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Full Syllabus Science Quiz (Term-1)

Total questions: 178

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The first part of a balanced chemical equation is shown:  H2SO4 + 2NaOH → ________.  In order for this equation to be balanced, how many hydrogen (H) atoms must be present in the products?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
2.
A teacher writes the equation representing the chemical reaction between hydrochloric acid and sodium on the board.HCl + Na → NaCl + H2The teacher states that the equation has not been balanced. Which of these correctly shows the products of this reaction after the equation has been balanced?
a)
Na2Cl + H2
b)
 2NaCl + H2
c)
NaCl + 2H2
d)
 2NaCl + 2H2
3.
The following reaction is an example of a 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(g)(i) displacement reaction (ii) combination reaction (iii) redox reaction (iv) neutralisation reaction
a)
(i) and (iv)
b)
(ii) and (iii)
c)
(i) and (iii)
d)
(iii) and (iv)
4.
Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)(i) Iron metal is getting oxidised (ii) Water is getting reduced (iii) Water is acting as reducing agent (iv) Water is acting as oxidising agent
a)
(i), (ii) and (iii)
b)
(iii) and (iv)
c)
(i), (ii) and (iv)
d)
(ii) and (iv)
5.
Which among the following is(are) double displacement reaction(s)?(i) Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu (ii) Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + 2NaCl (iii) C + O2 → CO2 (iv) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
a)
(i) and (iv)
b)
(ii) only
c)
(i) and (ii)
d)
(iii) and (iv)
6.
Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mole ratio of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated during electrolysis of water is
a)
(a) 1:1
b)
(b) 2:1
c)
(c) 4:1
d)
(d) 1:2
7.
Which of the following are combination reactions?(i) 2KClO3⎯Heat⎯→ 2KCl + 3O2 (ii) MgO + H2O ⎯→ Mg(OH)2 (iii) 4Al + 3O2 ⎯→ 2Al2 O3 (iv) Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
a)
(a) (i) and (iii)
b)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
c)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
d)
(d) (ii) and (iii)
8.
Which of the following reactions is balanced?
a)
2CH4 + O2 -> CO2 + H2O
b)
CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + H2O
c)
CH4 + 2O2 -> CO2 + 2H2O
d)
None of the chemical equations are balanced.
9.

Silver article turns black when kept in open for a few days due to formation of

a)

H2S

b)

AgS

c)

AgSO4

d)

Ag2S

10.

The reaction in which two compound exchange their ions to form two new compounds is called

a)

displacement reaction

b)

combination reaction

c)

redox reaction

d)

double displacement reaction

11.

The chemical formula of lead sulphate is :

a)

Pb2SO4

b)

Pb(SO4)2

c)

PbSO4

d)

Pb2(SO4)3

12.

7.The equation

Cu + xHNO3 -> Cu(NO3)2 + yNO2 + 2H2O

The values of x and y are

a)

3 and 5

b)

8 and 6

c)

4 and 2

d)

7 and 1

13.

White silver chloride in sunlight turns to :

a)

Grey

b)

Yellow

c)

Remain white

d)

Red

14.

Heating of ferrous sulphate gives which of the following product?

a)

Ferric oxide

b)

Sulphur dioxide

c)

Sulphur trioxide

d)

All the above

15.

These are all models of the same molecule. What would this molecule look like in a chemical/molecular formula?

a)

CH

b)

C4H

c)

CH4

d)

4CH

16.

Chemical formula of lime water is :

a)

CaO

b)

Ca(OH)2

c)

CaCO3

d)

CO2

17.
How many Hydrogen are in 4H2O?
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
18.
Is the following equation balanced?...
Al + O2 --> 2Al2O3
a)
Yes!
b)
No!
19.

Which of the following chemical equations follows the Law of Conservation of Mass? Hint: which is balanced?

a)

CO2 + H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2

b)

C6O + H12O --> C6H12O2

c)

CO2 + H2O --> C6H12O6 + O2

d)

CO2 +H2O --> C6H12O6 +O2

20.

For an investigation a student poured a blue solution of CuSO4 into a beaker. The student placed a shiny, silver-colored strip of zinc metal in the solution and wrote down the changes. Which change shows that a CHEMICAL REACTION took place?

a)

A dark solid (precipitate) formed on the zinc metal.

b)

The zinc metal stayed silver-colored and shiny

c)

The CuSO4 solution evaporated after the zinc metal was added.

d)

None of these

21.

What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?

(i) Temperature of the solution decreases

(ii) Temperature of the solution increases

(in) Temperature of the solution remains the same

(iv) Salt formation takes place

a)

(i) and (iv)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(ii) only

d)

(ii) and (iv)

22.

What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?

(i) Temperature of the solution decreases

(ii) Temperature of the solution increases

(in) Temperature of the solution remains the same

(iv) Salt formation takes place

a)

(i) and (iv)

b)

(i) and (iii)

c)

(ii) only

d)

(ii) and (iv)

23.

When hydrogen chloride gas is prepared on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through the guard tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to

a)

absorb the evolved gas

b)

moisten the gas

c)

absorb moisture from the gas

d)

absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas

24.

Which one of the following salts do not contain water of crystallisation?

a)

Blue vitriol

b)

Baking soda

c)

Washing soda

d)

Gypsum

25.

In terms of acidic strength, which one of the following is in the correct increasing order?

a)

Water < Acetic acid < Hydrochloric acid

b)

Water < Hydrochloric acid < Acetic acid

c)

Acetic acid < Water < Hydrochloric acid

d)

Hydrochloric acid < Water < Acetic acid

26.

Tomato is a natural source of which acid?

a)

Acetic acid

b)

Citric acid

c)

Tartaric acid

d)

Oxalic acid

27.

What is formed when zinc reacts with sodium hydroxide?

a)

Zinc hydroxide and sodium

b)

Sodium zincate and hydrogen gas

c)

Sodium zinc-oxide and hydrogen gas

d)

Sodium zincate and water

28.

Brine is an

a)

an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide

b)

an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate

c)

an aqueous solution of sodium chloride

d)

an aqueous solution of sodium bicarbonate

29.

Na2CO3. 10H2O is

a)

washing soda

b)

baking soda

c)

bleaching powder

d)

tartaric acid

30.

At what temperature is gypsum heated to form Plaster of Paris?

a)

90°C

b)

100°C

c)

110°C

d)

120°C

31.

How many water molecules does hydrated cal-cium sulphate contain?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

7

d)

2

32.

Sodium carbonate is a basic salt because it is a salt of a

a)

strong acid and strong base

b)

weak acid and weak base

c)

strong acid and weak base

d)

weak acid and strong base

33.

Alkalis are

a)

acids, which are soluble in water

b)

acids, which are insoluble in water

c)

bases, which are insoluble in water

d)

bases, which are soluble in water

34.

Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?

(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid

(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid

(in) Lower the pH, stronger the base

(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base

a)

(i) and (iii)

b)

(ii) and (iii)

c)

(i) and (iv)

d)

(ii) and (iv)

35.

The apparatus given in the adjoining figure was set up to demonstrate electrical conductivity.

Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct?

(i) Bulb will not glow because electrolyte is not acidic.

(ii) Bulb will glow because HCl is a strong acid and furnishes ions for conduction.

(iii) Bulb will not glow because the circuit is incomplete.

(iv) Bulb will not glow because it depends upon the type of electrolytic solution.

a)

(i) and (iii)

b)

(ii) and (iv)

c)

(ii) only

d)

(iv) only

36.

Lime water reacts with chlorine to give

a)

bleaching powder

b)

baking powder

c)

baking soda

d)

washing soda

37.

Tooth enamel is made up of

a)

calcium phosphate

b)

calcium carbonate

c)

calcium oxide

d)

potassium

38.

What is the pH range of our body?

a)

7.0 – 7.8

b)

7.2 – 8.0

c)

7.0 – 8.4

d)

7.2 – 8.4

39.

Rain is called acid rain when it:

a)

pH falls below 7

b)

pH falls below 6

c)

pH falls below 5.6

d)

pH is above 7

40.

An aqueous solution turns red litmus solution blue. Excess addition of which of the following solution would reverse the change?

a)

Baking powder

b)

Lime

c)

Ammonium hydroxide solution

d)

Hydrochloric acid

41.

When copper oxide and dilute hydrochloric acid react, colour changes to

a)

white

b)

bluish-green

c)

blue-black

d)

black

42.

Sodium hydroxide is used

a)

as an antacid

b)

in the manufacture of soap

c)

as a cleansing agent

d)

in alkaline batteries

43.

Sodium hydroxide turns phenolphthalein solution

a)

pink

b)

yellow

c)

colourless

d)

orange

44.

The chemical formula of washing soda is

a)

Na2C03 . 7H2O

b)

Na2C03 . 5H2O

c)

Na2C03 . 2H2O

d)

Na2C03 . 10H2O

45.

Nettle sting is a natural source of which acid?

a)

MetiWanoic acid

b)

Lactic acid

c)

Citric acid

d)

Tartaric acid

46.

Sodium hydroxide is a

a)

weak base

b)

weak acid

c)

strong base

d)

strong acid

47.
Describe what luster means
a)
How an object reflects light
b)
How soft an object is
c)
If an object floats
d)
If an object can be dug out of the earth.
48.
When an object changes shape when struck by a hammer.
a)
luster
b)
malleable
c)
brittleness
d)
ductile
49.
A chemical bond resulting from the electrostatic attraction between positive and negative ions is called a(n)
a)
covalent bond.
b)
ionic bond.
c)
charged bond.
d)
dipole bond.
50.
If my charge becomes 2+ what does that say about me?
a)
I am stealing 2 electrons
b)
I am losing 2 electrons
c)
I am in period 2
d)
I have an atomic # of 2
51.
If I gain electrons I become
a)
Positive because I've added to my atom
b)
negative because I've added electrons
c)
same because i'm balanced
d)
equal because now I have electrons
52.
What is the formula for aluminum fluoride?
a)
AlF
b)
Al2F3
c)
AlF3
d)
Al3F2
53.
The name for CrN:
a)
Chromium nitride
b)
Chromium (I) nitride
c)
Chromium (III) nitride
d)
Chromium nitride (III)
54.
Which type of elements are used in computer chips, lasers, and transistors?
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
d)
Metals and Metalloids
55.
Some students conducted a laboratory investigation to learn more about the physical properties of different elements. They observed four samples and recorded their observations in the table . Based on these observations, which sample is most likely a nonmetal?
a)
Sample 1
b)
Sample 2
c)
Sample 3
d)
Sample 4
56.
What is the formula for copper(I) sulfate?
a)
CuSO3
b)
CuSO4
c)
Cu2SO3
d)
Cu2SO4
57.
A metal  which occur in free state
 
a)
gold 
b)
zinc 
c)
lead 
d)
calcium
58.

Unknown element W has 2 valence electrons. Unknown element X has 7 valence electrons. Which formula shows the most likely outcome when elements W and X react?

a)

WX

b)

WX2

c)

W2X

d)

W2X2

59.

Potassium (K), an alkali metal, and magnesium (Mg), an alkaline earth metal, both combine readily with bromine (Br), a halogen. What compound will each element (K and Mg) most likely form with bromine?

a)

KBr and Mg2Br

b)

KBr and MgBr

c)

K2Br and Mg2Br

d)

KBr and MgBr2

60.
If an element has 3 valence electrons, what charge will likely form on its ion ?
a)
+3
b)
+5
c)
-3
d)
-5
61.

A metal high in the reactivity series.....

a)

Forms unstable compounds.

b)

Can be obtained by the reduction of the ore with the carbon.

c)

Readily gains electrons.

d)

Burns to form basic oxides.

e)

Reacts readily with cold water to form Hydrogen.

62.

What is just so typical of NON-metals?

a)

They don't know what colours go well together.

b)

Malleable.

c)

Form acidic oxides.

d)

Good conductors of electricity.

e)

High melting points.

63.

By looking at the element illustrated here, how might you classify it by appearance?

a)

Metal

b)

Non-Metal

c)

Metalloid

64.

This picture illustrates copper's

a)

brittleness

b)

malleability

c)

ductility

65.

Amphoteric oxides react with both acids and alkali to form salt and water.Pick the amphoteric oxide

a)

Aluminium oxide

b)

calcium oxide

c)

zinc oxide

d)

Both aluminium and zinc oxide

66.

The metal that will release hydrogen gas on reacting with Dilute nitric acid will be:

a)

Sodium

b)

Iron

c)

Magnesium

d)

Zinc

67.
One of the following is not an enzyme of digestive system.
a)
PEPSIN
b)
LIPASE
c)
TRYPSIN
d)
ENTEROGASTRONE
68.
The basic functional unit of human kidney is-
a)
NEPHRON
b)
SYNAPSE
c)
NEURON
d)
GLOMERULUS
69.
The trachea divides into two smaller tubes called ______.
a)
Trachea
b)
Bronchi
c)
Alveoli
d)
Bronchioles
70.
Storage form of glucose molecules (C6H12O6) in plant is-
a)
 Starch
b)
Cellulose
c)
Glycogen
d)
Glucagon
71.
Only partial breakdown of glucose molecule (C6H12O6) takes place in-
a)
active respiration
b)
passive respiration
c)
anaerobic respiration
d)
aerobic respiration
72.
Which of the following is a product of fermentation?
a)
Methanol
b)
Oxygen
c)
Ethanol
d)
Lactic acid
73.
Functional units of food absorption are-
a)
VILLI
b)
STOMACH
c)
LIVER
d)
FOOD PIPE
74.

The process of nutrition...

a)

detect and respond changes in the environment

b)

provides your body with energy and nutrients

c)

have offspring

75.

The valve present between right atrium and right ventricle.

a)

tricuspid

b)

bicuspid

c)

pulmonary

d)

aortic

76.

It is the site of gaseous exchange in human lungs.

a)

villi

b)

alveoli

c)

trachea

d)

larynx

77.

In unicellular organisms like amoeba gaseous exchange takes place through the process of ____________.

a)

osmosis

b)

transportation

c)

diffusion

d)

elimination

78.

The substance in plants and animals that act as an energy currency.

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

ADP

d)

ATP

79.

_______________ is the final product of glycolysis.

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

ATP

c)

Pyruvic acid

d)

acetyl coA

80.

Glycolysis takes place in the __________ of the cell.

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

Golgi complex

81.

The continuous contractions and relaxations of the digestive organs is called

a)

peristalsis

b)

photosynthesis

c)

expansion

d)

constriction

82.

_________________ artery carries deoxygenated blood.

a)

aortic

b)

pulmonary

c)

renal

d)

inferior

83.

chloroplasts are present in the ___________ of the leaf.

a)

palisade parenchyma

b)

aerenchyma

c)

sclrenchyma

d)

collenchyma

84.

Blood is pumped from the heart to the entire body by

a)

Aoarta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Vena cava

85.

Which vein brings back clean blood from lungs to heart

a)

Pulmonary artery

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Aoarta

d)

Vena cava

86.

In anaerobic respiration the amount of ATP produced overall is

a)

2 ATP

b)

38 ATP

c)

36 ATP

d)

40 ATP

87.

Which plant tissue transports water and minerals from the roots to the leaf?

a)

Xylem

b)

Phloem

c)

Parenchyma

d)

Collenchyma

88.

The movement of food in phloem is called:

a)

transpiration

b)

translocation

c)

respiration

d)

evaporation

89.

Blood vessel which carries the blood from the heart to the entire body:

a)

capillary

b)

Vein

c)

All

d)

artery

90.

Name the tube which connects the kidneys to the urinary bladder.

a)

Urethra

b)

Nephron

c)

Tubule

d)

Ureter

91.

Proteins after digestion are converted into

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Small globules

c)

Amino acids

d)

starch

92.

Blood consist of what fluid medium?

a)

LYMPH

b)

PLATELETS

c)

PLASMA

d)

ALL OF THESE

93.

One cell-thick vessels are called

a)

ARTERIES

b)

VEINS

c)

CAPILLARIES

d)

PULMONARY ARTERY

94.

Temporary finger like extensions on amoeba are called

a)

CELL MEMBRANE

b)

CELL WALL

c)

PSEUDOPODIA

d)

CILLIA

95.

THE FILTERATION UNIT OF KIDNEYS ARE CALLED____

a)

URETER

b)

URETHRA

c)

NEPHRON

d)

NEURON

96.

When a few drops of iodine solution are added to rice water, the solution turns blue- black in colour. This indicates that rice water contains:

a)

FATS

b)

COMPLEX PROTEINS

c)

STARCH

d)

SIMPLE PROTEINS

97.

What are the products obtained by anaerobic respiration in muscle cells?

a)

Lactic acid + Energy

b)

Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

c)

Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy

d)

Pyruvate

98.

Name the pores in a leaf through which respi-ratory exchange of gases takes place.

a)

Lenticels

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Xylem

d)

Stomata

99.

Which part of nephron allows the selective reabsorption of useful substances like glucose, amino acids, salts and water into the blood capillaries?

a)

Tubule

b)

Glomerulus

c)

Bowman’s capsule

d)

Ureter

100.

Identify the correct path of urine in the human body.

a)

Kidney → urinary bladder → urethra → ureter

b)

Urinary bladder → ureter → kidney → urethra

c)

Kidney → ureter → urethra → urinary bladder

d)

Kidney → ureter → urinary bladder → urethra

101.

Which is the correct sequence of body parts in the human alimentary canal?

a)

Mouth → stomach → small intestine → large intestine → oesophagus

b)

Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine

c)

Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → smallintestine → large intestine

d)

Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine

102.

_________________ artery carries deoxygenated blood.

a)

aortic

b)

pulmonary

c)

renal

d)

inferior

103.

In anaerobic respiration the amount of ATP produced overall is

a)

2 ATP

b)

38 ATP

c)

36 ATP

d)

40 ATP

104.

Blood is pumped from the heart to the entire body by

a)

Aoarta

b)

Pulmonary artery

c)

Pulmonary vein

d)

Vena cava

105.
Which of the following is a product of fermentation?
a)
Methanol
b)
Oxygen
c)
Ethanol
d)
Lactic acid
106.

Glycolysis takes place in the __________ of the cell.

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosomes

c)

cytoplasm

d)

Golgi complex

107.

When light hits an area and bounces back it is called:

a)

echo

b)

refraction

c)

reflection

d)

absorbing

108.

When light goes from one material(medium) to another it becomes bent, what term means bent?

a)

reflected

b)

refracted

c)

absorbed

d)

turned

109.

Why does the straw appear to be bent?

a)

light is reflected

b)

light is absorbed

c)

light is turned

d)

light is refracted

110.

When light passes from air to water, what happens to the speed of the light?

a)

speeds up

b)

slows down

c)

stays the same

111.
The velocity of light in vacuum is _______ m/s
a)
3x108
b)
3x1012
c)
3x106
d)
3x1010
112.

Which of the following characteristics are correct for the image formed in a plane mirror?


I. Upright

II. Inverted

III. Real

IV. Same size as the object

V. Virtual

a)

I, II, III

b)

I, III, IV

c)

I, IV, V

d)

III, IV, V

113.

Which of the following factors contributes to the bending of light?

a)

Change of speed of light

b)

Change of density of light

c)

Change of colour of light

d)

Change of energy of light

114.

When the light passes out of the glass, back into the air

a)

It bends away from the normal

b)

It does not bend

c)

It bends towards the normal

d)

It continues to be the normal

115.

Which figure represents the path light takes through a converging lens?

a)
b)
c)
d)
116.

A mirror having focal length –15 cm is _________________

a)

Plane mirror

b)

Concave mirror

c)

Convex mirror

d)

None of these

117.

Which of the following characteristics are correct for the image formed in a plane mirror?


I. Upright

II. Inverted

III. Real

IV. Same size as the object

V. Virtual

a)

I, II, III

b)

I, III, IV

c)

I, IV, V

d)

III, IV, V

118.
The illustration shows a light ray striking an object.
In the illustration, the light ray striking the object is-
a)
absorbed
b)
stopped
c)
reflected
d)
refracted
119.
What particles make up light?
a)
Photons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Protons
120.
What does reflection mean?
a)
bending light
b)
bouncing light
121.
What does refraction mean?
a)
bending light
b)
bouncing light
122.

Focal length of plane mirror is

a)

At infinity

b)

Zero

c)

Negative

d)

None of these

123.

A concave mirror gives real, inverted and same size image if the object is placed

a)

At F

b)

At infinity

c)

At C

d)

Beyond C

124.

Power of the lens is -5D, its focal length is

a)

4m

b)

-40m

c)

-0.2m

d)

-25m

125.

A concave mirror gives virtual, refract and enlarged image of the object but image of smaller size than the size of the object is

a)

At infinity

b)

Between F and C

c)

Between P and F

d)

At E

126.

Convex lens focus a real, point sized image at focus, the object is placed

a)

At focus

b)

Between F and 2F

c)

At infinity

d)

At 2F

127.

The unit of power of lens is

a)

Metre

b)

Centimetre

c)

Diopter

d)

M-1

128.

The radius of curvature of a mirror is 20cm the focal length is

a)

20 cm

b)

10 cm

c)

40 cm

d)

5 cm

129.

Which position of the object will produce a magnified virtual image, if a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm is being used?

a)

10 cm

b)

20 cm

c)

30 cm

d)

35 cm

130.

A lens of focal length 12 cm forms an erect image, three times the size of the object. The distance between the object and image is:

a)

8 cm

b)

16 cm

c)

24 cm

d)

36 cm

131.

If an object is placed 21 cm from a converging lens, the image formed is slightly smaller than the object. If the object is placed at a distance of 19 cm from the lens, the image formed is slightly larger than the object. The approximate focal length of the lens is:

a)

20 cm

b)

18 cm

c)

10 cm

d)

5 cm

132.

An object at a distance of 30 cm from a

concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The focal length of the mirror is

a)

– 30 cm

b)

30 cm

c)

– 15 cm

d)

+15 cm

133.

If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be

a)

75 cm

b)

25 cm

c)

15 cm

d)

60 cm

134.

The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be

a)

1.33 × 108 m/s

b)

3 × 108 m/s

c)

2.26 × 108 m/s

d)

2.66 × 108 m/s

135.

No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror may be

a)

only plane

b)

only concave

c)

either plane or convex

d)

only convex

136.

Power of’ a lens is the (a)   of its focal length

137.

A ………. lens will always give a virtual, erect and diminished image, irrespective of the position of the object.



(a)  

138.

A positive sign in the value of magnification indicates that the image is

a)

real

b)

virtual

c)

enlarged

d)

near

139.

If the image is formed in front of the mirror, then the image distance will be

a)

positive or negative depending on the size of the object

b)

neither positive nor negative

c)

positive

d)

negative

140.

A ray of light coming parallel to the principal axis after passing through a convex lens, has passed through its

a)

optical centre

b)

focus

c)

center of curvature

d)

mid point

141.

To get real magnified image in convex lens, the object position is

a)

in between lens and F

b)

in between F and 2F

c)

at 2F

d)

beyond 2F

142.

Centre point of a lens is called (a)  

143.

A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at

a)

at infinity

b)

at focus

c)

at the pole

d)

behind the mirror

144.

First law of reflection states that the angle of incidence is ___ angle of reflection.

a)

Greater than

b)

Less than

c)

Equal to

d)

None of these

145.

Second law of reflection states that?

a)

The incident angle, the reflected angle and the normal all lie in same plane

b)

The incident ray, the reflected ray and the surface of object all lie in same plane

c)

The incident angle, the incident ray and the normal all lie in same plane

d)

The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal all lie in same plane

146.

Which of the following is true with respect to magnification of spherical mirrors

a. It is the ratio of height of object to height of image

b. It can be also expressed as negative ratio of image distance to object distance

c. Magnification is always greater than zero

a)

a and c

b)

a and b

c)

b and c

d)

All are true

147.

Why the rear-view mirrors in vehicles are convex mirrors?

a)

These mirrors give virtual erect image and slightly diminished image

b)

Concave mirror also gives virtual erect image but these are highly magnified

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

148.

Lens formula is given as

a)

1/v -1/u = 1/f

b)

1/v + 1/u = 1/f

c)

1/u -1/v = 1/f

d)

None of these

149.

Recently, In A Science Class Test, You Are Asked A Question Where You Have To Say Whether The Statements Are Correct Or Not?

a)

The angle between incident ray and normal is called the angle of incidence.

b)

The angle between the refracted ray and the normal is called the angle of refraction.

c)

In refraction of light, the angle of refraction is usually not equal to the angle of incidence.

d)

All the above.

150.

Linear Magnification Produced By A Concave Mirror May Be:

a)

Less than 1 or equal to 1

b)

More than 1 or equal to 1

c)

Less than 1, more than 1 or equal to 1

d)

Less than 1 or more than 1

151.
The formula to calculate the refractive index is
a)
n=cv
b)
n=v/c
c)
n=c/v
d)
v=nc
152.

Light travels through a liquid at 2.25 x 108 m/s. What is the absolute refractive index of the liquid?

a)

1.33

b)

1.0

c)

1.523

d)

2.45

153.

Which of the following is a concave mirror?

a)
b)
c)
d)
154.

The relation between focal length and radius of curvature is

a)

R = 2f

b)

1/f = 2R

c)

f = R/2

d)

R = 2/f

155.

The point on the spherical mirror at the middle of the surface is called

a)

focus

b)

centre of curvature

c)

pole

d)

radius of curvature

156.

Where will be the images of the Sun or the moon are formed by a concave mirror?

a)

Focus

b)

Pole

c)

centre of curvature

d)

beyond centre of curvature

157.

When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to

a)

different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour

b)

each colours has same velocity in the prism.

c)

prism material have high density.

d)

Scattering of light

158.

The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as optically

a)

denser medium

b)

rarer medium

c)

inactive medium

d)

either denser or rarer medium

159.

The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is called ____________ of light.

a)

scattering

b)

interference

c)

tyndell effect

d)

Reflection

160.

At noon the sun appears white as [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

a)

light is least scattered

b)

all the colours of the white light are scattered away

c)

blue colour is scattered the most

d)

red colour is scattered the most

161.

The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light

a)

moves fastest in air

b)

is absorbed the most by smoke or fog

c)

is scattered the least by smoke or fog

d)

is scattered the most by smoke or fog

162.

When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the

a)

Pupil

b)

Iris

c)

outer surface of the cornea

d)

crystalline lens

163.

Scattering of light by colloidal solution is known as

a)

Scattering

b)

Dispersion

c)

Tyndall effect

d)

Stability

164.

The colored light that refracts most while passing through a prism is

a)

Red

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Violet

165.

Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called

a)

atmospheric reflection

b)

atmospheric dispersion

c)

atmospheric scattering

d)

atmospheric refraction

166.

Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?

a)

Rainbow

b)

Twinkling of stars

c)

Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset

d)

Stars seem higher than they actually are

167.

Which of the following phenomena contributes significantly to the reddish appearance of the sun at sunrise or sunset?

a)

Dispersion of light

b)

Scattering of light

c)

Total internal reflection of light

d)

Reflection of light from the earth

View Answer

168.

When a white light falls on a triangular prism, the colour of light which will deviate the least is

a)

violet

b)

green

c)

blue

d)

red

169.

Atmospherics refraction explains the natural phenomena

a)

twinkling of stars

b)

Sky appears blue

c)

Refraction of light through a prism

d)

rainbow formation

170.

Assertion: Planets do not twinkle

Reason: Light rays do not come from planet

a)

Assertion and reason are true. Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

b)

Assertion and reason are false

c)

Assertion is false, but reason is true

d)

Assertion is true, but reason is false

171.

The angle between angle of incidence and the angle of emergence is called...........

a)

angle of emergence

b)

angle of prism

c)

angle of deviation

d)

critical angle

172.

When white light passes through a prism,

a)

red bends more, violet bends least

b)

red bends least, violet bends most

c)

dispersion doesn't occur

d)

refraction doesn't occur

173.

The splitting of white light into the seven colors when it passes through a transparent material is called

a)

Refractrion

b)

Dispersion

c)

Reflection

d)

Diffraction

174.

A ray of white light enters the raindrop and undergoes __________ and __________ to form a spectrum.

a)

refraction; dispersion

b)

reflection; dispersion

c)

dispersion; diffraction

d)

scattering; dispersion

175.

Red light has

a)

longer wavelength

b)

shorter wavelength

c)

longer frequency

d)

none of the above

176.
By passing light through a prism, you can tell ____________.
a)
that white light is made of different colors
b)
the weight of the prism
c)
the original source of light
d)
that blue light is brighter than white light
177.
What is the correct order of the colors of the rainbow?
a)
Red, Yellow, Orange, Blue, Indigo, Violet
b)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
c)
Yellow, Orange, Red, Green, Blue, Violet, Indigo
178.

angle of deviation will be maximum for-----colour

a)

red

b)

violet

c)

green

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