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AUBF MODULE 1 and 2 POSTQUIZ

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following specimens usually eliminates contamination of the urine with entities from the external genitalia and the distal urethra?

a)

First morning specimen

b)

Midstream “clean catch” specimen

c)

Random specimen

d)

4-hour timed collection

2.

Substances that show diurnal variation in their urinary excretion pattern are best evaluated using a

a)

first morning specimen.

b)

midstream “clean catch” specimen.

c)

random specimen.

d)

24 timed collection

3.

Which of the following will not cause erroneous results in a 24-hour timed urine collection?

a)

The collection starts and ends in the evening

b)

Two first morning specimens are included in the collection

c)

Multiple collection containers are not mixed together before specimen testing

d)

A portion of the collection is removed before total volume measurement

4.

A 25-year-old woman complains of painful urination and is suspected of having a urinary tract infection. Which of the following specimens should be collected for a routine urinalysis and urine culture?

a)

First morning specimen

b)

Timed collection

c)

Midstream “clean catch” specimen

d)

Random specimen

5.

A 35-year-old diabetic woman is suspected of developing renal insufficiency. Which of the following specimens should be obtained to determine the amount of creatinine being excreted in the urine?

a)

2-hour postprandial

b)

12-hour timed collection

c)

24-hour timed collection

d)

Midstream “clean catch”

6.

An unpreserved urine specimen collected at midnight is kept at room temperature until the morning hospital shift. Which of the following changes will most likely occur?

a)

Decrease in urine color and clarity

b)

Decrease in pH and specific gravity

c)

Decrease in glucose and ketones

d)

Decrease in bacteria and nitrite

7.

A urine specimen containing the substance indicated

is kept unpreserved at room temperature for 4 hours.

Identify the probable change to that substance.

a)

Bacteria-increased

b)

Bilirubin-increased

c)

Ketones-increase

d)

Protein-increased

8.

Which of the following is the most common method used to preserve urine specimens?

a)

Acid addition

b)

Thymol addition

c)

Freezing

d)

Refrigeration

9.

If refrigeration is used to preserve a urine specimen, which of the following may occur?

a)

Cellular or bacterial glycolysis will be enhanced.

b)

Formed elements will be destroyed

c)

Amorphous crystals may precipitate.

d)

Bacteria will proliferate

10.

Which of the following urine preservatives is acceptable for both urinalysis and urine culture?

a)

Boric acid

b)

Chlorhexidine

c)

Dowicil 200

d)

Formalin

11.

How much urine is usually required for a manually performed routine urinalysis?

a)

5 to 10 mL

b)

10 to 15 mL

c)

20 to 30 mL

d)

50 to 100 mL

12.

Which of the following substances is higher in urine than in any other body fluid?

a)

Chloride

b)

Creatinine

c)

Glucose

d)

Protein

13.

Which of the following information is not found on a material safety data sheet?

a)

Exposure limits

b)

Catalog number

c)

Hazardous ingredients

d)

Flammability of the chemical

14.

Which of the following is not part of a Chemical Hygiene Plan?

a)

To identify and label hazardous chemicals

b)

To educate employees about the chemicals they use (e.g., providing material safety data sheets)

c)

To provide guidelines for the handling and use of each chemical type

d)

To monitor the handling of biological hazards

15.

Which of the following is not an acceptable disposal practice?

a)

Discarding urine into a sink

b)

Disposing of used, empty urine containers with nonhazardous waste

c)

Discarding a used, broken specimen transfer pipette with noninfectious glass waste

d)

Discarding blood specimens into a biohazard container

16.

Which of the following actions represents a good laboratory practice?

a)

Washing or sanitizing hands frequently

b)

Wearing lab coats outside of the laboratory

c)

Removing lab coats from the laboratory for laundering at home in 2% bleach

d)

Wearing the same gloves to perform venipuncture on two different patients because the patients are in the same room

17.

Which of the following is not considered personal protective equipment?

a)

Gloves

b)

Lab coat

c)

Disinfectants

d)

Eyeglasses

18.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Pipetting by mouth"

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

19.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Having a specimen splashed into the eyes"

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

20.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Being scratched by a broken beaker "

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

21.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Smoking in the laboratory"

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

22.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Centrifuging uncovered specimens"

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

23.

Match the mode of transmission with the laboratory

activity.

"Not wearing gloves when handling specimens"

a)

Inhalation

b)

Ingestion

c)

Direct Contact

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

24.

Which agency is responsible for defining, establishing, and monitoring safety and health hazards in the workplace?

a)

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

c)

Chemical Hygiene Agency

d)

National Fire Protection Association

25.

The primary purpose of a Standard Precautions policy in the laboratory is to

a)

ensure a safe and healthy working environment.

b)

identify processes (e.g., autoclaving) to be used to neutralize infectious agents

c)

prevent the exposure and transmission of potentially infectious agents to others

d)

identify patients with hepatitis B virus, human immunodeficiency virus, and other infectious diseases

26.

Interlaboratory comparison testing as with proficiency surveys provides a means to

a)

identify critical values for timely reporting to clinicians

b)

ensure that appropriate documentation is being performed

c)

evaluate the technical performance of individual laboratory practitioners

d)

evaluate the performance of a laboratory compared with that of other laboratories.

27.

Within one facility, what is the purpose of performing duplicate testing of a specimen by two different laboratories (i.e., in-house duplicates)?

a)

It provides little information because the results are already known

b)

It saves money by avoiding the need for internal quality control materials

c)

It provides a means of evaluating the precision of a method

d)

It can detect procedural and technical differences between laboratories

28.

Quality control materials should have

a)

a short expiration date.

b)

a matrix similar to patient samples

c)

their values assigned by an external and unbiased commercial ma

d)

the ability to test preanalytical/pre-examination variables.

29.

Technical competence is displayed when a laboratory practitioner

a)

documents reports in a legible manner.

b)

recognizes discrepant test results.

c)

independently reduces the time needed to perform a procedure (e.g., by decreasing incubation times)

d)

is punctual and timely

30.

Which of the following sources should include a protocol for the way to proceed when quality control results exceed acceptable tolerance limits?

a)

A reference book

b)

A procedure manual

c)

A preventive maintenance manual

d)

A specimen-processing protocol

31.

Which of the following is not considered to be an examination/analytical component of quality assurance?

a)

Reagents (e.g., water)

b)

Glassware (e.g., pipettes)

c)

Instrumentation (e.g., microscope)

d)

Specimen preservation (e.g., refrigeration)

32.

Why are written procedure manuals necessary?

a)

To assist in the ordering of reagents and supplies for a procedure

b)

To appropriately monitor the accuracy and precision of a procedure

c)

To ensure that all individuals perform the same task consistently

d)

To ensure that the appropriate test has been ordered

33.

The purpose of quality control materials is to

a)

monitor instrumentation to eliminate downtime.

b)

ensure the quality of test results obtained.

c)

assess the accuracy and precision of a method.

d)

monitor the technical competence of laboratory staff

34.

Examination/Analytical components of a quality assurance program are procedures and policies that affect the

a)

technical testing of the specimen.

b)

collection and processing of the specimen

c)

reporting and interpretation of results.

d)

diagnosis and treatment of the patient

35.

Which of the following is a postanalytical/post-examination component of a quality assurance/assessment program?

a)

Critical values

b)

Procedure manuals

c)

Preventive maintenance

d)

Test utilization

36.

Which of the following is a preanalytical/pre-examination component of a quality assurance/assessment program?

a)

Quality control

b)

Turnaround time

c)

Technical competence

d)

Preventive maintenance

37.

The ultimate goal of a quality assurance/assessment program is to

a)

maximize the productivity of the laboratory

b)

ensure that patient test results are precise.

c)

ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment of

patients

d)

ensure the validity of laboratory results

obtained.

38.

This term refers to various measures that prevent and contain the spread of infectious disease.

a)

Chain of Infection

b)

Infection Control

c)

Disinfection

d)

Body Substance Isolation

39.

All of the following are engineering controls required by OSHA except?

a)

Providing sharps disposal containers and needles with

safety devices

b)

Requiring discarding of needles with the safety device activated and the holder attached

c)

Labeling all biohazardous materials and containers.

d)

Providing immunization for the hepatitis B virus free of charge

40.

All of the following are good ways of handling chemicals except?

a)

Chemicals should never be mixed together unless specific instructions are followed, and they must be added in the order specified.

b)

Wearing goggles and preparing reagents under a fume hood

c)

Acid should always be added to water to avoid the possibility of sudden splashing caused by the rapid generation of heat in some chemical reactions.

d)

Practice of pipetting by mouth.

41.

All of the following are contents of MSDS except?

a)

Methods for safe handling and disposal of reagents

b)

Physical and chemical characteristics of chemicals/reagents

c)

Exposure limits and carcinogenic potential

d)

Fire and explosion potential

e)

Product price

42.

What is the first thing to do when an accident involving electrical shock occur?

a)

Report to the supervisor/laboratory manager ASAP.

b)

Call an ambulance.

c)

Help your colleague by removing the equipment.

d)

Unplug equipment or turn off circuit breaker immediately.

43.

Discovery of albuminuria by boiling urine.

a)

Hippocrates

b)

Robert Brown

c)

Frederick Dekkers

d)

Edwin Dekkers

44.

He wrote the book on uroscopy which had a great contribution on the field of microscopy.

a)

Hippocrates

b)

Robert Brown

c)

Frederick Dekkers

d)

Edwin Dekkers

45.

Charlatans are also called?

(a)  

46.

It is called a liquid tissue biopsy of the urinary tract.

(a)  

47.

Urine is normally (a)   % water and 5% solute.

48.

It is the product of muscle metabolism.

a)

Uric Acid

b)

Hippuric Acid

c)

Creatinine

d)

Creatine

49.

It is the product of muscle metabolism.

a)

Uric Acid

b)

Hippuric Acid

c)

Creatinine

d)

Creatine

50.

This is caused by a defect either in the pancreatic production of insulin or in the function of insulin.

a)

Diabetes Mellitus

b)

Diabetes Indipidus

51.

Urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory promptly and tested within _______.

a)

1 hour

b)

30 mins

c)

3 hours

d)

2 hours

52.

This is an excellent urine sediment preservative.

a)

Boric Acid

b)

Thymol

c)

Formalin

d)

Sodium Fluoride

e)

Refrigeration.

53.

This preservative is not advisable on drug and hormone analyses.

a)

Boric Acid

b)

Thymol

c)

Formalin

d)

Sodium Fluoride

e)

Refrigeration.

54.

This urine specimen is used for the detection of orthostatic proteinuria.

a)

24 hours urine

b)

First morning urine

c)

Catheterized urine

d)

Midstream-clean-catch

55.

The specific gravity of a patient's urine with diabetes mellitus is:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

d)

None of the above

56.

The specific gravity of a patient's urine with diabetes insipidus is:

a)

Increased

b)

Decreased

c)

Normal

d)

None of the above

57.

All of the following are true on the process of midstream clean catch on a female patient except?

a)

Finish voiding in the toilet

b)

Always label the container with the name and time of collection.

c)

Use alcohol to clean the urinary opening before collecting

d)

Wash hands before starting to collect midstream urine specimen.

58.

All are true on a 24 hour urine specimen except?

a)

Addition of urine on the first day of collection

b)

Use large container to collect urine specimen.

c)

A carefully timed specimen must be used to produce accurate result.

d)

Include urine produced at the end of the collection period.

59.

In 3 glass collection, this container serves as control

a)

first container

b)

2nd container

c)

3rd container

d)

Any of the 3

60.

In 3 glass collection, this container serves as marker for prostatitis in case white blood cell values are increases

a)

first container

b)

2nd container

c)

3rd container

d)

Any of the 3