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PCT Exam 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Also known as the baseline, it is best determined by drawing a line between the end of the T and beginning of the P wave.

a)

P wave

b)

isoelectric line

c)

SA node

d)

Av node

2.

Located in the proximal intraventricular septum. It merges from the AV node to begin the conduction of the impulse from the AV node to the ventricles.

a)

Bundle of His

b)

ST segment

c)

T wave

d)

Electrode

3.

A small rounded wave on an EKG that indicates atrial contraction.

a)

T wave

b)

AV node

c)

P wave

d)

SA node

4.

The interval of time between the P wave and the R wave on the ECG.

a)

R-R interval

b)

P-P interval

c)

long QT interval

d)

PR interval

5.

A QT interval longer than 0.42 secs.

a)

Long QT interval

b)

Short QT interval

c)

PR interval

d)

P-P interval

6.

A heart rhythm initiated in the AV node in the event of SA node failure.

a)

Junctional rhythm

b)

sinus rhythm

c)

rhythm strip

d)

normal rhythm

7.

The interval from the peak of one QRS complex to the next. It is used as an indicator of regularity when evaluating the heart's rhythm on an EKG.

a)

long QT interval

b)

R-R interval

c)

PR interval

d)

P-P interval

8.

Portion on the EKG wave from the end of the P wave to the beginning of the QRS complex, lasting about 0.1 secs.

a)

PR segment

b)

ST segment

c)

R segment

d)

T segment

9.

A cluster of special muscle fibers located in the right atrial wall of the heart considered to be the primary pacemaker of the heart.

a)

Av node

b)

SA node

c)

SV node

d)

AV node

10.

EKG measurement of the time between ventricular depolarization and repolarization.

a)

short OT interval

b)

long QT interval

c)

P-P interval

d)

QT interval

11.

Change of the electrical polarity of a membrane because of flow of ion in and out of the cell across the cell membranes.

a)

depolarization

b)

electrode

c)

repolarization

d)

junctional rhythm

12.

Represents the period from the end of ventricular depolarization to the beginning of ventricular repolarization.

a)

PR segment

b)

R segment

c)

ST segment

d)

T segment

13.

The restoration of electrical polarity via an increase in ion differential between cell membranes of the myocardium.

a)

wave

b)

segment

c)

repolarization

d)

depolarization

14.

The electrical sensors placed on the chest to record the bioelectrical activity of the heart.

a)

electrode

b)

node

c)

wave

d)

interval

15.

Specialized heart conducting tissue that receives impulses from the SA node and propagates them to the ventricles.

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

AS node

d)

VA node

16.

EKG representation of the heart's electrical impulse as it passes through ventricles.

a)

A wave

b)

T wave

c)

P wave

d)

QRS complex

17.

A single-lead electrocardiography recording used to evaluate the patient's rhythm.

a)

sinus strip

b)

rhythm strip

c)

wave strip

d)

long strip

18.

Corresponds to rapid ventricular repolarization.

a)

A wave

b)

P wave

c)

T wave

d)

Q wave

19.

The interval represented by the space between the P waves of two consecutive complexes.

a)

P-P interval

b)

PR interval

c)

QT interval

d)

T interval

20.

The normal cycle of electrical stimulation of the heart that begins in the SA node, traveling to the left atrium and down to the AV node.

a)

rhythm

b)

junctional rhythm

c)

sinus rhythm

d)

QT rhythm

21.

On most push button phones, a blinking light indicates that the line is on hold.

a)

true

b)

false

22.

A device that allows a computer operator to manipulate the cursor without using the arrow keys is the mouse.

a)

true

b)

false

23.

A group of computers that are connected is called a network.

a)

true

b)

false

24.

A monitor for a computer is an input device.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

An organizational chart is the most effective tool that can be used as a guiding principle of maintaining high standards.

a)

true

b)

false

26.

Faxes can be received only 8 hours a day.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

Staff meetings should be used to share information about changes in procedures and discuss ways to improve care.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

If you have a hard of hearing caller, you should speak slowly, distinctly and with a lower pitch.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

To close a computer program, you should push the reset button.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

If a term baffles you, ask someone to explain it to you.

a)

true

b)

false

31.

To protect again computer data loss, you should format all information.

a)

true

b)

false

32.

Examples of computer hardware are printers, disk drives, and monitors.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Paid vacation, paid holidays and disability insurance are all examples of employee benefits.

a)

true

b)

false

34.

Database are sets of records of information.

a)

true

b)

false

35.

To prevent unauthorized computer access to confidential patient information, the staff must lock the computer at night.

a)

true

b)

false

36.

Documentation of emergencies is very important. This document becomes part of the patient's medical record.

a)

true

b)

false

37.

Technicians should give medical advice if asked.

a)

true

b)

false

38.

Source-oriented medical records are primarily used by hospitals.

a)

true

b)

false

39.

All medical records, including back-up disks should be kept in a closet.

a)

true

b)

false

40.

Part of organizing the day means to review what is going to happen that day.

a)

true

b)

false

41.

when performing a task, the violation of a duty to exercise reasonable care and skill is:

a)

patency

b)

negligence

c)

secondary

d)

neutropenic

42.

In certain cases, the patient may not legally be able to act for himself in establishing a contract with the doctor. In these cases, he would need a/an:

a)

notary public

b)

lawyer

c)

agent

d)

parent or guardian

43.

Violation of federal or state narcotics laws constitute:

a)

civil negligence

b)

a tort

c)

a criminal act

d)

a misdemeanor

44.

A professional code of ethics:

a)

serves to regulate the actions of its members

b)

establishes several standards of conduct

c)

promotes the elevating of acceptable standards

d)

all of the above

45.

Under the Controlled Substances Act those drugs having the highest potential for abuse, such as cocaine and marijuana are under Schedule:

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

46.

Under the Controlled Substances Act how many schedules are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

4

47.

Violation of the ethical standards of an association or society may result in:

a)

a fine

b)

the revocation of credentials

c)

censorship

d)

expulsion

48.

Putting a person through cruel and unjust hardships with conscious disregard of rights is called:

a)

oppression

b)

bad behavior

c)

fraud

d)

suffering

49.

Intentional conduct to cause injury or conduct that is carried on with the conscious disregard of the rights of others is called:

a)

oppressions

b)

bad conduct

c)

malice

d)

fraud

50.

Everything a health care professional sees, hears, or reads about a patient's condition remains:

a)

subpoenead

b)

confidential

c)

public

d)

hidden

51.

The term defines the rules and standards governing the conduct of the members of the health care profession is called:

a)

medical tort

b)

medical rules

c)

medical ethics

d)

medical malice

52.

A _____ is a rule of conduct established and enforced by an authority or governing body, such as the federal

a)

principle

b)

law

c)

tort

d)

policy

53.

A health-care professional who stops care without providing an equally qualified substitute can charged be with:

a)

neglect

b)

delayed treatment

c)

breach of duty

d)

abandonment

54.

The appropriate way for a patient to donate organs upon death is to:

a)

inform the physician

b)

state one's wishes in a living will

c)

discuss it with family members

d)

complete a uniform donor card

55.

How often must every employee who may be exposed to hazardous or infectious substances on the job be given free information and training during working hours?

a)

monthly

b)

at least once a year

c)

every two years

d)

every three years

56.

Which of the following is classified as a potentially infectious waste?

a)

patient gown

b)

blood products

c)

blood pressure cuff

d)

prescription pad

57.

Character traits that make a person act in a certain upstanding way are:

a)

rights

b)

virtues

c)

laws

d)

duties

58.

slander is defamation through:

a)

oral statements that tend to damage an individual's reputation

b)

written statements that tend to damage an individual's reputation

c)

written lies about an individual

d)

oral truths about an individual

59.

Ethical standards are:

a)

laws

b)

norms

c)

regulations

d)

traditions

60.

Normal acceptable behavior in our society is known as:

a)

ethics

b)

morals

c)

etiquette

d)

laws

61.

Encephal means:

a)

head

b)

skull

c)

brain

d)

none of the choices

62.

The abbreviation for blood pressure is

a)

BP

b)

BLP

c)

BPR

d)

BPP

63.

The abbreviation for urine culture is:

a)

UC

b)

ur

c)

ue

d)

un

64.

Hysteropathy refers to:

a)

any uterine disorder

b)

a suture

c)

any excision

d)

none of the choices

65.

Paralysis of the lower limbs and at varying degrees of the lower trunk is called:

a)

paraplegia

b)

hemiplegia

c)

paresis

d)

paresthesia

66.

A condition characterized by frequent liquid stools:

a)

colitis

b)

diarrhea

c)

flatus

d)

NONE OF THE CHOICES

67.

A critical illness resulting in the sudden cessation of kidney function is known as:

a)

renal failure

b)

polycystic kidney

c)

pyelonephritis

d)

spastic colon

68.

A condition characterized by alternating periods of constipation and diarrhea:

a)

ulcerative colitis

b)

spastic colon

c)

pancreatitis

d)

all of the choices

69.

A bulge in an artery caused by weakening of its wall is

a)

anastomosis

b)

adenoma

c)

acrocyanosis

d)

aneurysm

70.

A deficiency of either red blood cells, or hemoglobin, or both is

a)

aneurysm

b)

adenoma

c)

acrocyanosis

d)

anemia

71.

An excess of potassium

a)

hypernatremia

b)

hyperochromic

c)

hyperkalemia

d)

hyponatremia

72.

An excess of sodium in the blood

a)

hyperkalemia

b)

hypernatremia

c)

hypochromic

d)

hypokalemia

73.

Resistance to disease or infection is

a)

antibody

b)

immunity

c)

inoculation

d)

none of the above

74.

Inflammation of the brain is referred to as

a)

encephalitis

b)

ancephalitis

c)

endocarditis

d)

none of the above

75.

In medical terminology, the suffix of a word is

a)

main part of a word; root word

b)

special terms used in any specialized field

c)

modifying word syllable, placed at the end of the word

d)

modifying word syllable, placed at the beginning of the word

76.

The relaxation phase of the heart is called the

a)

systole

b)

pulse

c)

diastole

d)

cardiac cycle

77.

Which of the following can lead to an increase in the level of enzymes present in the circulation?

a)

heart damage

b)

exercise

c)

diet

d)

sitting up quickly

78.

What does the suffix "-stasis" mean?

a)

disease

b)

breakdown

c)

stopping or controlling

d)

condition

79.

The suffix "-emia" refers to

a)

pus

b)

blood

c)

urine

d)

water

80.

The pituitary gland:

a)

is also called the hyperphysis

b)

is considered to be the master gland

c)

does not produce hormones

d)

is the largest gland in the body

81.

The Isles of Langerhans:

a)

produces adrenaline

b)

stimulates growth of the thyroid

c)

produces insulin

d)

produces ADH

82.

A subdivision of the brain that consist of medulla, pons, and mid-brain, located between the spinal cord and the cerebrum is called the:

a)

brainspan

b)

brainstorm

c)

brainstem

d)

cortex

83.

The most important muscle to aid in breathing is:

a)

deltoid

b)

trapezius

c)

diaphragm

d)

pectoralis major

84.

The main upper chest muscle is:

a)

trapezius

b)

deltiod

c)

sartorius

d)

pectoralis major

85.

The muscle walls of the heart are called the:

a)

myocardium

b)

septum

c)

tricuspid

d)

semilunar

86.

The collar bone, a slender bone, one on each side of the body, connecting the breastbone to each shoulder is called the:

a)

scapula

b)

acromion

c)

clavicle

d)

none of the above

87.

A bone that is partially bent and partially broken is referred to as:

a)

greenstick

b)

impacted

c)

compound

d)

none of the choices

88.

The largest gland in the human body is the:

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

brain

d)

pancreas

89.

The small sac attached to the underside of the liver and stores bile is called the:

a)

pancreas

b)

colon

c)

gallbladder

d)

appendix

90.

Insulin is secreted directly into the bloodstream by what organ?

a)

gallbladder

b)

colon

c)

pancreas

d)

liver

91.

A substance provided by the stomach, necessary for the digestion of food, is called:

a)

glycogen

b)

insulin

c)

hydrochloric acid

d)

glucose

92.

The number of bones in the body is:

a)

90

b)

100

c)

206

d)

450

93.

The longest bone in the body is the:

a)

tibia

b)

femur

c)

fibula

d)

humerus

94.

The function of the veins is to:

a)

carry deoxygenated blood to the heart

b)

carry antigens

c)

remove waste

d)

carry blood that is rich in oxygen from the heart

95.

The smallest blood vessel is the:

a)

capillary

b)

pulmonary vein

c)

vena cava

d)

venule

96.

The outer most cellular layer of skin is called:

a)

corium

b)

epidermis

c)

subcutaneous

d)

none of the choices

97.

A condition in which the heart is unable to pump adequate amounts of blood to the tissues and organs is:

a)

cardiac failure

b)

congestive failure

c)

rheumatic heart disease

d)

artariosclerpais

98.

Thick walled vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called:

a)

artria

b)

vein

c)

arteries

d)

none of the above

99.

The hardest tissue of the body is:

a)

cartilage

b)

bone

c)

enamel

d)

cementum

100.

The number of chambers in the human heart is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4