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Biol 208 exam 1 review

Total questions: 84

Worksheet time: 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Edward Jenner is known for

a)

inventing the microscope

b)

giving the first vaccines against small pox

c)

being the first to record medical statistics

d)

seeing the first cells

2.

Which of the following demonstrates correct scientific notation of a bacterial organism?

a)

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

b)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

3.

aseptic means

a)

frozen

b)

dirty

c)

free of microbes

d)

full of microbes

4.

the first life forms on earth were

a)

alien

b)

dinosaurs

c)

microscopic

d)

cave dwellers

5.

Which of the following are considered a beneficial product of microorganisms (check all that apply)

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

production of fermented foods

c)

synthesis of vitamins

d)

causative agents of disease

e)

producing oxygen

6.

Which of the following would you expect to find inhabiting the human digestive tract? (check all that apply)

a)

yeast

b)

algae

c)

bacteria

d)

intestinal viruses

7.

Which of the following methods for classifying life forms is MOST accurate in distinguishing between two closely related rod-shaped bacterial organisms?

a)

physical characteristics

b)

method of reproduction

c)

DNA sequence comparison

d)

environmental habitat

e)

gram staining

8.

Robert Hooke is known for

a)

inventing the microscope

b)

giving the first vaccines against small pox

c)

being the first to record medical statistics

d)

seeing the first cells

9.

which of the following apply to prokaryotes (check all that apply)

a)

bacteria and archae

b)

DNA lacking a nuclear membrane

c)

small size (0.2-10 um)

d)

plant cells

e)

membrane bound organelles

10.

which of the following apply to eukaryotes (check all that apply)

a)

bacteria and archae

b)

DNA inside a nucleus

c)

large size size (up to 1 mm)

d)

plant cells

e)

membrane bound organelles

11.

Both viruses and cells always contain

a)

membranes

b)

nucleic acid

c)

DNA

d)

ribosomes

12.

Some parasitic worms do not fit the normal definition of microbes, as they are large enough to be seen without the aid of a microscope. Are they still considered microbes?

a)

Yes, because they can infect people

b)

Yes, because they are transmitted like microbes

c)

Yes, because they do not fit in another category

d)

No, they are not considered microbes

13.

an antibiotic that targets the ribosomes of the pathogen would not be effective against a:

a)

bacteria

b)

yeast

c)

virus

d)

mold

14.

Which of these statements are part of the germ theory of disease? (check all that apply)

a)

A specific microbe causes a specific disease

b)

Disease is often a result of breathing smoke or chemically polluted air.

c)

Disease can be linked to a transmissible entity.

d)

Quarantine can help slow the spread of disease.

e)

disease is often a result of homeostatic imbalance

15.

which microbe cannot be grown in pure culture on an agar petri dish and is small enough to pass through a tiny pored filter?

a)

bacteria

b)

yeast

c)

virus

d)

mold

16.

A microbial growth medium for Staphylococcus aureus is prepared with a high salt concentration to minimize the growth of many organisms that are not capable of growth in these conditions. This is an example of

a)

animal culture.

b)

endosymbiosis.

c)

pure culture.

d)

selective medium.

17.

Which of the following are Koch's postulates? (check all that apply)

a)

Pathogen isolated from diseased host

b)

Pathogen grown in pure culture

c)

pathogens can be spontaneously generated

d)

Pathogen introduced into healthy host—disease occurs

e)

Same pathogen is isolated from newly diseased host

18.

organisms that feed solely on inorganic molecules are known as

a)

nitrogen fixers

b)

lithotrophs

c)

endosymbionts

d)

biofilm participants

19.

Which of the following are example of endosymbiosis (check all that apply)

a)

rhizobial bacteria growing in the root nodules of certain plants

b)

microorganisms in the digestive system of the cow degrading cellulose

c)

bacteria in termite intestines digesting plant polymers

d)

Bacillus anthracis spores present in the soil of cattle farms

e)

cyanobacteria taken up by a eukaryote becoming a chloroplast

20.

Which of the following statements provides evidence in support of the endosymbiotic origin of eukaryotic cells?(check all that apply)

a)

The DNA sequence of mitochondria is similar to the DNA sequence of respiring bacteria.

b)

The DNA of chloroplasts is circular like the DNA of phototrophic bacteria.

c)

There is a lot of sequence homology between the DNA sequences of chloroplasts and phototrophic bacteria.

d)

mitochondria can live freely outside a eukaryotic cell

e)

Midi-chlorians live in all our cells

21.

T/F The human body contains 10 times as many microbes as it does human cells

a)

True

b)

false

22.

T/F most microbes cause disease

a)

True

b)

false

23.

_____ link a pathogen with a disease

a)

epidemiology

b)

Koch's postulates

c)

anecdotal evidence

d)

geochemical cycling

24.

a microbe that causes disease is known as a/n

a)

pathogen

b)

opportunistic

c)

latent

d)

lethal

25.

the number of bacteria or virus particle required to kill 50% of an experimental group of animal hosts is known as the

a)

LD50

b)

ID50

c)

invasion factor

d)

virulence factor

26.

the number of bacteria or virus particle required to cause disease symptoms in 50% of an experimental group of animal hosts is known as the

a)

LD50

b)

ID50

c)

invasion factor

d)

virulence factor

27.

the ability of a pathogen to rapidly spread through tissue is known as

a)

emergence

b)

invasiveness

c)

pathogenicity

d)

virulence

28.

a measure of the degree or severity of a disease is

a)

emergence

b)

invasiveness

c)

pathogenicity

d)

virulence

29.

which of the following would help prevent disease (check all that apply)

a)

proper hygeine

b)

getting plenty of sleep

c)

getting enough exercise

d)

being very young

e)

being very old

30.

a relationship that is beneficial to both organisms is known as

a)

mutualistic

b)

pathogenic

c)

ectoparasitic

d)

endoparasitic

31.

an organism that trasmits a viral pathogen into humans would be known as a

a)

fomite

b)

symptom

c)

vector

d)

reservoir

32.

which of the following must succesful pathogens do (check all that apply)

a)

host attachment

b)

immune avoidance

c)

nutrient acquisituion

d)

have a narrow host range

33.

something that can be observed by a person examining a patient is known as a

a)

symptom

b)

sign

c)

syndrome

d)

pathogen

34.

something that can that can be felt only by the patient is known as a

a)

symptom

b)

sign

c)

syndrome

d)

pathogen

35.

a collection of signs and symptoms that occur together and signify a particular disease or infectin is known as a

a)

symptom

b)

sign

c)

syndrome

d)

pathogen

36.

something that causes disease in a previously healthy individual would be known as a

a)

primary pathogen

b)

nosocomial infection

c)

opportunistic pathogen

d)

chronic pathogen

37.

the time after the microbe first infects a host but before the first signs of disease is knowns as

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

convalescence

38.

the short period of vague symptoms and malaise; can serve as a warning of more symptoms to come but may not be noticed is knowns as

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

convalescence

39.

Typical symptoms and signs of the disease appear and fever may be present in this phase

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

convalescence

40.

Symptoms begin to subside; fever resolves in this phase

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

convalescence

41.

the period after symptoms disappear and patient recovers is knowns as

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

convalescence

42.

______ is the point where disease is most severe.

a)

incubation

b)

prodromal

c)

illness

d)

decline

e)

acme

43.

A mosquito can transmit a viral pathogen into humans. What is the mode of transmission is this?

a)

oral

b)

respiratory

c)

fecal-oral

d)

parenternal

44.

Sam used the bathroom and did not wash his hands thoroughly. Then he went to the breakroom and got coffee and donuts. Sally got coffee and donuts after Sam. Sally is sick the next day. What type of transmission was this?

a)

oral

b)

respiratory

c)

fecal-oral

d)

parenternal

45.

always present in a community and seen at a low rate; often harbored in an animal reservoir

a)

endemic

b)

epidemic

c)

pandemic

d)

emerging

46.

many cases developing in a community in a short time

a)

endemic

b)

epidemic

c)

pandemic

d)

emerging

47.

an epidemic that spreads worldwide

a)

endemic

b)

epidemic

c)

pandemic

d)

emerging

48.

infections that normally afflict animals but can be transmitted to humans

a)

endemic

b)

epidemic

c)

pandemic

d)

zoonotic

49.

when a disease spreads from person to person via intimate contact this is known as

a)

a simple infection cycle

b)

a complex infection cycle.

c)

indirect transmission

d)

vector transmission

50.

any organism that colonizes and harms its host is known as a

a)

primary pathogen

b)

nosocomial infection

c)

opportunistic pathogen

d)

parasite

51.

Gram-positive bacteria appear ____ after a Gram stain

a)

pink

b)

blue

c)

purple

d)

yellow

52.

Gram-negative bacteria appear ____ after a Gram stain

a)

pink

b)

blue

c)

purple

d)

yellow

53.

The cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria contain(s)

a)

a single layer of peptidoglycan

b)

multiple layers of peptidoglycan

c)

multiple layers of lipopolysaccharides

d)

a single layer of lipopolysaccharides

54.

______________ is the smallest distance by which two objects can be separated and still be distinguished.

a)

magnification

b)

resolution

c)

wavelength

d)

clarification

55.

Regions of the EMS are defined by ____________,

the distance between one peak of a wave and the next peak.

a)

magnification

b)

resolution

c)

wavelength

d)

clarification

56.

_______ of light through a medium of high refractive index, such as a glass lens, can cause magnification.

a)

scattering

b)

Refraction

c)

absorption

d)

reflection

57.

A(n) __________ microscope is used to observe specific fluorescent-labeled structures.

a)

compound light

b)

phase-contrast

c)

fluorescence

d)

electron

58.

The purpose of the condenser is to

a)

focus light rays onto the slide

b)

magnify the image from the objective lens

c)

decrease the refractive index

d)

improve the intensity of light

59.

In __________ microscopy, fluorescent-labeled cellular structures can be identified

a)

fluorescence

b)

light microscopy

c)

phase-contrast microscopy

d)

Electron microscopy

60.

In ____________ microscopy, organelles appear as light/dark patterns caused by variation in refractive indexes

a)

fluorescence

b)

light microscopy

c)

phase-contrast microscopy

d)

Electron microscopy

61.

__________ microscopy uses electrons to visualize the specimen

a)

fluorescence

b)

light microscopy

c)

phase-contrast microscopy

d)

Electron microscopy

62.

light microscopy can magnify things a maximum of

a)

10X

b)

100X

c)

1000X

d)

10,000X

63.

__________ would be needed to visualize a virus.

a)

fluorescence microscopy

b)

light microscopy

c)

phase-contrast microscopy

d)

Electron microscopy

64.

in ______ the condenser contains an opaque disk

that blocks transmitted light; background is dark.

a)

fluorescence microscopy

b)

light microscopy

c)

phase-contrast microscopy

d)

dark field microscopy

65.

What defines the existence of a

cell?

(a)  

66.

give the functions of bacterial membrane proteins (check all that apply)

a)

Structural support

b)

detecting environmental signals

c)

Secreting virulence factors &

communication signals

d)

Transport across the cell membrane

e)

Energy storage and transfer

67.

_______ are found in the bacterial cell wall and are good targets for antibiotics

a)

ribosomes

b)

peptidoglycans

c)

phospholipids

d)

protein

68.

_____ moves chemicals down their concentration gradient

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

c)

ABC protein

d)

siderophores

69.

The ______________ makes a bacterial cell rigid and helps it withstand intracellular turgor pressure that can build

up as a result of osmotic shock.

a)

flagella

b)

cell wall

c)

plasma membrane

d)

pili

70.

Long chains consisting of repeating units

of (NAG) and (NAM) linked by short

peptide cross bridges are called:

a)

peptidoglycans

b)

flagella

c)

pili

d)

adherins

71.

The transpeptidase that cross-links the

peptides is the target of __________________.

a)

penicillin

b)

vancomycin

c)

tetracycline

d)

amoxicillin

72.

Bacterial DNA is found in the

a)

nucleus

b)

flagella

c)

nucleoid

73.

In bacterial DNA replication, Replication begins at the ________ and proceeds in both directions all around the circle.

a)

origin

b)

promoter

c)

enhancer

d)

start codon

74.

Rotary _________ enable motility and chemotaxis.

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

thylakoids

d)

magnetosomes

75.

_____enable bacteria to carry out photosynthesis

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

thylakoids

d)

magnetosomes

76.

_____enable bacteria to attach to substrates and can transfer DNA between 2 cells

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

thylakoids

d)

magnetosomes

77.

_____enable bacteria to swim along a magnetic field

a)

pili

b)

flagella

c)

thylakoids

d)

magnetosomes

78.

_____enable bacteria to retrieve iron from the environment.

a)

siderophores

b)

flagella

c)

thylakoids

d)

magnetosomes

79.

Network of proteins that determine the

shape of the eukaryotic cell

a)

mitochondria

b)

cytoskeleton

c)

flagella

d)

ribosome

80.

Site of protein synthesis

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

golgi apparatus

81.

Sequesters substances away from

cytoplasm

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

golgi apparatus

82.

Membranous organelle containing enzymes that kill bacteria and process organic material for nutrition

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

golgi apparatus

83.

Target proteins for various

destinations in the cell

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

lysosome

d)

golgi apparatus

84.

which organelles provide energy for the cell? (check all that apply)

a)

Mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

chloroplasts

d)

flagella