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Worksheets

14th Mock Quiz Show

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A positive amine (Whiff) test is observed in which of the following syndromes?

a)

A. Bacterial vaginosis

b)

B. Vulvovaginal candidiasis

c)

C. Atrophic vaginitis

d)

D. Desquamative inflammatory vaginitis

2.

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:

a)

A. Urine specimen containers

b)

B. Towels used for decontamination

c)

C. Disposable lab coats

d)

D. Blood collection tubes

3.

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:

a)

A. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta,afferent arteriole

b)

B. Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta,efferent arteriole

c)

C. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta,efferent arteriole

d)

D. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries,afferent arteriole

4.

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate:

a)

A. Ketones

b)

B. Normalcy

c)

C. Phenylketonuria

d)

D. An old specimen

5.

The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction time is the:

a)

A. Bilirubin

b)

B. pH

c)

C. Leukocyte esterase

d)

D. Glucose

6.

An overflow disorder of the phenylalanine-tyrosine pathway that would produce a positive reaction with the reagent strip test for ketones is:

a)

A. Alkaptonuria

b)

B. Melanuria

c)

C. MSUD

d)

D. Tyrosyluria

7.

Prerenal acute renal failure could be caused by:

a)

A. Massive hemorrhage

b)

B. Acute tubular necrosis

c)

C. Acute interstitial nephritis

d)

D. Malignant tumors

8.

Acetyl acetone is added to the urine before performing the Ehrlich test when checking for:

a)

A. Aminolevulinic acid

b)

B. Porphobilinogen

c)

C. Uroporphyrin

d)

D. Coproporphyrin

9.

A total CSF cell count on a clear fluid should be:

a)

A. Reported as normal

b)

B. Not reported

c)

C. Diluted with normal saline

d)

D. Counted undiluted

10.

The primary reason to dilute a semen specimen before performing a sperm concentration is to:

a)

A. Immobilize the sperm

b)

B. Facilitate the chamber count

c)

C. Decrease the viscosity

d)

D. Stain the sperm

11.

Negative birefringence occurs under red-compensated polarized light when:

a)

A. Slow light is impeded more than fast light

b)

B. Slow light is less impeded than fast light

c)

C. Fast light runs against the molecular grain of the crystal

d)

D. Both B and C

12.

In an examination of synovial fluid under compensated polarized light, rhomboid-shaped crystals are observed.What color would these crystals be when aligned parallel to the slow vibration?

a)

A. White

b)

B. Yellow

c)

C. Blue

d)

D. Red

13.

What is the primary cause of the normal increase in amniotic fluid as a pregnancy progresses?

a)

A. Fetal cell metabolism

b)

B. Fetal swallowing

c)

C. Fetal urine

d)

D. Transfer of water across the placenta

14.

A black tarry stool is indicative of:

a)

A. Upper GI bleeding

b)

B. Lower GI bleeding

c)

C. Excess fat

d)

D. Excess carbohydrates

15.

A squamous epithelial cell covered with coccobacilli that extends beyond the cytoplasm margin is a:

a)

A. Basal cell

b)

B. Parabasal cell

c)

C. Clue cell

d)

D. Blastospore

16.

Surgical repair of a blood vessel

a)

A. arterioplasty

b)

B. angioplasty

c)

C. arteriorrhaphy

d)

D. angiorrhaphy

17.

The rate of compressions for 2-person infant CPR is

a)

A. 15:2

b)

B. 30:2

c)

C. 30:1

d)

D. 15:1

18.

The plane that separates the body into top and bottom

a)

A. sagittal

b)

B. mid-sagittal

c)

C. transverse

d)

D. frontal

19.

Palpate the pulse in an unconscious infant at this artery

a)

A. radial

b)

B. brachial

c)

C. carotid

d)

D. coratid

20.

Which of these is not found in the brain

a)

A. glial cells

b)

B. schwann cells

c)

C. oligodendrocytes

d)

D. astocytes

21.

This term means: A tissue is used for a transplant from two different species. (ex: pig to human)

a)

A. Xenotransplantation

b)

B. Cadaver transfer

c)

C. Biological implantation

d)

D. Angioplasty

22.

Fibrinogen determinations are performed on

a)

A. Any body fluid

b)

B. Either serum or plasma

c)

C. Serum only

d)

D. Plasma only

23.

Which media is used to ISOLATE Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces?

a)

A. MacConkey agar

b)

B. Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB)

c)

C. An enrichment broth

d)

D. Mannitol salt agar

24.

Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the

a)

A. Higher the concentration of the analyte

b)

B. Longer the wavelength required

c)

C. More light transmitted

d)

D. Lower the concentration of the analyte

25.

Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail, These cells are most likely identified as

a)

A. Spirochetes

b)

B. Proteus vulgaris

c)

C. Spermatozoa

d)

D.Trichomonas vaginalis

26.

Which instruments do NOT measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in general (number of moles per kilogram of water)?

a)

A. Immunochemical analyzers

b)

B. Blood gas analyzers

c)

C. Spectrophotometers

d)

D. Osmometers

27.

A floatation method for concentration of ova and cysts used:

a)

A. Ammonium sulfate

b)

B. Zinc sulfate

c)

C. Zinc chloride

d)

D. Concentrated formalin

28.

According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying the Streptococcus species, the neterococci are placed in group

a)

A. B

b)

B. A

c)

C. C

d)

D. D

29.

Which of the following tests is used to measure capillary fragility?

a)

A. Bleeding time

b)

B. Prothrombin time

c)

C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

d)

D. Tourniquet

30.

In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in

a)

A. Fish

b)

B. Cattle

c)

C. Man

d)

D. Swine

31.

Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of

a)

A. Rubriblasts

b)

B. Plasmodium species

c)

C. Howell-Jolly bodies

d)

D. Heinz bodies

32.

A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains

a)

A. Bacteria and coarse granules in the cytoplasm

b)

B. A coarse, granular, blunt pseudopod

c)

C. Eccentrically located endosome in the nucleus

d)

D. Red blood cells in the cytoplasm

33.

During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes

a)

A. More acidic

b)

B. More dense

c)

C. Finer

d)

D. Less dense

34.

Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII?

a)

A. Second

b)

B. Fourth

c)

C. Third

d)

D. First

35.

The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is

a)

A. Microcytic

b)

B. Aplastic

c)

C. Macrocytic

d)

D. Hemolytic

36.

An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being

a)

A. Markedly bluish in color

b)

B. Markedly pale in central color

c)

C. Variable in shape

d)

D. Packed with hemoglobin

37.

Collection of blood for cross matching and grouping is done before administration of which plasma expander?

a)

A. Hydroxyl ethyl starch

b)

B. Dextran

c)

C. Mannitol

d)

D. Hemacele

38.

Which of the following is banned from donating blood for the next 24 hours?

a)

A. Person who drank alcohol

b)

B. Dental extraction patient

c)

C. Woman with menstrual bleed

d)

D. Pregnant woman

39.

Which needle is used for blood donation?

a)

A. 21 gauge

b)

B. 10 gauge

c)

C. 16 gauge

d)

D. 23 gauge

40.

The minimum Hematocrit for an autologous blood donor is"

a)

31%

b)

32%

c)

33%

d)

34%

41.

To check compatibility reaction, patient serum and donor cells are used in which type of Cross Match?

a)

A. Minor Cross Match

b)

B. Major Cross Match

c)

C. All types of Cross Match

d)

D. They are not used in crossmatching

42.

Size of Red Blood Cells:

a)

A. 10 micrometers

b)

B. 7 micrometers

c)

C. 5 micrometers

d)

D. 2 micrometers

43.

Which of the following investigations should be done immediately to best confirm a non-matched blood transfusion reaction?

a)

A. Indirect Coomb's test

b)

B. Direct Coomb's test

c)

C. Antibody in patient's serum

d)

D. Antibody in donor serum

44.

How long can blood be stored with CPDA-1?

a)

A. 20 days

b)

B. 24 days

c)

C. 28 days

d)

D. 32 days

45.

Mismatched blood transfusion in anesthetic patients presents:

a)

A. Hyperthermia and hypertension

b)

B. Hypotension and bleeding from site of wound

c)

C. Bradycardia and hypertension

d)

D. Tachycardia and hypertension

46.

Translocation between chromosome 9 and 22 is called as:

a)

A. Fanconi Syndrome

b)

B. Philadelphia Chromosome

c)

C. Down Syndrome

d)

D. Gilbert Syndrome

47.

Which stain is not a Romanoworasky stain?

a)

A. ZN Stain

b)

B. Giemsa Stain

c)

C. Wright's Stain

d)

D. Diff-Quik Stain

48.

Which type of medium is most commonly used for embedding in electron microscopy?

a)

A. Paraffin wax

b)

B. Resin

c)

C. Carbowax

d)

D. Celloidin

49.

The durable material used to make heat-resistant glassware:

a)

A. Polyethylene

b)

B. Soda lime

c)

C. Polystyrene

d)

D. Borosilicate

e)

E. Polyvinyl chloride

50.

The test procedure that requires the use of Westergen tube is:

a)

A. erythrocyte sedimentation rate

b)

B. hematocrit

c)

C. reticulocyte count

d)

D. microhematocrit

e)

E. differential

51.

The purpose of doing a differential is to:

a)

A. determine the proportion of RBC in whole blood

b)

B. count the number of WBCs in the blood

c)

C. determine the proportions of WBCs in whole blood

d)

D. diagnose anemia

e)

E. C & E

52.

An automated hematology cell count uses the principle of:

a)

A. diffusion

b)

B. color absorption changes

c)

C. high frequency sound waves

d)

D. changes in cell electrical currents

e)

E. light wave scattering

53.

Abnormal variation in size of RBC is known as:

a)

A. Microcytosis

b)

B. Anisocytosis

c)

C. Poikilocytosis

d)

D. Gigantocytosis

54.

Mature cysts of E. hystolytica are

a)

A. Uninucleated

b)

B. Binucleated

c)

C. Quadrinucleated

d)

D. Octanucleated

55.

Which parasitic infection can be congenital?

a)

A. E. vermicularis

b)

B. T. vaginalis

c)

C. E. granulosis

d)

D. Toxoplasma Gonadii

56.

Virus culture inside the embryo egg is detected with:

a)

A. Cytopathic effect

b)

B. Pock formation

c)

C. Turbidity

d)

D. Bubbles formation

57.

Which microtome is used for urgent biopsy?

a)

A. Base seledge

b)

B. Sliding microtome

c)

C. Rotary microtome

d)

D. Cryostat

58.

Which disease occurs due to lack of GP IIb/IIa receptor on platelet?

a)

A. Glannzman Thrombothenia

b)

B. Bernal Soliuer Syndrome

c)

C. Plt Gray Syndrome

d)

D. Thrombocytopenia

59.

Cooley's anemia occur due to:

a)

A. Defective beta gene

b)

B. Absent RBCs

c)

C. Absence of all blood cells

d)

D. Increased WBC count

60.

The National Reference Laboratory of the Department of Health is:

(a)  

61.

Which organism is transmitted to humans by ticks and blood transfusion?

a)

A. Babesia

b)

B. Rickettsia rickettsii

c)

C. Leishmania donovani

d)

D. Trypanosoma Cruzi

62.

The largest virus is:

a)

A. Parvo virus

b)

B. Herpes virus

c)

C. Pox virus

d)

D. Coronavirus

63.

Negri bodies are seen in:

a)

A. Rabies

b)

B. Small Pox

c)

C. HIV

d)

D. Tuberculosis

64.

Which of the following immunoglobulin is pentamer?

a)

A. IgG

b)

B. IgM

c)

C. IgA

d)

D. IgD

65.

The infective stage of Strongyloides stercoralis is:

a)

A. Ova

b)

B. Filariform larvae

c)

C. Rhadbditiform larvae

d)

D. Free living adult