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WorksheetsEmergencies/Blood Borne Pathogens/Environmental Conditions
Total questions: 100
Worksheet time: 50mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these is NOT a symptom of shock?
a)
Athletes pulse rate is very slow
b)
Athlete may appear sluggish or exceptionally drowsy
c)
respirations are shallow and rapid
d)
Skin is ashen and clammy
2.
What is the normal pulse and respiratory rate for an adult?
a)
60 - 80 beats/minute, 12 breaths/minute
b)
60 - 100 beats/minute, 15 breaths/minute
c)
80- 100 beats/minute, 20 breaths/minute
d)
60 - 80 beats/minute, 20 breaths/minute
3.
What is a bloodborne pathogen?
a)
A microorganism that can cause disease
b)
Fluid contaminated with blood
c)
An organism only found in human blood
d)
A disease characterized by the inflammation of the liver
4.
If exposed to a bloodborne pathogen, all of the following should occur except:
a)
Notification of the coach
b)
Completion of a medical evaluation form
c)
Performance of a blood test
d)
Meeting with a counselor
5.
To protect athletes from disease transmission, the USOC recommends that:
a)
They shower immediately after practice
b)
They wear personal protective equipment such as gloves
c)
They decline HIV testing
d)
There is a reduction of mouthpiece use in high risk sports
6.
Which of the following wounds results from the skin being torn from the body?
a)
Avulsion
b)
Incision
c)
Laceration
d)
Abrasion
7.
How can rescuers ensure that they are providing effective breaths when using a bag-mask device?
a)
Observing the chest rise with breaths
b)
Delivering breaths quickly and forcefully
c)
Always having oxygen attached to the bag
d)
Allowing air to release around the mask
8.
A victim with a foreign body airway obstruction becomes unresponsive. What is your first course of action?
a)
Start CPR, beginning with chest compressions
b)
Role the victim over and perform back blows
c)
Perform abdominal thrusts
d)
Perform blind finger sweeps
9.
You witness someone suddenly collapse. The person is unresponsive, you hear gasping sounds, and there is no pulse. What should you do next?
a)
Begin CPR; the gasps are not normal breathing
b)
give rescue breaths only; the gasps are not normal breathing
c)
monitor the patient; the gasps are considered normal breathing
d)
Begin CPR, even though gasping is normal breathing
10.
A middle aged man collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. Which action is most likely to positively impact the victims survival?
a)
Performing high-quality CPR
b)
Ensuring scene safety
c)
Providing rescue breaths
d)
Checking the pulse periodically
11.
Which of the following is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious athlete?
a)
Mouth guards
b)
The tongue
c)
Dislodged dental work
d)
Gum and chewing tobacco
12.
Which of the following splints is best suited for an injury in which the body part is angulated?
a)
air splint
b)
vacuum splint
c)
sling
d)
spine board
13.
A red skin color on a light colored individual may indicate:
a)
shock or fright
b)
heat-stroke, high blood pressure, or elevated temperature
c)
Hemorrhage, heat exhaustion, or insulin shock
d)
Airway obstruction or respiratory insufficiency
14.
Which of the following bodily fluids does not transmit HIV?
a)
Blood
b)
Saliva
c)
Semen
d)
Vaginal Fluid
15.
What type of dressing is most beneficial in providing a barrier against disease transmission and in keeping the wound moist, which is conducive to healing?
a)
Band-aid with antibiotic ointment
b)
Occlusive dressing
c)
Non adhesive gauze
d)
Gauze with antibiotic ointment
16.
What should tables in the athletic training room be cleaned with?
a)
A 1:10 solution of alcohol and water
b)
A 1:10 solution of bleach and water
c)
A 1:20 solution of bleach and water
d)
Soap and Water
17.
What is the first step you should take when caring for all minor skin wounds?
a)
Apply a sterile dressing to the wound
b)
Apply gloves prior to touching the wound
c)
Clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide
d)
Apply antibiotic ointment to the wound
18.
A 53 year old woman collapses while gardening. She is unresponsive, is not breathing and does not have a pulse. A neighbor, who is an emergency medical technician, rushes to her with an AED. After the AED pads are attached to the victims bare chest, the AED detects ventricular fibrillation. What is the next step when using an AED?
a)
Check the victim for a carotid pulse
b)
Follow the AED prompts
c)
Clear the patient
d)
Press the shock button
19.
What is a consideration when you are using an AED?
a)
You should never remove a transdermal medication patch before applying AED pads
b)
On a hairy chest, the pads may not stick and may fail to deliver a shock
c)
AED's can be used while a victim is submerged in water
d)
You should NOT use an AED on someone with an implanted pacemaker
20.
Which victim requires high-quality CPR?
a)
A victim who is unresponsive with no normal breathing and no pulse
b)
a victim who is unresponsive with no normal breathing and no pulse
c)
a victim who is responsive, has a pulse and is having trouble breathing
d)
a victim who is responsive, is having trouble breathing, and has a pulse less than 60/minute
21.
When assessing a potentially unconscious athlete, the first action that must be taken is to:
a)
Roll the athlete onto his/her back
b)
Stop any bleeding that may be severe
c)
Determine the level of consciousness and unresponsiveness
d)
Check the athletes carotid pulse
22.
The first step to establish unresponsiveness of an athlete is to:
a)
Determine whether he/she is breathing normally
b)
Roll the upper eyelid back and check for pupil dilation
c)
Gently tap his/her shoulder and ask "Are you OK?"
d)
Check the carotid pulse
23.
An unconscious athlete who has a feeble and irregular pulse, has breathing that is shallow and irregular, is pale and cold, and has equal pupils may be suffering from:
a)
a fainting spell
b)
sunstroke
c)
shock
d)
grand mal seizure
24.
Fractures of the shoulder complex should be immobilized using:
a)
an air splint
b)
a sling only
c)
a sling and swathe
d)
a swath only
25.
When ambulating with a single crutch or cane, which side of the body should the assistive device be used on?
a)
Injured side
b)
Dominant side
c)
Uninjured side
d)
Non-dominant side
26.
Which ambulatory aid is best when moving a mildly injured athlete from the field?
a)
cane
b)
crutches
c)
manual conveyance
d)
stretcher
27.
Which type of wound is tetanus associated with?
a)
Laceration
b)
Abrasion
c)
Puncture
d)
Avulsion
28.
All of the following are signs and symptoms of HCV except:
a)
Jaundice
b)
Dark Urine
c)
Left Quadrant Pain
d)
Nausea
29.
What should you do if you need to use an AED on someone who has been submerged in water?
a)
Do not move the victim, and do not use the AED
b)
Pull the victim out of the water, but do not use the AED
c)
Pull the victim out of the water and wide the chest
d)
Do not pull the victim out of the water, but wipe the chest before placing pads
30.
A nine year old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system. He immediately begins performing high quality CPR. Two additional rescuers arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. What actions should occur next, to support a team-based resuscitation attempt?
a)
2 rescuers alternate using the AED and giving breaths
b)
1 rescuer gives CPR while the other 2 wait for advanced life support to arrive
c)
2 rescuers alternate giving high quality chest compressions
d)
2 rescuers operate the AED while the third rescuer gives breaths
31.
When performing CPR on an unresponsive choking victim, what modification should you incorporate?
a)
There are no modifications to CPR for an unresponsive choking victim
b)
You do not give breaths to an unresponsive choking victim
c)
Each time you open the airway, look for the obstructing object
d)
Attempt a jaw thrust instead of a head tilt-chin lift
32.
Why is allowing complete chest recoil important when performing high-quality CPR?
a)
There will be a reduction of rescuer fatigue
b)
It will reduce the risk of rib fractures
c)
The heart will adequately refill between compressions
d)
The rate of chest compressions will increase
33.
A 67 year old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high quality CPR. When should rescuers switch positions during CPR?
a)
Never switch rescuers and maintain current roles
b)
Switch rescuers at 5 minute intervals
c)
Switch rescuers about every 2 minutes
d)
Switch rescuers when placing the AED pads
34.
In transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal or pelvic injury you should:
a)
Carry the athlete with the help of 3 assistants: one supporting each leg and the third supporting the trunk as you support the head and neck
b)
Use ambulatory aid
c)
Use manual conveyance
d)
Use a spineboard under medical direction
35.
After a quick onsite injury inspection and evaluation, which of the following decisions should be made?
a)
Seriousness of the injury and type of first aid necessary
b)
Need for immediate referral to a physician for further care
c)
Manner of transportation from the injury site
d)
All of the above
36.
When one is controlling external bleeding, what is the sequence of events?
a)
direct pressure is applied on pressure points and then the body part is elevated
b)
elevate the body part then apply direct pressure over the wound
c)
apply pressure on the artery supplying the area with blood and elevate above the heart
d)
apply direct pressure over the wound and elevate the body part
37.
All of the following are signs and symptoms of HBV except:
a)
Jaundice
b)
Abdominal pain
c)
Headache
d)
Weightloss
38.
While performing high quality CPR on an adult, what action should you ensure is being accomplished?
a)
maintaining a compression rate of 90 - 120/minute
b)
placing hands on the upper third of the sternum
c)
allowing the chest to recoil 1 inch
d)
compressing to a depth of at least 2 inches
39.
Members of the team know their boundaries and ask for help before the resuscitation attempt worsens. Match this statement with the most appropriate element of team dynamics listed.
a)
Knowledge sharing
b)
Summarizing and reevaluation
c)
Constructive intervention
d)
Knowing your limitations
40.
Why is defibrillation important?
a)
it prevents rearrest from occurring
b)
it is not important for cardiac arrest
c)
there is a 100% success rate in regaining a normal cardiac rhythm
d)
It can restore a regular cardiac rhythm
41.
A 67 year old man is found unresponsive, not breathing, and without a pulse. You and a second rescuer begin performing high quality CPR. You notice the person giving chest compressions is not allowing for complete chest recoil. What is your next course of action?
a)
Stand back and await direction from the team leader
b)
Take over leadership and give directions
c)
Immediately take over chest compressions
d)
Tell the compressor you notice decreased chest recoil
42.
Rapid defibrillation is a link in the adult chain of survival. Why is this important to survive?
a)
It prevents cardiac arrest
b)
It prevents respiratory arrest
c)
It provides normal respiration
d)
It eliminates the abnormal heart rhythm
43.
If a uniform becomes saturated with blood, what is the proper action that should be taken for the athlete to continue to participate?
a)
Nothing, the athlete should continue without interruption
b)
The blood should be rinsed off with water
c)
The uniform should be changed immediately
d)
The uniform should be changed at halftime
44.
What ratio for compressions to breaths should be used for 1 rescuer infant CPR?
a)
5 compressions to 1 breath
b)
20 compressions to 2 breaths
c)
15 compressions to 2 breaths
d)
30 compressions to 2 breaths
45.
A nine year old child has suddenly collapsed. After confirming that the scene is safe, a single rescuer determines that the child is in cardiac arrest, shouts for nearby help, and activates the emergency response system. He immediately begins performing high quality CPR. Two additional rescuers arrive to assist in the resuscitation attempt. Two rescuers begin high quality CPR while the third rescuer leaves to get the AED. What action supports 2 rescuer CPR?
a)
Alternating the AED role every 2 minutes
b)
Alternating the compressor role every 2 minutes
c)
Alternating giving rescue breaths every 3 cycles
d)
Alternating giving shocks every 3 cycles
46.
A middle aged mad collapses. You and a second rescuer go to the victim and find that he is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. You and another rescuer begin CPR. After a few cycles, you notice the chest compression rate is slowing. What should you say to offer constructive feedback?
a)
You need to compress at a rate of 80 - 120 per minute
b)
You need to compress at a rate of at least 120 per minute
c)
You need to compress at a rate of 100 - 120 per minute
d)
You need to compress at a rate of at least 100 per minute
47.
How do you perform chest compressions when providing high-quality CPR to a child victim?
a)
by compressing the chest at least one third the depth of the chest, about 2 inches (5cm)
b)
by compressing the chest at least one fourth the depth of the chest about 1.5 inches (4cm)
c)
by compressing the chest at least two thirds the depth of the chest, about 4 inches (10cm)
d)
by compressing the chest at least one half the depth of the chest, about 3 inches (8cm)
48.
An 8 month old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. You have determined that the infant is responsive and choking with a severe airway obstruction. How do you relieve the airway obstruction?
a)
Encourage the infant to cough
b)
Give sets of 5 back slaps and 5 chest thrusts
c)
Begin 2 thumb encircling hands chest compressions
d)
Give abdominal thrusts
49.
An 8 month old infant is eating and suddenly begins to cough. The infant is unable to make any noise shortly after. You pick up the infant and shout for help. Which action do you perform to relieve choking in an unresponsive victim?
a)
Perform CPR and look in the mouth for the obstructing object
b)
Give 5 sets of back slaps and 5 chest compressions
c)
give 5 sets of abdominal thrusts and 5 back slaps
d)
Attempt a blind finger sweep when giving breaths to remove the obstructing object
50.
To open the victims airway lift up his/her neck and force the chin down.
a)
false
b)
true
51.
When an injured person is not breathing, cardiac compressions should be started immediately.
a)
false
b)
true
52.
The proper ratio of compressions to breaths for a single rescuer is 30 compressions to 2 ventilations.
a)
true
b)
false
53.
With a suspected neck fracture, open the airway by using a modified jaw thrust, keeping the victims head in a flexed neutral position
a)
true
b)
false
54.
One performs the standing abdominal thrust technique for a conscious person by placing the thumb side of the grasped fist immediately below the xiphoid process of the victims sternum
a)
true
b)
false
55.
For an athlete who has become unconscious and has an airway obstruction, you wan to straddle the victim and push into his/her chest 5 times.
a)
false
b)
true
56.
Inflatable plastic splints are not particularly suitable for use above the knee
a)
true
b)
false
57.
A venous hemorrhage is characterized by a rapid flow of blood escaping in rhythmic spurts
a)
false
b)
true
58.
A rapid strong pulse may indicate shock, bleeding, diabetic coma or heat exhaustion
a)
false
b)
true
59.
In treating for shock, one should always elevate the feet 12 to 16 inches from the floor
a)
false
b)
true
60.
The primary survey refers to the inspection and evaluation given after the ABC's have been assessed.
a)
false
b)
true
61.
If an athlete is prone, not breathing, and you suspect a spinal cord injury, log roll the athlete onto their back and perform rescue breathing.
a)
true
b)
false
62.
A minor with a life threatening injury cannot be treated in any way until a parent arrives to give consent
a)
false
b)
true
63.
It is always advisable to remove an athletes helmet in case an airway problem develops.
a)
false
b)
true
64.
When fitting an athlete with crutches it is necessary to place the arm pads into the axilla for proper stabilization while walking.
a)
false
b)
true
65.
Shivering ceases below a body temperature of:
a)
85-90*F
b)
80-85*F
c)
90 - 95*F
d)
75-80*F
66.
In giving emergency treatment for a heat stroke victim a rescuer should direct efforts at:
a)
lowering the body temperature with ice tub immersion and transporting the victim to the hospital via ambulance
b)
replacing the athletes fluids quickly
c)
calling an ambulance
d)
lowering the victim's body temperature by use of cool sponges
67.
Absence of sweating with hot, flushed, dry skin is indicative of:
a)
heat stroke
b)
heat cramps
c)
hypothermia
d)
heat exhaustion
68.
A heat disorder caused by prolonged sweating, diarrhea, and inadequate replacement of fluid losses is:
a)
heat exhaustion
b)
heat stroke
c)
heat cramps
d)
hypothermia
69.
How many minutes before sun exposure should sunscreen be applied?
a)
25 - 40 minutes
b)
10 - 20 minutes
c)
5 - 10 minutes
d)
15 - 30 minutes
70.
If the flash to bang is 15 seconds, how far away is lightning occurring?
a)
6 miles
b)
3 miles
c)
1 mile
d)
5 miles
71.
When a storm is near and a person's hair stands on end, what should they do?
a)
run to shelter immediately through water
b)
drop to the ground and assume a crouched position
c)
wait for lightning in the area
d)
lie flat on the ground
72.
If you are out on the soccer practice field and you see lightning, what should you do?
a)
crouch down on the field
b)
stop the activity and seek shelter
c)
wait to see another bolt before leaving the field
d)
once you see the bolt listen for thunder to see how far the storm is from the field and stay outside
73.
In warm weather, athletes seldom replace more than ____ of lost water even though replacement fluids are taken as desired.
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
35%
d)
10%
74.
All the following are symptoms of frost-nip except:
a)
Skin may peel or blister in 24 - 72 hours
b)
Involvement of the ears, nose, fingers, and toes
c)
Skin may become gangrenous
d)
Skin appears very firm
75.
A psychrometer is used to determine?
a)
wind chill
b)
humidity
c)
heat index
d)
level of dehydration
76.
The single most important step that can be taken to avoid heat illness is to:
a)
Acclimatize the athletes to the environment
b)
Eat a well balanced diet
c)
Be certain athletes are properly hydrated
d)
Identify susceptible athletes
77.
When replenishing fluids with a glucose solution, what percent of glucose and electrolytes is most useful?
a)
0.04
b)
0.1
c)
0.06
d)
0.08
78.
Heat is eliminated by the body in all of the following ways except:
a)
Conduction
b)
Evaporation
c)
Radiation
d)
Conversion
79.
With severe deep frostbite of an extremity, the water temperature useful for re-warming should be:
a)
90 - 99*F
b)
117 - 125*F
c)
111-116*F
d)
100 - 110*F
80.
Which of the following conditions is caused by peripheral vasodilation of the superficial vessels, hypotension, or a pooling of blood in the extremities and results in dizziness, fainting and nausea?
a)
Heat stroke
b)
Heat exhaustion
c)
Heat cramps
d)
Heat syncope
81.
Which of the following is the most effective means that the body has to dissipate heat when the temperature and radiant heat of the environment are higher than the body temperature?
a)
Conduction
b)
Radiation
c)
Convection
d)
Evaporation
82.
Death is imminent if the core body temperature rises above 107* or drops between 77* and 85*
a)
true
b)
false
83.
Ideally, fluid replacement should match sweat loss.
a)
true
b)
false
84.
Warm drinks empty more rapidly from the stomach than colder ones.
a)
false
b)
true
85.
An athlete who has lost 3 - 5% of his/her body weight should not be allowed to participate due to a decrease in blood volume.
a)
true
b)
false
86.
There is a need for fluid replacement only in a hot environment.
a)
false
b)
true
87.
When the flash to bang count is 15 seconds the conditions should be closely monitored.
a)
false
b)
true
88.
Body temperature regulation results almost entirely through cutaneous cooling from radiation
a)
false
b)
true
89.
When a person's temperature reaches 104* F, the chances of survival are decreased dramatically.
a)
true
b)
false
90.
Overweight individuals with a large muscle mass experience greater heat production than underweight individuals and are therefore more susceptible to heat illness.
a)
true
b)
false
91.
An individual suffering from heat cramps should ingest large quantities of fluid and sodium as well as begin some gentle stretching
a)
true
b)
false
92.
In hot weather and in cold weather an athlete should maintain a body temperature ideal for competition so as not to increase the likelihood of injury.
a)
true
b)
false
93.
The National Severe Storms Service and the NATA recommends that 30 minutes pass after the last sound of thunder or lightning strike before returning to play.
a)
true
b)
false
94.
During close physical contact with other athletes, body temperature will increase through ___________ while a cool breeze will induce cooling through ___________.
a)
evaporation; conduction
b)
evaporation; convection
c)
conduction; convection
d)
conduction; evaporation
95.
During practice in the fall pre-season, an athlete begins to sweat profusely, exhibit pale skin, complain of dizziness and a rapid pulse along with difficulty in performing drills. What might you suspect is the problem?
a)
heat cramps
b)
heat exhaustion
c)
heat stroke
d)
all of the options listed
96.
Heat illnesses are a very preventable problem. Which of the following would reduce the probability of a heat illness from occurring?
a)
have the athlete weigh in and out of practice to insure proper fluid replacement
b)
frequent water breaks
c)
proper acclimatization
d)
all of the options listed
97.
Means of preventing cold environment - related injures includes which of the following?
a)
Utilizing waterproof/windproof clothing
b)
Dressing with multiple layers
c)
Performing a proper warm up
d)
All of the options listed
98.
Which of the following statements is true regarding over exposure to the sun?
a)
clothing will block out all ultraviolet radiation
b)
a lower SPF should be used with individuals with fair skin
c)
a person on the water will require a lower SPF than a person on land
d)
long term exposure may cause skin cancer
99.
An electrical storm has suddenly broken out during an athletic event. Which of the following would be an inappropriate response to the situation?
a)
stop the game/contest and quickly seek shelter in the nearest building
b)
seek shelter in a bus
c)
instruct all athletes to lie flat on the ground
d)
return to activity thirty minutes after the last thunder and lightning strike
100.
An individual presents with an increasing headache, nausea , vomiting, and swelling in his/her hands and feet is suffering from which of the following conditions?
a)
Hypernatremia
b)
Hyperthermia
c)
Hypothermia
d)
Hyponatremia
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