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SS Afternoon Quiz #1 Review

Total questions: 175

Worksheet time: 6hrs 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
2.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
3.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
4.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
5.
As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, the amount of energy in that wave...
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
6.
The height of the wave is known as the _____________.
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
7.
The blue section of the wave is measuring _________________.
a)
wavelength
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
amplitude 
8.
Light behaves like both a particle and a ______.
a)
Mass
b)
Wave
c)
Current
9.

Which of the following has the lowest energy?

a)

The color yellow

b)

The color blue

c)

The color indigo

d)

The color orange

10.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

UV rays

c)

Infrared

d)

the color blue

11.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Violet

12.

Which of the following is true for sound waves?

a)

They require a medium.

b)

They are unrelated to vibrations.

c)

They cannot travel through liquids

d)

They can travel in a vacuum

13.

A student asks a series of questions about a wave. The answer to which question will allow the student to determine whether the wave is electromagnetic or mechanical?

a)

Does it require a medium in order to travel?

b)

Can it pass through air and water?

c)

Does it have a measurable speed?

d)

Does it have a measurable frequency?

14.

How do electromagnetic and mechanical waves compare?

a)

Mechanical waves can only travel through a vacuum, but electromagnetic waves can travel through a solid, liquid, or gas.

b)

Mechanical waves can travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can only travel through a gas.

c)

Mechanical waves can only travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum.

d)

Mechanical waves can travel through a solid, liquid, or gas, but electromagnetic waves can only travel through a solid.

15.

This sound has high pitch, which means it has a higher frequency. This means when you hear the sound...

a)

More waves hit your ears per second

b)

Bigger waves hit your ears

c)

Less waves hit your ears per second

d)

Longer waves hit your ears

16.

How are Electromagnetic waves different from Mechanical waves?

a)

EM waves have very short wavelengths

b)

EM waves transmit energy instead of matter

c)

EM waves can travel through the vacuum of space (without particles)

d)

EM waves can change direction by reflection

17.
Waves are a transfer of what?
a)
Heat
b)
Light
c)
Energy
d)
Food
18.
The units for frequency are measured in _____________.
a)
hertz
b)
seconds
c)
m/s
d)
m
19.

Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from low to high energy

a)

Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

b)

Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio

c)

Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio

d)

Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma

20.

A wave has a frequency of 10 hz and a wavelength of 4 m. What is the velocity of the wave?

a)

24 m/s

b)

40 m/s

c)

2.5 m/s

21.

A wave has a velocity of 10 m/s and a frequency of 20 hz. What is the wave length of the wave?

a)

2 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

10 m

22.

A wave has a frequency of 2.5 hz and a wavelength of 20 m. What is the velocity of the wave?

a)

50 m/s

b)

8 m/s

c)

40 m/s

23.

A wave has a velocity of 4 m/s and a wavelength of 2 m. What is the frequency of the wave?

a)

2 hz

b)

8 hz

c)

18 hz

24.

A wave has a frequency of 6 Hz. What is the period of the wave?

a)

0.167 s

b)

6 m

c)

0.167

d)

6 Hz

25.

A radio wave has a wave length of 4 m and a frequency of 4 Hz. What is the speed of the wave?

a)

16 m/s

b)

16 m

c)

4 Hz

d)

8 m/s

26.
True or false: as you move along the spectrum, radio to gamma waves, the wavelengths decrease in size (get smaller)
a)
true
b)
false
27.
A wave with a large wavelength will have a ______ frequency and _____ energy
a)
high, low
b)
high, high
c)
low, high
d)
low, low
28.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from the longest wavelength to the shortest wavelength
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
29.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
30.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
31.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
32.
How are electromagnetic waves different from other waves? 
a)
They have very short wavelengths 
b)
They transmit energy instead of matter 
c)
They can travel through empty space
d)
They can change direction by reflection 
33.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest energy?
a)
gamma ray
b)
infrared wave
c)
visible light wave
d)
microwave
34.
As the frequency of an electromagnetic wave increases, the amount of energy in that wave...
a)
increases.
b)
decreases.
c)
stays the same.
35.
High frequency waves have _________ wavelengths.
a)
varying
b)
long
c)
the same
d)
short
36.
The distance between two crests or two troughs of a wave is called:
a)
frequency
b)
amplitud
c)
wavelength
d)
hertz
37.
How much of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible?
a)
All of it
b)
None of it
c)
Most of it
d)
Only a small part
38.
The height of the wave from the rest position is known as the _____________.
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
39.
What are electromagnetic waves?
a)
sound waves
b)
electric & magnetic fields (energy) that travel through empty space very quickly
c)
Someone's name
d)
things like longitudinal waves
40.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

UV rays

c)

Infrared

d)

the color blue

41.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Violet

42.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

X-rays

b)

The color green

c)

Microwaves

d)

ultraviolet

43.

Which of the following has the longest wavelength?

a)

Infrared

b)

The color Indigo

c)

gamma rays

d)

TV

44.

Which of the following has the least amount of energy?

a)

UV rays

b)

The color yellow

c)

infrared

d)

Gamma rays

45.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

The color blue

c)

AM radio

d)

Infrared

46.

Which of the following has the highest frequency?

a)

TV

b)

Microwaves

c)

the color indigo

d)

ultraviolet rays

47.

Which of the following would have the lowest frequency?

a)

infrared

b)

The color red

c)

X-rays

d)

TV

48.

Which of the following has the lowest energy?

a)

The color yellow

b)

The color blue

c)

The color indigo

d)

The color orange

49.

Which of the following has the lowest frequency?

a)

The color blue

b)

The color green

c)

The color yellow

d)

The color violet

50.

Which of the following are Non-Renewable energy resources? (Check all that apply.)

a)

coal

b)

wind

c)

solar

d)

nuclear

51.

One advantage of solar and wind power over fossil fuels is that

a)

wind and solar are presently much less expensive than fossil fuels.

b)

wind and solar come from natural processes and fossil fuels do not.

c)

wind and solar are nonrenewable resources and fossil fuel are renewable.

d)

wind and solar are continuously renewable and fossil fuels take millions of years to be formed.

52.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Coal

a)

Renewable

b)

Nonrenewable

53.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Natural Gas

a)

nonrenewable

b)

renewable

54.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Oil

a)

Nonrenewable

b)

Renewable

55.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Sunlight

a)

Renewable

b)

Nonrenewable

56.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Water

a)

Nonrenewable

b)

Renewable

57.

Renewable or Nonrenewable: Wind

a)

Renewable

b)

Nonrenewable

58.

This energy is from moving air.

a)

Wind Energy

b)

Geothermal Energy

c)

Fossil Fuel Energy

d)

Biofuel

59.

This is electrical energy that comes from the force of energy of moving water. It is the most widely used type of renewable energy.

a)

Coal

b)

Hydroelectric Power

c)

Wind Energy

d)

Geothermal Energy

60.

This is a liquid fuel derived from plant materials.

a)

wind energy

b)

biofuel (from biomass)

c)

geothermal energy

d)

solar energy

61.

This is the energy generated in the Earth's core and produces steam and hot water.

a)

Solar Energy

b)

Hydroelectric Power

c)

Fossil Fuels

d)

Geothermal

62.

Solar energy is a completely renewable resource.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

63.

Fossil Fuels produce carbon dioxide that pollutes the atmosphere.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

64.

Nuclear Power can generate high amounts of electrical energy in a single plant.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

65.

Biomass requires a lot of space.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

66.

Wind energy is pollution free.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

67.

Hydropower can have a negative impact on river wildlife.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

68.

Geothermal power is geographically limited-not available in many locations.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

69.

Fossil Fuels are a nonrenewable resource.

a)

Advantage

b)

Disadvantage

70.

__________ is an energy resource that WILL NOT run out in the next several hundred years.

a)

Renewable Energy Resource

b)

Nonrenewable Energy Resource

c)

Fossil fuels

d)

biodegradable

71.

__________ is an energy resource that WILL run out in the next several hundred years.

a)

Renewable Energy Resource

b)

Nonrenewable Energy Resource

c)

natural resources

d)

pollution

72.
what is a non renewable resource?
a)
water
b)
wind
c)
coal
d)
biomass
73.
Non-Renewable resources are also known as what?
a)
Fossil Fuels
b)
Renewable
c)
Solar Energy
d)
Hydroelectric Energy
74.

What is a fossil fuel?

a)

oil

b)

biomass

c)

wind

d)

hydro

75.
Where does most of earth`s energy come from?
a)
The sun
b)
Mars
c)
Wind
d)
Water
76.
Which of these is used to make gasoline?
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
wind
d)
oil
77.
Which extremely flammable gas is most commonly burned for fuel?
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
natural gas
78.
Fossil fuels are sources of energy made from what?
a)
prehistoric plants
b)
prehistoric animals
c)
both of these
d)
none of these
79.

Trees are renewable resources.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Wind is a renewable resource.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Oil is a renewable resource.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Trees are a renewable resource because ...

a)

they can be replanted.

b)

of how big they can grow.

c)

they burn in forest fires.

d)

birds live in them.

83.

Natural resources form in nature. Which of the following is NOT a natural resource?

a)

oil

b)

coal

c)

plastic

d)

water

84.

Which of the following resources WILL eventually run out?

a)

natural resources

b)

renewable resources

c)

nonrenewable resources

85.

Trees can be categorized as what type of energy?

a)

Hydroelectric Energy

b)

Biomass Energy

c)

Geothermal Energy

d)

Solar Energy

86.

What type of mechanical device is used in most methods of harnessing energy from resources?

a)

Gear

b)

Turbine

c)

Panel

d)

Engine

87.

What type of energy harnesses energy from the rise and fall of the tides in the ocean?

a)

Tidal Energy

b)

Solar Energy

c)

Wind Energy

d)

Biomass Energy

88.
Name Two examples of Nonrenewable resources?
a)
Coal and Oil
b)
Biomass and Wind Turbines
c)
Tidal and Geothermal
89.
What is a disadvantage of Fossil Fuels?
a)
Scientists guess that it will run out in the next 50 years
b)
There are no disadvantages
c)
It does not pollute the earth
90.

Which type of reaction does the diagram illustrate?

a)

Fission

b)

Fusion

c)

Alpha Decay

d)

Beta Decay

91.

In which process does a heavy nucleus split into two lighter nuclei?

a)

freezing

b)

condensation

c)

fission

d)

fusion

92.

What occurs in both fusion and fission reactions?

a)

Small amounts of energy are converted into large amounts of matter.

b)

Small amounts of matter are converted into large amounts of energy.

c)

Heavy nuclei are split into lighter nuclei.

d)

Light nuclei are combined into heavier nuclei.

93.

What is one benefit associated with a nuclear fission reaction?

a)

The products are not radioactive.

b)

Stable isotopes are used as reactants.

c)

There is no chance of biological exposure.

d)

A large amount of energy is produced.

94.

For the balanced equation, which particle is represented by X?

a)

0-1 e

b)

11 H

c)

42 H

d)

10 n

95.

In which type of reaction do two lighter nuclei combine to form one heavier nucleus?

a)

combustion

b)

oxidation

c)

nuclear fission

d)

nuclear fusion

96.

Nuclear fusion differs from nucleus fission because nucleus fusion reactions

a)

form heavier isotopes from lighter isotopes

b)

form lighter isotopes from heavier isotopes

c)

convert mass to energy

d)

convert energy to mass

97.

Which phrase describes a risk associated with producing energy in a nuclear power plant?

a)

depletion of atmospheric hydrogen

b)

depletion of atmospheric carbon dioxide

c)

production of wastes needing long-term storage

d)

production of wastes that cool surrounding water supplies

98.

Which reaction represents fusion?

a)
b)
c)
d)
99.

Which reaction represents fission?

a)
b)
c)
d)
100.
What is Half-life?
a)
The amount of time it takes for some of the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
b)
The amount of time it takes for half the electrons in a sample of the isotope to decay
c)
The amount of time it takes for half the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
d)
the amount of time it takes to double the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
101.
What is the half-life of iodine-131?
a)
32 days
b)
8 days
c)
16 days
d)
24 days
102.

After 22,800 years, approximately what percentage of the original carbon-14 remains?

a)

15%

b)

12.5%

c)

6.25%

d)

3.125%

103.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 1 Half Life.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

104.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 2 Half Lives.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

105.

The diagram shows 32 atoms

32 of the Red are the parent isotope

0 of the atoms are daughter isotopes

How many half-lives have occurred?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

106.

The diagram shows 32 atoms.

16 of the Red are parent isotopes

16 of the Green are daughter isotopes

How many half-lives have occurred?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

107.

What is the Half life of this isotope?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

15 seconds

d)

20 seconds

108.

What is the Half Life of this isotope?

a)

3 days

b)

5 days

c)

8 days

d)

10 days

109.
Imagine you have 50,000 atoms of uranium-238. If U-238 has a half-life of 4.5 billion years, how many U-238 atoms will be left after 4.5 billion years? 
a)
25,000
b)
50,000
c)
12,500
d)
0
110.
You have 100 grams of radioactive C-14. The half life of C-14 is 5730 years. 
How many grams are left after 1 half life? 
a)
100 grams
b)
25 grams
c)
2 grams
d)
50 grams
111.
When nuclei decay, massive amounts of __________ is released.
a)
energy
b)
jello
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
112.

Why do some elements have half-lives?

a)

they radioactively decay

b)

half of their atom gets stolen

c)

They are Twizzlers that break in half

113.

Radioactive carbon-14 is often useful in determining the absolute age of geologic samples because radioactive isotopes

a)

decay at a regular rate

b)

become less stable during decay

c)

remain unchanged over time

d)

stabilize after four half-lives

114.

Which diagram best represents the percentage of this radioactive isotope sample that will remain after 2 half-lives?

a)
b)
c)
d)
115.

The Half Life of Californium 252 is 5 years.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

116.
An isotope of an element has the same number of _________, but a different number of _________.
a)
Protons, electrons
b)
Protons, neutrons
c)
Electrons, neutrons
117.

The mass of a parent isotope is 100 g. How many grams of the parent isotope will remain after 2 half-lives?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

12.5

d)

0

118.

A 50.0 g sample of a radioactive element has a half-life of 40 years. How much mass will be left after 80 years?

a)

50

b)

25

c)

12.5

d)

6.25

119.

How long would it take for an element with a half-life of 100 years to reach 5 half-lives?

a)

50

b)

500

c)

5000

d)

5

120.

Which of these atoms is most likely to undergo some form of radiation? (you can choose more than 1)

a)

Uranium

b)

Platinum

c)

Plutonium

d)

Cesium

e)

Hafnium

121.

finish the equation


18173Ta --> ____ + 18174W

a)

42He

b)

0-1e

c)

y

122.

finish the equation


22688Ra --> ____ + 22688Ra

a)

42He

b)

0-1e

c)

y

123.

Identify the type of nuclear decay shown here

21483Bi → 0-1e + 21484Po

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

124.

Solve this equation.

85209At = ___ + 24He

a)

83205Bi

b)

86209Rn

c)

81207Tl

d)

85208At

125.

Finish this equation

20983Bi--> _______ + 20581Tl

a)

42He

b)

0-1e

c)

y

126.

What type of nuclear decay is shown here

13756Ba →→ 13756Ba + γ rays

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

127.

What type of decay is shown here

23892U ---> 23490Th + 42He.

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

128.

Solve this equation for.

614C = ___ + -10e

a)

410Be

b)

714N

c)

210He

d)

613C

129.

Solve this equation.

88226Ra = ___ + 24He

a)

86222Rn

b)

89226Ac

c)

84224Po

d)

88225Ra

130.

If we start off with element 5024X after an gamma decay we get an element(product) that looks like...

a)

5124X

b)

5023X

c)

5024X

d)

5025X

131.
What makes something radioactive?
a)
elements with an atomic number above 81
b)
an unstable nucleus
c)
contaminated sewage
d)
It decays over time
132.

A radioactive nuclide has a ____ stable nucleus than a non-radioactive nucleus of the same element.

a)

more

b)

less

c)

identical

d)

small

133.
Has a mass of 4 and a charge of +2
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
134.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta 
c)
Gamma
135.
This is the symbol for a(n)
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma particle
136.
Takes two small nuclei and combines them into a larger nucleus
a)
fission
b)
fusion
137.
The splitting of a nucleus into smaller nuclei is
a)
fusion
b)
fission
c)
half-life
d)
gamma radiation
138.
How is nuclear fusion different from nuclear fission?
a)
In fusion, the product is a larger atomic nucleus.
b)
Fission produces energy but fusion does not.
c)
Fusion produces energy but fission does not.
d)
In fission, the product is a larger atomic nucleus.
139.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma 
d)
none
140.
This is an example of ---
a)
Radioactive Decay
b)
Nuclear Fission
c)
Nuclear Fusion
d)
Fossil fuel reaction
141.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma
d)
none
142.
What particle completes this reaction?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma particle
d)
neutron
143.

Why does alpha decay occur?

a)

The nucleus is too large to be stable

b)

The proton to neutron ratio is unstable

c)

The nucleus is in an excited state. This usually follows other types of decay.

144.

Why does beta decay occur?

a)

The nucleus is too large to be stable

b)

The proton to neutron ratio is unstable

c)

The nucleus is in an excited state. This usually follows other types of decay.

145.

Why does gamma decay occur?

a)

The nucleus is too large to be stable

b)

The proton to neutron ratio is unstable

c)

The nucleus is in an excited state. This usually follows other types of decay.

146.

How is the alpha particle written in a nuclear equation?

a)

42He

b)

24He

c)

0-1e

d)

00γ

147.
A helium nucleus with two protons and two neutrons is called a(n) ____.  
a)
alpha particle
b)
electroscope
c)
beta particle
d)
gamma ray
148.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma 
d)
none
149.
Solve this equation for alpha decay.
85209At = ___ + 24He
a)
83205Bi
b)
86209Rn
c)
81207Tl
d)
85208At
150.

Gamma rays have

a)

no mass

b)

a huge mass

c)

a small mass

d)

an average mass

151.
Solve this equation for beta decay.
614C = ___ + -10e
a)
410Be
b)
714N
c)
210He
d)
613C
152.

The nucleus is held together by the ___________________________force.

a)

The Strong Nuclear Force

b)

The Weak Nuclear Force

c)

Electromagnetism

d)

Gravity

153.

During beta-particle emission, a neutron splits into a____________________.

a)

proton and electron

b)

neutron and electron

c)

neutron and proton

154.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta 
c)
Gamma
155.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
156.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
157.
Has the highest penetrating power.  Can penetrate our body.  Even several cm thick of lead or several meters thick of concrete cannot stop all of it.
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
158.
Has the lowest penetrating power.  Can only penetrate 0.05 mm into the body and can be stopped by a piece of paper or clothing.
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
159.
Uranium-238  decays into  Thorium-234  by emitting .........
a)
an alpha particle
b)
a beta particle
c)
gamma rays
d)
visible light
160.
The process of nuclear change in an atom of radioactive material is called... 
a)
nuclear decay
b)
nuclear mass
c)
isotopes
d)
radon
161.
Radioactive materials have unstable...
a)
electrons
b)
protons
c)
nuclei
d)
neutrons
162.
This is an example of...
a)
Fission  reaction
b)
Fusion reaction
c)
Decomposition reaction
d)
Decay
163.
Which process involves the joining of small nuclei?
a)
Beta decay
b)
Alpha decay
c)
Nuclear fission
d)
Nuclear fusion
164.
In a correctly written symbol what would be located in the "A" position?
a)
number of neutrons
b)
atomic number
c)
number of electrons 
d)
mass number
165.

In a correctly written symbol what would be located in the "Z" position?

a)

number of neutrons

b)

atomic number

c)

number of electrons

d)

mass number

166.

Power stations are costly to produce. There are serious health risks related to radiation. On the other hand, It is non-renewable energy, and it does not emit greenhouse gases.

a)

Nuclear energy

b)

Solar energy

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Wind power

167.

Its combustion contributes significantly to the greenhouse effect; at the speed of production and consumption, it could lose its reserves in 40 years. Moreover, it is the main fossil fuel because it is cheap, energy-efficient, and versatile in the production of materials and easy transport.

a)

Coal

b)

Oil

c)

Naural gas

168.

It is dry, bulky, expensive, and difficult to transport. Its impacts are negative for the environment: visual pollution and noise. Otherwise, it has been responsible for western industrial development.

a)

Oil

b)

Coal

c)

Gas

169.

Its main component is methane (CH4); it also has ethane, propane, and other impurities. On the other hand, it is considered fossil fuel that has the least impact on the environment.

a)

Oil

b)

Gas

c)

Coal

d)

Charcoal

170.

Each unit of electricity generated by this renewable energy costs between 4 and 10 times more than that derived from fossil fuels. It is a renewable energy that doesn’t emit any kind of air, water, or soil pollution.

a)

Solar energy

b)

Wind power

c)

Nuclear energy

d)

Hydroelectricity

171.

Its turbines are noisy; they can affect bird migration. High construction costs limit its large-scale development. Moreover, it doesn’t produce any pollution.

a)

Tidal energy

b)

Wave energy

c)

Wind power

d)

Geothermal energy

172.

Its plants are costly to produce. It probably increases evaporation in the dam and favors silt deposition. Moreover, It is a form of renewable energy that takes advantage of water's rapid flow with sufficient volume.

a)

Hydroelectricity

b)

Nuclear energy

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

173.

The River Rance in Brittany, France, and in the Bay of Fundy in Canada are good examples of this energy's implementation. Otherwise, it could produce environmental damage to estuaries, possible effects on ports and upstream industries.

a)

Hydroelectricity

b)

Nuclear energy

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

174.

As it becomes more scarce, women and children travel more to collect, and round trips of 10 km are not uncommon; This imposes an extra burden on your health. On the other hand, It is the most important source of energy in rural Africa - for example, in Tanzania, it is 90%, and in Zimbabwe, 50%.

a)

fuelwood

b)

oil

c)

gas

d)

coal

175.

It is a relatively green energy source, and it is not dependent on weather conditions. On the other hand, it is local-dependent, has high initial costs, and produces odor nuisance.

a)

Tidal energy

b)

Wave energy

c)

Hydroelectricity

d)

Geothermal energy

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