74.

Dissociation of haemoglobin is its ability to...

a)

Unload its oxygen to tissues

b)

Become saturated with oxygen

c)

Keep hold of its oxygen

d)

All of the above...

75.

What kind of protein structure does haemoglobin have?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

76.

Foetal haemoglobin has a dissociation curve...

a)

The same as the normal curve

b)

To the left of the normal curve

c)

To the right of the normal curve

d)

Plateaus lower than the normal curve

77.

An organism with a high metabolic rate has a dissociation curve...

a)

At a lower partial pressure than the normal curve

b)

The same as the normal curve

c)

To the left of the normal curve

d)

To the right of the normal curve

78.

The Bohr effect is caused by...

a)

An increase in carbon dioxide, increasing the concentration of H+ ions, increasing acidity

b)

An decrease in carbon dioxide, increasing the concentration of H+ ions, increasing acidity

c)

An increase in carbon dioxide, increasing the concentration of H+ ions, decreasing acidity

d)

An decrease in carbon dioxide, decreasing the concentration of H+ ions, decreasing acidity

79.

After the first molecule of oxygen binds to haemoglobin...

a)

The tertiary structure changes, revealing less oxygen binding sites

b)

The tertiary structure changes, revealing more oxygen binding sites

c)

The tertiary structure stays the same

d)

The tertiary structure changes, the protein is denatured

80.

What is the advantage of the Bohr effect during intense exercise?

a)

Haemoglobin dissociates its oxygen more readily, as its affinity for oxygen decreases, providing more oxygen for an increase in aerobic respiration in muscle cells

b)

Haemoglobin dissociates its oxygen less readily, as its affinity for oxygen increases, providing less oxygen for an decrease in aerobic respiration in muscle cells

c)

Haemoglobin dissociates its oxygen more readily, as its affinity for oxygen increases , providing more oxygen for an increase in aerobic respiration in muscle cells

d)

Haemoglobin dissociates its oxygen less readily, as its affinity for oxygen decreases, providing more oxygen for an increase in aerobic respiration in muscle cells

81.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
82.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

83.

Which does only eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

84.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
floating DNA
c)
very small
d)
complex
85.

Which cell type tends to be smaller?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

there is not a size difference

86.
Has cytoplasm
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
87.
Has membrane bound organelles
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
c)
both
88.

Which cellular process takes place in the RIBOSOMES that are bound to the ER?

a)

Breakdown of waste material

b)

Production of ATP

c)

Synthesis of new proteins

d)

Replication of nucleic acids

89.

What am I?

mRNA leaves through me (I am a small hole/gap) on its way to the ribosome?

a)

nucleus

b)

nuclear pore

c)

nucleolus

d)

ribosome

90.

What am I?

I act as a control centre for the cell by producing mRNA and therefore control protein synthesis?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nuclear Pore

c)

Nucleolus

d)

ribosome

91.

What am I?

I have ribosomes on my outer surfaces of my membrane. I provide a large surface area for the synthesis of proteins and glycoproteins.

a)

sER

b)

ER

c)

rER

d)

RER

92.

What am I?

I come in two varieties. 70S and 80S. I am made of two subunits - one large and one small. I contain ribosomal RNA and protein. I am the site of protein synthesis in eukaryote cells.

a)

80S Ribosomes

b)

70S Ribosomes

93.

What am I?

I am formed when a vesicle is pinched off from the Golgi apparatus. I contain enzymes such as proteases and lipases. These enzymes can hydrolyse cell walls.

a)

Lysosome

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Organelle

94.

What am I?

I package and process new lipids and proteins which have been made in the endoplasmic reticulum.

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

c)

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Ribosomes

95.
Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
96.
What am I?
a)
cell wall
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
chloroplast
97.
What am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
98.
I store water in both plant and animal cells. What am I?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosomes
c)
vacuole
d)
lysosomes
99.

What do glycoproteins do?

a)

act as recognition sites

b)

help cells to attach to one another and so form tissues

c)

allow cells to recognise one another

d)

none of the above

100.

What do glycolipids do?

a)

act as recognition sites

b)

help maintain stability in the membrane

c)

help cells attach to one another and so form tissues

d)

all of the above

101.

Which transport processes require protein channels/carriers?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

102.

Which transport processes require move substances along a concentration gradient?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

103.

Which transport processes require move substances against a concentration gradient?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Osmosis

d)

Active transport

104.

Which of the following is not a protein?

a)

collagen

b)

antibody

c)

enzyme

d)

phospholipid

105.

A plant cell wall is made of ...

a)

starch

b)

gylcogen

c)

cellulose

d)

peptidoglycan

106.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
107.
Which factors can change the shape of an enzyme and thus denatures a enzyme?
a)
Excessive heat and changes in pH
b)
Nothing can
c)
Exposure to light and sound
d)
Exposure to bacteria and Amoebas
108.

The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.

a)

Iron

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

109.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
110.

Which of the following is a main function of a lipid?

a)

source of quick energy

b)

stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane

c)

transport substances in and out of the cell

d)

stores genetic information

111.

The visible features of this blood cell suggest that it is a

a)

polymorph

b)

monocyte

c)

lymphocyte

d)

red blood cell

112.

Which word describes red blood cells ?

a)

anucleate

b)

multinucleate

c)

polymorphic

d)

spherical

113.

The diagram shows the results of separating blood components in a centrifuge. Which are the most dense components of this sample?

a)

plasma

b)

leukocytes (white blood cells)

c)

platelets

d)

erythrocytes (red blood cells)

114.

Which statement supports the fact that mature plant cells can carry out the same role as lysosomes?

a)

A range of hydrolytic enzymes can be found within mature plant vacuoles.

b)

Glycogen, found within vesicles, can be hydrolysed to glucose molecules.

c)

Single membrane-bound vesicles are formed from plant Golgi bodies

d)

Vesicles, formed from smooth endoplasmic reticulum, contain enzymes.

115.

Which of these processes allow movement in both directions across cell surface membranes?

1 - active transport

2 - diffusion

3 - facilitated diffusion

4 - osmosis

a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 4 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

2 only

116.

What describes a telomere?

a)

a cell structure composed mainly of protein and involved in cell division

b)

a protein that associates with DNA to help condense it

c)

a region of DNA that links two sister chromatids together

d)

a region of repetitive nucleotide sequences at the end of a chromatid

117.

Uncontrolled cell division can form tumours. Which statement is correct for tumour cells only?

a)

Metaphase does not take place

b)

Cytokinesis does not occur

c)

Interphase takes less time.

d)

They have mutated DNA.

118.

Which of these events are part of mitosis?

1 - interphase

2 - anaphase

3 - cytokinesis

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

2 only

119.

In what mode of transport are protein carriers involved in?

a)

Active transport

b)

Diffusion

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

120.

What is the role of bile in digestion?

a)

It breaks up fats

b)

It emulsifies lipids, creating a larger surface area

c)

It creates a slightly alkali condition for enzymes to work in once digested food has left the stomach

d)

It catalyses the breakdown of proteins

121.

Which of the following does not act as a defence mechanism of the body?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Antigens

122.

Which enzyme do phagocytes use during phagocytosis?

a)

Lysozyme

b)

DNA helicase

c)

ATP synthase

d)

Amylase

123.

Which of the following is an example of passive immunity?

a)

Previous exposure to the pathogen

b)

Vaccination by injection

c)

Breastfeeding

d)

Oral vaccination

124.

Which of the following structure is for cellular respiration occurs in a cell?

a)

vacuoles

b)

mitochondria

c)

cytoplasm

d)

nucleus

125.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

127.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

128.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

129.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

130.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

134.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.
Enzymes are capable of increasing the rate of a chemical reaction within a living cell.  Enzymes accomplish this through which of the following means?
a)
reducing the number of products   
b)
reducing the activation energy
c)
increasing the temperature of the cell
d)
increasing the concentration of reactants 
136.
Which factors can change the shape of an enzyme and thus denatures a enzyme?
a)
Excessive heat and changes in pH
b)
Nothing can
c)
Exposure to light and sound
d)
Exposure to bacteria and Amoebas
137.
Based on the graph, what temperature does this enzyme work best? 
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
138.
Which line represents an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? 
a)
Line 1
b)
Line 2
139.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
140.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
141.

The element _______is found in all of the organic compounds.

a)

Iron

b)

Carbon

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

142.

The main function of a carbohydrate is

a)

long term energy storage

b)

stores genetic information

c)

short term energy storage

d)

regulates and controls all body proccesses

143.

Carbohydrates are made of what elements?

a)

CHO

b)

CHON

c)

CHONP

d)

CHONS

144.
What molecule is this
a)
sucrose
b)
protein
c)
glucose
d)
cellulose
145.

Which of these are examples of Lipids?

a)

simple sugars

b)

complex carbohydrates

c)

fats, oils, & waxes

d)

hair, skin, & nails

146.

Monomers of Lipids include

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

nucleotides

d)

glycerol and fatty acids

147.

Which of the following is a main function of a lipid?

a)

source of quick energy

b)

stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane

c)

transport substances in and out of the cell

d)

stores genetic information

148.
The characteristic that all lipids have in common is----
a)
made of lots of double bonds
b)
acidic when mixed with water
c)
no high energy content
d)
do not dissolve in water
149.
A water molecule is polar. Its bent shape results in the following...
a)
slightly positive charge on hydrogen and slightly negative charge on oxygen
b)
slightly positive charge on hydrogen and slightly  positive charge on oxygen
c)
slightly negative charge on hydrogen and slightly positive charge on oxygen
d)
no change because its neutral
150.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

151.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

152.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

153.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

155.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

156.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

157.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

158.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

159.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

160.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

161.

Not C

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

162.

The monomer making up a polypeptide chain.

a)

glucose

b)

amino acid

c)

protein

d)

DNA

163.

In this image what does R represent

a)

an element

b)

a carbon atom

c)

a functional group

d)

a carboxyl group

164.

Which level of protein structure is shown here?

a)

tertiary structure

b)

secondary structure

c)

quaternary structure

d)

primary structure

165.

How would you describe the bonds shown in this diagram?

a)

strong covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

non-polar interactions

d)

hydrogen bonds

166.

Which level of protein structure is shown here?

a)

tertiary structure

b)

secondary structure

c)

quaternary structure

d)

primary structure

167.

How would you describe the bonds indicated in this diagram?

a)

strong covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

non-polar interactions

d)

hydrogen bonds

168.

Which levels of protein structure are shown here?

a)

primary structure

b)

tertiary structure

c)

primary and secondary structure

d)

quaternary structure

169.

Which side groups can form hydrogen bonds?

a)

-COOH

b)

-CH

c)

-HS

d)

-CH3

170.

Which statement is NOT true of this collagen molecule?

a)

it is insoluble

b)

it contains just a few types of amino acid

c)

it is a globular protein

d)

it is a strong molecule

171.

Which statement is NOT true of this haemoglobin molecule?

a)

it has tertiary structure

b)

it is a fibrous protein

c)

it is soluble

d)

it has quaternary structure

172.

Enzymes are proteins. Which phrase best describes the function of enzymes?

a)

They take part in biochemical reactions

b)

They make reactions happen in the body

c)

They speed up biochemical reactions by lowering the activation energy

d)

They are catalysts

173.

Which phrase best explains the increase in rate between 10oC and 30oC?

a)

Enzymes and substrates collide more often

b)

The enzyme is working faster

c)

The temperature is increasing

d)

The rate of reaction is increasing

174.

Which phrase best explains the low rate at 50oC?

a)

The enzyme is not at its optimum temperature

b)

The substrate has melted

c)

The enzyme has denatured

d)

The temperature is too high

175.

All enzymes have an optimum temperature of 37oC.

a)

True

b)

False

176.

All enzymes are most effective at pH 7

a)

True

b)

False

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