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PRELIM_DDS

Total questions: 160

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is defined as any substance taken into or applied to the body for the purpose of altering the body’s biochemical functions and thus its physiological processes.

a)

solid

b)

drug

c)

liquid

d)

dosage

2.

· defined as an agent intended for use in the diagnosis , mitigation, treatment, cure or prevention of disease in humans or in other animals.

a)

solid

b)

drug

c)

liquid

d)

dosage

3.

facilitates examination usually to arrive into a conclusion or diagnosis,

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Mitigation

c)

Treatment

d)

Cure

e)

Prevention

4.

lessens the symptoms and the effect of the disease but the disease is still there.

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Mitigation

c)

Treatment

d)

Cure

e)

Prevention

5.

patient has no longer the disease.

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Mitigation

c)

Treatment

d)

Cure

e)

Prevention

6.

prevents illness or disease from occurring

a)

Diagnosis

b)

Mitigation

c)

Treatment

d)

Cure

e)

Prevention

7.

It is drugs that are naturally occurring biological products. It is made or taken from a single cell organism, like plants, animals, or human.

a)

Natural

b)

Synthetic

c)

Synthesized

d)

Semi-synthetic

8.

It is created artificially to exert pharmacological effect.

a)

Natural

b)

Synthetic

c)

Synthesized

d)

Semi-synthetic

9.

It is a drug that are created in the laboratory but in imitation of naturally occurring drug.

a)

Natural

b)

Synthetic

c)

Synthesized

d)

Semi-synthetic

10.

contains both synthetic and natural modification

a)

Natural

b)

Synthetic

c)

Synthesized

d)

Semi-synthetic

11.

Extracts, do have active/second metabolise

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

By products of microbial growth

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Molecular modification

12.

Insulin, first was taken from a pig but due to adverse reaction. Heparine, from fish. Bees wax, form animals etc..

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

By products of microbial growth

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Molecular modification

13.

ex. chloramphenicol/penicillin/Vitamin B12/streptomycin

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

By products of microbial growth

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Molecular modification

14.

Made from chemicals which then have modifications to have a specific pharmacological effect.

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

By products of microbial growth

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Molecular modification

15.

Either semi-synthetic, synthesized, synthetic

Can be done through: Biotechnology, Genetic engineering

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

By products of microbial growth

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Molecular modification

16.

Drugs that can be dispensed without the need of prescriptions.

a)

OTC

b)

LEGEND DRUGS

c)

PRESCRIPTION DRUGS

17.

Drugs that can be dispensed with the need of prescriptions.

a)

OTC

b)

LEGEND DRUGS

18.

biochemically reactive component of the drug, causes therapeutic activity, rarely given in pure (undiluted or uncut form, instead they are always given in 1 or more inert ingredients “inactive ingredient”- to dilute the pure and stabilize drug product

a)

Active Ingredient

b)

Inactive ingredient

c)

Pharmaceutical Excipients

19.

purpose is to stabilize the drug product

a)

Active Ingredient

b)

Inactive ingredient

20.

· Formulation containing a specific quantity of active ingredient(s) in combination with one or more excipients.

a)

Dosage Form

b)

Dosage

c)

Drug

21.

· Refers to the physical manifestation of a drug that can be used in a way

a)

Dosage Form

b)

Dosage

c)

Drug

22.

Tablet, Capsule, beads/pellets, powder, granules, strepsil, implant, lozenges, and medical lollipops

a)

SOLID DF

b)

LIQUID DF

c)

SEMI SOLID DF

23.

Syrup, drops, suspension, elixirs, solutions, gargles, mouthwash, emulsion, and pincture.

a)

SOLID DF

b)

LIQUID DF

c)

SEMI SOLID DF

24.

Example: Gel, cream, ointments, pastes, suppositories, transdermal, lotions, plasters, magma-preparational

a)

SOLID DF

b)

LIQUID DF

c)

SEMI SOLID DF

25.

Transporting a drug to its site of action within the body.

a)

DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEM

b)

DOSAGE

c)

DOSAGE FORM

26.

Device used to deliver the drug. Design feature of the dosage form that affects the delivery of the drug

a)

DRUG DELIVERY SYSTEM

b)

DOSAGE

c)

DOSAGE FORM

27.

An organized set of monographs or books that contains information to standardized drugs.

a)

Pharmacopeia

b)

NF (National Formulary)

c)

USP (United States Pharmacopeia)

28.

adopts standards for drug substances, pharmaceutical ingredients, and dosage forms reflecting the best in the current practices of medicine and pharmacy and provide suitable tests and assay procedures for demonstrating compliance with these standards.

a)

Pharmacopeia

b)

USP-NF (National Formulary)

29.

Regulated food and drugs moving in interstate commerce and forbade the manufacture, sale, or transportation of poisonous patent medicines.

a)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

b)

Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

c)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d)

·Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962

e)

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

30.

Created because of the tragedy with the new drug sulphanilamide

a)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

b)

Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

c)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d)

·Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962

e)

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

31.

Equivalent Law= in Ph. of Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

a)

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act RA.3775

b)

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act RA.3720

c)

FDA act of 2009, RA. 9711

d)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

32.

Law created by RA.3720

a)

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act RA.3775

b)

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act RA.3720

c)

FDA act of 2009, RA. 9711

d)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

33.

To establish a legal act about OTC and Prescription drugs. Distinguish OTC and prescription drug

a)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

b)

Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

c)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d)

·Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962

e)

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

34.

Thalidomide Tragedy caused this Amendment, require the manufacturer is both safe and effective before it will be approved the FDA.

a)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

b)

Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

c)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d)

·Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962

e)

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

35.

serves to consolidate and codify control authority over drugs of abuse, establish 5 schedule for the classification that are subject for the substance of abuse, Serves to combat illegal drug use

a)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

b)

Federal Food, Drug And Cosmetic Act of 1938 (also created by the FDA)

c)

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951

d)

·Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962

e)

Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970

36.

Equivalent Law of Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act of 1970 in PH

a)

Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 (RA. 9165)

b)

Food Drug and Cosmetic Act RA.3720

c)

Food and Drug Act of 1906

d)

Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 (RA. 9265)

37.

Drugs with no accepted medical use or other substances with a high potential for abuse.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

38.

Drugs with accepted medical uses and a high potential for abuse that if abuse may lead to severe psychologic or physical dependence.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

39.

Drugs with accepted medical uses and a high potential for abuse that if abuse may lead to severe psychologic or physical dependence.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

40.

Drugs with accepted medical uses and low potential for abuse relative to those in Schedule III that if abused may lead to limited physical dependence or psychologic dependence relative to drugs in schedule III

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

41.

Drugs with accepted medical uses and low potential for abuse relative to those in schedule IV that if abused may lead to limited physical dependence or physiologic dependence relative to schedule IV.

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

e)

V

42.

Adequate, well- controlled studies in pregnant women have not shown an increased risk of fetal abnormalities.

a)

CATEGORY A

b)

CATEGORY B

c)

CATEGORY C

d)

CATEGORY D

e)

CATEGORY X

43.

Animal studies have revealed no evidence of harm to the fetus: however, there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women, OR Animal studies have shown an adverse effect, but adequate and well- controlled studies in pregnant women have failed to demonstrate a risk to the fetus.

a)

CATEGORY A

b)

CATEGORY B

c)

CATEGORY C

d)

CATEGORY D

e)

CATEGORY X

44.

Animal studies have shown adverse effect and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women, OR No animal studies have been conducted and there are no adequate and well- controlled studies in pregnant women.

a)

CATEGORY A

b)

CATEGORY B

c)

CATEGORY C

d)

CATEGORY D

e)

CATEGORY X

45.

Adequate well-controlled or observational studies in pregnant women have demonstrated a risk to the fetus. However, the benefits of therapy may outweigh the potential risk.

a)

CATEGORY A

b)

CATEGORY B

c)

CATEGORY C

d)

CATEGORY D

e)

CATEGORY X

46.

Adequate well-controlled or observational studies in animals or pregnant women have demonstrated positive evidence of fetal abnormalities. The use of the product is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant

a)

CATEGORY A

b)

CATEGORY B

c)

CATEGORY C

d)

CATEGORY D

e)

CATEGORY X

47.

To let customers be aware of adverse effects or may be used to communicate important instructions for safe use of the drug

a)

Black Box Warning

b)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

c)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984

d)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

48.

Amended the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act so that drug establishments that are engaged in the manufacturing, preparation, propagation, compounding, or processing of a drug are required to register their establishments and list all of their commercially marketed drug products

a)

Black Box Warning

b)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

c)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984

d)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

49.

Patency of drug products

a)

Black Box Warning

b)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

c)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984

d)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

50.

è Defines and regulates dietary supplements. Under the act, supplements are effectively regulated by the FDA for Good Manufacturing Practices.

a)

Black Box Warning

b)

Drug Listing Act of 1972

c)

Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act of 1984

d)

Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act of 1994

51.

There is a reasonable probability that the use of or exposure to a violative product will cause serious adverse health consequences or death.

a)

CLASS I

b)

CLASS II

c)

CLASS III

52.

The use of or exposure may cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences or probability of serious adverse health consequences.

a)

CLASS I

b)

CLASS II

c)

CLASS III

53.

Use of or exposure to a violative product is not likely to cause adverse health consequences.

a)

CLASS I

b)

CLASS II

c)

CLASS III

54.

Any drug that is not recognize as being safe and effective in the conditions recommended for its use In the labelling among experts who are qualified by scientific training and experience.

a)

New Drug

b)

Dosage Form

c)

Drug

d)

Old Drug

55.

New Chemical Entity

a)

Organic synthesis

b)

Molecular modification

c)

Isolation from plants

d)

Chemistry

e)

Preformulation

56.

Preclinical Studies

a)

Organic synthesis

b)

Chemistry

c)

Biological

d)

Preformulation

e)

Physical Properties

57.

All the information obtained is written in

a)

Package Insert

b)

Dosage Form

c)

Otc Label

d)

Prescription Label

e)

Package Information

58.

All the information obtained is written in

a)

Package Insert

b)

Drug Information

c)

Drug process

59.

Is used to gain approval to market a duplicate of a product that is already approved and being marketed by the pioneer, or the original sponsor, of the drug.

a)

ABBREVIATED NEW DRUG APPLICATION (ANDA)

b)

ABBREVIATION NEW DRUG APPLICATION (ANDA)

c)

ABBREVIATION NEW DRUG APPLIED (ANDA)

d)

SUPPLEMENTAL NEW DRUG APPLICATION (SNDA)

60.

Is filed or submitted for approval ¡f certain changes in a previously approved NDA, such as labeling or a formulation changes.

a)

ABBREVIATED NEW DRUG APPLICATION (ANDA)

b)

ABBREVIATION NEW DRUG APPLICATION (ANDA)

c)

ABBREVIATION NEW DRUG APPLIED (ANDA)

d)

SUPPLEMENTAL NEW DRUG APPLICATION (SNDA)

61.

A chemical alteration of a known and previously characterized organic compound (LEAD COMPOUND) for the purpose of enhancing its usefulness as a drug.

a)

MOLECULAR BIOCOMPOUND

b)

MOLECULAR MODIFICATION

c)

MOLECULAR BIOASSAY

62.

A molecular modification to design a drug that interferes specifically with the known or suspected biochemical pathway or mechanism of a disease process.

a)

MECHANISM-BASED DRUG DESIGN

b)

RANDOM/UNTARGETED SCREENING

c)

MOLECULAR MODIFICATION

63.

· Is a prototype chemical compound that has fundamental desires biologic or pharmacologic activity

a)

LEAD COMPOUND

b)

IRON COMPOUND

c)

POTASSIUM COMPOUND

64.

Is term used to describe a compound that requires metabolic biotransformation after administration to produce the desired pharmacologically active compound.

a)

PRODRUG

b)

PREDRUG

c)

DRUG

d)

NEW DRUG

65.

Advantages over the active drug because it enables the use of specifically desired dosage form and route of administration

a)

Solubility

b)

Absorption

c)

Biostability

d)

Prolonged Release

66.

Drug may be made more water or lipids soluble as desire to facilitate absorption via the intended route of administration.

a)

Solubility

b)

Absorption

c)

Biostability

d)

Prolonged Release

67.

If the active drug prematurely destroyed by the biochemical the design of prodrug may protect the drug during its transport in the body

a)

Solubility

b)

Absorption

c)

Biostability

d)

Prolonged Release

68.

Is the science concerned with drugs, their sources, appearance, chemistry actions and uses

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pharmacognosy

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

69.

the study of the biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action.

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pharmacognosy

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

70.

deals with absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion (ADMFJ.

a)

Pharmacology

b)

Pharmacognosy

c)

Pharmacodynamics

d)

Pharmacokinetics

71.

These studies are designed to determine the toxic effects of a test compound when administered in a single dose or multiple doses over a short period of time in a single day (usually).

a)

Acute or Short Term Studies

b)

Subacute or Subchronic Studies

c)

Carcinogenicity Studies

d)

Reproduction Studies

e)

Genotoxicity or Mutagenicity Studies

72.

These studies is done in a minimum of 2 weeks of daily drug administration at three or more dosage levels to two animal species are required to support the initial administration of a single dose in human clinical testing.

a)

Acute or Short Term Studies

b)

Subacute or Subchronic Studies

c)

Carcinogenicity Studies

d)

Reproduction Studies

e)

Genotoxicity or Mutagenicity Studies

73.

· Usually a component of chronic testing and is undertaken when the compound has shown promise as a drug to human trials.

a)

Acute or Short Term Studies

b)

Subacute or Subchronic Studies

c)

Carcinogenicity Studies

d)

Reproduction Studies

e)

Genotoxicity or Mutagenicity Studies

74.

· Are undertaken to reveal any effect of an active ingredient on mammalian reproduction.

a)

Acute or Short Term Studies

b)

Subacute or Subchronic Studies

c)

Carcinogenicity Studies

d)

Reproduction Studies

e)

Genotoxicity or Mutagenicity Studies

75.

Are performed to determine whether the test compound can affect the gene mutation.

a)

Acute or Short Term Studies

b)

Subacute or Subchronic Studies

c)

Carcinogenicity Studies

d)

Reproduction Studies

e)

Genotoxicity or Mutagenicity Studies

76.

· Objective: Assessing safety

· Subject: Healthy human volunteer

· Outcome: Determine the human pharmacology of the drug, SAR (Structural Activity Relationship), side effects associated with increasing doses and if possible early evidence of effectiveness.

a)

PHASE 1

b)

PHASE 2

c)

PHASE 3

d)

PHASE 4

77.

Objective:

Controlled clinical studies to evaluate the effectiveness of a drug in patients with the condition for which the drug is intended

Subject : Informed patients

a)

PHASE 1

b)

PHASE 2

c)

PHASE 3

d)

PHASE 4

78.

· Objective: Determine the usefulness of the drug in an expanded patient base.

· Subject: Several hundred to thousands patients in controlled and uncontrolled trials.

a)

PHASE 1

b)

PHASE 2

c)

PHASE 3

d)

PHASE 4

79.

· Often called: Post marketing surveillance trials

Objectives:

a. Comparison of the drug with the drugs already marketed

b. Monitoring of tong-term effectiveness & impact on patient’s quality of life

C. Determination of the cost-effectiveness of a drug therapy

Subjects:

General consumers

a)

PHASE 1

b)

PHASE 2

c)

PHASE 3

d)

PHASE 4

80.

regulations establish requirements for all aspects of pharmaceutical manufacture

a)

cGMP

b)

cGCP

81.

Any substance or mixture of substances intended to be used in the manufacture of a pharmaceutical dosage form and that, when so used, becomes an active ingredient of that pharmaceutical dosage form.

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Active Ingredient

82.

It is an active ingredient, that can provide a pharmacologic activity, any ingredient that is intended to furnish pharmacologic activity

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Active Ingredient

c)

Inactive Ingredient

83.

A specific quantity of a drug of uniform specified quality produced according to a single manufacturing order during the same cycle of manufacture

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Active Ingredient

c)

Inactive Ingredient

d)

Batch

84.

Produced from a single order within the same cycle of production and it is a specific quantity of drug

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Active Ingredient

c)

Inactive Ingredient

d)

Batch

85.

The use of validated in-process sampling and testing methods in such a way that results prove that the process has done correctly

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Batchwise control

c)

Inactive Ingredient

d)

Batch

86.

While the product is being produced mag pick ang quality asurance pharmacist ug samples while in process and product

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Batchwise control

c)

Inactive Ingredient

d)

Batch

87.

Purpose: para di tanan na produce niya ayha pa siya e test, di ma sayang if ma fail


Prevent ang ma sayang na product

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Batchwise control

c)

Inactive Ingredient

d)

Batch

88.

Documented testimony by qualified authorities that a system qualification, calibration, validation, or revalidation has been performed appropriately and that the results are acceptable.

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Batchwise control

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

89.

Manufacturer is acting in accordance with prescribed regulations, standards and practices.

a)

Pharmaceutical Ingredient

b)

Compliance

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

90.

Any ingredients used in the manufacture of drug, including those that may not be present in the finished product.

a)

Component

b)

Compliance

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

91.

Any ingredient (active or inactive)

a)

Component

b)

Compliance

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

92.

A finished dosage that contains an active drug and inactive ingredient

a)

Component

b)

Drug Product

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

93.

May also include a form that does not contain an API like placebo drug

a)

Component

b)

Drug Product

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

94.

Any component other than the active ingredients in the drug product

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Drug Product

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

95.

Also called as Inert Ingredient or pharmaceutical necessity/ pharmaceutical adjuvant/ pharmaceutical excipients

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Drug Product

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

96.

A batch or a portion of a batch having uniform specified quality and a distinctive identifying lot number

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Lot

c)

Certification

d)

Batch

97.

Distinctive combination of letters, numbers or symbols from which the complete history of the manufacture, processing, labeling, distribution of a batch may be determined.

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Lot

c)

Lot Number, Control Number or Batch Number

d)

Batch

98.

for easy identification and traceability of errors with the same batch number, for the product recall.

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Lot

c)

Lot Number, Control Number or Batch Number

d)

Batch

99.

Containing the formulation, specifications, manufacturing procedures, quality assurance requirements and labeling of a finished product.

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Lot

c)

Master Record

d)

Batch

100.

Wide-ranging concept covering all matters that individually or collective influence the quality of a product. It is the totality of the arrangements made with the object of ensuring that pharmaceutical products are of the quality required for their intended use.

a)

Inactive Ingredient

b)

Lot

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Batch

101.

A documented activity performed in accordance with established procedures on a planned and periodic basis to verify compliance with the procedures to ensure quality.

a)

Quality Audit

b)

Lot

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Batch

102.

Is part of GMP concerned with sampling, specifications, and testing and with the organization, documentation, and release procedures which ensures that the necessary and relevant tests are carried out.

a)

Quality Audit

b)

Lot

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Quality Control

103.

An organizational unit independent of production which fullfills both quality assurance (QA) and quality control responsibilities. This can be in the form of separate QA and QC units or a single individual or group, depending upon the size and structure of the organization

a)

Quality Audit

b)

Quality Unit

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Quality Control

104.

Termed for the Quality Assurance, Quality Audit, and Quality Control

a)

Quality Audit

b)

Quality Unit - Umbrella of Quality

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Quality Control

105.

An area that is marked, designated or set aside for the holding of incoming components prior to acceptance testing and qualification for use.

a)

Quality Audit

b)

Quarantine

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Quality Control

106.

Raw materials are under quarantine

a)

Orange/Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Blue

107.

Sticker approved. Passed QC/QA

a)

Orange/Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Blue

108.

Not meet the quality standard

a)

Orange/Yellow

b)

Green

c)

Red

d)

Blue

109.

Representative sample of the whole product.

a)

Representative Sample

b)

Sample Size

c)

Random Sample

110.

The activity whereby the finished product or any of its components is recycled through all or part of the manufacturing process.

a)

Representative Sample

b)

Sample Size

c)

Random Sample

d)

Reprocessing

111.

Concentration of the drug substance per unit dose or volume

a)

Representative Sample

b)

Strength

c)

Random Sample

d)

Reprocessing

112.

Signed by a second individual or recorder by automated equipment

a)

Representative Sample

b)

Strength

c)

Verified

d)

Reprocessing

113.

Documented evidence that a system and process does what it purports to do.

a)

Validation & Process Validation

b)

Strength

c)

Verified

d)

Reprocessing

114.

Essential to ensure that the consumer receives products of quality

a)

Validation & Process Validation

b)

Strength

c)

Current Good Compounding Practices

d)

Reprocessing

115.

Integral part of the pharmacy practice and essential to the provision of the healthcare

a)

Validation & Process Validation

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

116.

The preparation, mixing, assembling, altering, packaging, and labeling of a drug, drug-delivery, device, or device in accordance with a licensed practitioner's prescription, medication order, or initiative based on the practitioner-patient-pharmacist-compounder relationship in the course of professional practice.

a)

Validation & Process Validation

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

117.

Is the production, preparation, propagation, conversion, and/or processing of a drug or device, either directly or indirectly, through extraction from substances of natural origin or independently through means of chemical or biological synthesis

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

118.

from drug development to the production and packaging of the drug product

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

119.

already have the raw materials (active and inactive ingredients) kita na bahala compound manually

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

120.

preparation of drugs or devices is in anticipation of prescription drug order.

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

121.

The preparations and promotions of commercially available product from bulk compounds for resale for pharmacist

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

122.

direct sa patients

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

123.

Di direct sa pharmacist, sa mga pharmacy, hospital pharmacy or other practitioner ayha pa mo reach sa patient or consumer

a)

Manufacturing

b)

Strength

c)

Compounding

d)

Reprocessing

124.

Large scale production of the drug product that is based on the manufacturing order or schedule of production and it is for the general consumers

a)

Pharmaceutical Manufacturing

b)

Extemporaneous Compounding

125.

It is a small scale preparation of drug product, it is a prescription based order/ prescription order or for the specific/ particular patient

a)

Pharmaceutical Manufacturing

b)

Extemporaneous Compounding

126.

It is the direct contact with the drug

a)

Pharmaceutical Manufacturing

b)

Extemporaneous Compounding

127.

Container

a)

Pharmaceutical Manufacturing

b)

Extemporaneous Compounding

128.

that which is in direct contact with the article at all times

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

129.

encloses the primary container

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

130.

encloses the secondary container

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

131.

Example, blister packs, bottles,

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

132.

Examples, Unit box or folding cartons, Box of the blister packs,


Purpose: for market presentation

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

133.

Big box/ Corrugated box

a)

Tertiary Containers

b)

Secondary Containers

c)

Primary Containers

134.

Classification of Containers

a)

According to Protection Ability

b)

According to Quantity Held

c)

Materials Used for Packaging

d)

Safety Packaging

e)

All of the Above

135.

Well-closed container

Tight container

Hermetic container

a)

According to Protection Ability

b)

According to Quantity Held

c)

Materials Used for Packaging

d)

Safety Packaging

136.

Single-unit

Mulitiple-unit

a)

According to Protection Ability

b)

According to Quantity Held

c)

Materials Used for Packaging

d)

Safety Packaging

137.

Glass

Plastic

Foils, Laminates and Films

Rubbers

Metallic

a)

According to Protection Ability

b)

According to Quantity Held

c)

According to Materials

d)

Safety Packaging

138.

Child-resistant container

Tamper-resistant container

a)

According to Protection Ability

b)

According to Quantity Held

c)

According to Materials

d)

Safety Packaging

139.

It protects the contents from the extraneous solids and from loss of the article under ordinary conditions of handling, shipment, storage and distribution.

a)

Well-closed container

b)

Tight container

c)

Loose container

140.

Protects the contents from contamination by extraneous liquids, solid, or vapors, from loss of the article and from efflorescence, deliquescence or evaporation under the ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipment, storage and distribution and is capable of tight re-closure.

a)

Well-closed container

b)

Tight container

c)

Loose container

141.

Commonly packed in tight container

- Efflorescence

- Deliquescence

- Hydroscopic

a)

Well-closed container

b)

Tight container

c)

Loose container

142.

mag absorb ug moisture pero di siya ma dissolve or melt.

a)

Deliquescence

b)

Hydroscopic

c)

Efflorescence

143.

pag mag absorb ug moisture ma siya or ma melt.

a)

Deliquescence

b)

Hydroscopic

c)

Efflorescence

144.

releases water of crystallization so dapat protected siya from liquid as well as vapor.

a)

Deliquescence

b)

Hydroscopic

c)

Efflorescence

145.

Is impervious to air or any other gas under ordinary or customary conditions of handling, shipment, storage and distribution

a)

Hermetic Container

b)

Light Resistant Container

c)

Efflorescence

146.

Protects the contents from photochemical deterioration

a)

Hermetic Container

b)

Light Resistant Container

147.

Holds quantity of drug intended as a single dose and when opened, cannot be resealed with assurance that sterility has been maintained

a)

Hermetic Container

b)

Light Resistant Container

c)

Single-dose Container

148.

Hermetic container that permits withdrawal of successive portions of the contents without changing the strength or endangering the quality and purity of remaining portion

a)

Hermetic Container

b)

Light Resistant Container

c)

Single-dose Container

d)

Multiple-dose Container

149.

Highly resistant borosilicate glass. Contains BORIC OXIDE for buffer and non-buffered aqueous solution. Preferred glass type for laboratory use

a)

Type 1 glass

b)

Type 2 glass

c)

Type 3 glass

d)

Type 4 glass

150.

Treated soda lime glass. Treated with S02. Contains high level of NaOH and CaO used for water attack test

a)

Type 1 glass

b)

Type 2 glass

c)

Type 3 glass

d)

Type 4 glass

151.

For oily solutions and dry powders. Not resistant to high temperature thus cannot be autoclaved.

a)

Type 1 glass

b)

Type 2 glass

c)

Type 3 glass

d)

Type 4 glass

152.

movement of the component of the container padung sa content, part of the container mo padulong kay drug

container to drug movement of content

container to drug

a)

Fragility

b)

Leeching

c)

Sorption

153.

Binding of molecules to polymer materials

-Content of the drug mo dikit kay container.

Ma kuhaon ug quantity si drug product kay ni absorbs container.

-drug to container

2 process: Absoption or adsorption

a)

Fragility

b)

Leeching

c)

Sorption

154.

Does not apply to single material but rather to a vast number of materials each developed to have desired features.

a)

Plastic

b)

Thermoplastic

c)

Thermoset

155.

ma squeeze, ex. Cellophane, nebule container, mineral bottle

a)

Plastic

b)

Thermoplastic

c)

Thermoset

156.

firm and rigid, ex.

a)

Plastic

b)

Thermoplastic

c)

Thermoset

157.

Advantages

a)

Lightweight

Flexibility

Resistance to Impact

b)

Permeability

Leaching

Sorption

Transmission of light

Alteration of container upon storage

158.

Disadvantages

a)

Lightweight

Flexibility

Resistance to Impact

b)

Permeability

Leaching

Sorption

Transmission of light

Alteration of container upon storage

159.

Process of solution and diffusion, ma penetrate ang mga dissolce product sa plastic

a)

Permeability

b)

Diffusion

160.

Polyethylene

Polypropylene

Polyethylene terephthalate

Polyvinyl chloride

Polyesterene

a)

Polymers of Plastics

b)

Polymers of Rubbers