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LAB MGT MODULE 3 ASSESSMENT

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is the process of preventing unwanted risks and hazards from entering the laboratory space.

a)

Security

b)

Containment

c)

Safety

d)

Ergonomics

2.

It is the process that seeks to minimize risks and prevent hazards from leaving the laboratory space and causing harm to the community.

a)

Security

b)

Containment

c)

Safety

d)

Ergonomics

3.

This addresses facility and equipment adaptation to allow safe and healthy working conditions at the laboratory site.

a)

Security

b)

Containment

c)

Safety

d)

Ergonomics

4.

Pre-examination phase includes:

a)

Sample testing

b)

Sample validation

c)

Reporting of test result

d)

Test Selection

5.

It is considered the most important laboratory resource.

a)

Competent and motivated staff

b)

Advance Machineries

c)

Specialized Computers

d)

Health Information System

6.

This is essential in order to protect the lives of employees and patients, to protect laboratory equipment and facilities, and protect the laboratory environment as well.

a)

Laboratory safety program

b)

Laboratory quality control program

c)

Laboratory assessment program

d)

Laboratory process improvement program

7.

Neglecting laboratory safety is very costly. Secondary effects of a laboratory accident includes all of the following except?

a)

loss of reputation

b)

loss of customers

c)

negative effect on staff retention

d)

increased income

e)

increased costs—litigation, insurance.

8.

All of the following are duties of a laboratory director in maintaining safety in the laboratory except?

a)

actively participate in the design and planning stages of new laboratory facilities

b)

assess all potential risks and apply basic concepts of organization in the laboratory

c)

consider the organization of the laboratory when developing new activities or new diagnostic techniques in the laboratory

d)

conduct laboratory safety audits

9.

All of the following are duties of a quality manager/safety officer except?

a)

develop a complete and thorough description of basic safety rules and organization

b)

ensure that personnel are trained in their specific duties when new activities or techniques are introduced into the laboratory

c)

conduct laboratory safety audits

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

10.

All are true about work benches in the laboratory except?

a)

Laboratory work benches should be constructed of materials that are durable and easy to disinfect.

b)

If the laboratory’s budget allows, ceramic tiles are good materials to use for benchtops.

c)

Wood should not be used, as it is not easy to clean or disinfect, and will deteriorate over time when repeatedly exposed to disinfectants and detergents.

d)

It is advisable to organize work benches according to the type of analysis that is performed.

e)

Disinfection on work benchtops should be done by utility personnel and not by lab personnel as they have more important things to do.

11.

Policies should be put in place that outline the safety practices to be followed in the laboratory. Standard laboratory safety practices includes all of the following except?

a)

limiting or restricting access to the laboratory

b)

prohibiting mouth pipetting

c)

using techniques that minimize aerosol or splash production when performing procedures

d)

prohibiting eating, drinking, smoking, handling contact lenses, and applying cosmetics in work areas;

e)

use of open-toed shoes and disposable lab gowns while working in the lab

12.

Laboratory glassware and plasticwares should be disposed on puncture-resistant, leak-proof sharps container since they can pose threats to laboratory personnel.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

It serves as a technical bulletin for chemicals that provide detailed hazard and precautionary information of every chemicals in the laboratory.

a)

Chemical Inserts

b)

MSDS

c)

Chemical Hygiene Plan

d)

Chemical Safety program document

14.

Chemicals can enter the human body via the following except?

a)

Inhalation

b)

Absorption

c)

Ingestion

d)

Sexual contact

15.

It serves as the main sources of contamination within diagnostic laboratories due to activities that concern several identification of pathogens.

a)

Aerosol

b)

Blood

c)

Sputum

d)

Body fluids

16.

To prevent exposure to droplets, a lab personnel should wear?

a)

Disposable lab gown

b)

Face mask

c)

Gloves

d)

Goggles

e)

Contact lenses

17.

This is compulsory in physical containment level 3 laboratories or in specific instances such as sample collection when highly dangerous pathogens is

involved, such as suspected cases of H5N1 avian influenza or SARS.

a)

Disposable lab gown

b)

Face mask

c)

Gloves

d)

Goggles

e)

Contact lenses

18.

When cleaning laboratory spills caused by caustic fluids, it is recommended to use ____________ as absorbent pads.

a)

baking soda or polypropylene pads

b)

polypropylene pads or diatomaceous earth

c)

diatomaceous earth only

d)

baking soda only

19.

For spills containing large amounts of organic material,______ should be used to clean and decontaminate the surface.

a)

1:10 household bleach or 10% hypochlorite

b)

70% alcohol

20.

Fire extinguishers in the laboratory shall be inspected?

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Annually

d)

Daily

21.

The design of laboratory work areas should ensure proper ventilation and surfaces that can be cleaned and disinfected.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

22.

This document establishes policy and describes standard procedures for handling safety and emergency issues.

a)

Safety Manual

b)

Chain of infection manual

c)

Laboratory procedure manual

d)

Disinfection manual

23.

Benefits of a good equipment management program includes all of the following except?

a)

helps to maintain a high level of laboratory performance;

b)

reduces variation in test results, and improves the technologist’s confidence in the accuracy of testing results;

c)

lengthens instrument life

d)

reduces interruption of services due to breakdowns and failures

e)

increases replacement and purchase of equipment to promote greater customer satisfaction.

24.

Things to consider when collecting and acquiring equipment.

a)

how the equipment will be used

b)

cost of the equipment

c)

facility requirements, including the requirements for physical

space

d)

safety issues to consider

e)

All of the above

25.

Things to consider when installing new equipment.

a)

ventilation and water supply

b)

electrical supply

c)

space

d)

All of the above

26.

This is a very important process that can help calculate how much is required of any particular item for a given period of time, and it is an essential part of a successful inventory management program.

a)

Forecasting

b)

Quantification

27.

Advantages of a computerized inventory management system except?

a)

generate statistics that will help when planning and making purchases

b)

ease the burden of inventory management

c)

allow for good management of expiration dates

d)

on-site computer is needed and it could be expensive to purchase

28.

Sample management is a part of ?

a)

Information management

b)

Customer service

c)

Equipment

d)

Assessment

e)

Process control

29.

Defined by ISO as one or more parts taken from a system and intended to provide information on the system.

a)

Specimen

b)

Sample

30.

It is a sample taken from the human body.

a)

Specimen

b)

Sample

31.

The laboratory should keep an inventory log of all equipment in the laboratory. The log should be updated with information on new equipment. Documentation for old retired equipment is not necessary unless required by standards.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

Equipment logbook shall contain the following information except?

a)

preventive maintenance activities and schedule

b)

recording of function checks and calibration

c)

full information on any problem that the instrument develops, the subsequent troubleshooting activity and follow-up information regarding resolution of the problem. In recording problems, be sure to record

d)

any changes to procedure for maintenance or function checks as a result of the problem

e)

None of the above

33.

Establishing a purchasing and inventory management program will ensure that:

a)

supplies and reagents are always available when needed;

b)

high-quality reagents are obtained at an appropriate cost;

c)

reagents and supplies are not lost due to improper storage, or kept and used beyond expiration.

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the above

34.

This quantification technique allows the laboratory to study and take into account the actual number of episodes, illnesses and health problems that require laboratory testing. This helps them accurately estimate the needed reagents and supplies for laboratory testing.

a)

Morbidity based quantification

b)

Consumption based quantification

c)

Death rate based quantification

d)

Monthly based quantification

35.

On this process, patients are instructed on the timing (e.g fasting issues) that pertains to blood glucose, hormones , drug analysis etc.

a)

Patient preparation

b)

Patient identification

c)

Type of container

d)

Sample labelling

e)

Special handling

36.

This process includes immediate refrigeration, protection from light or prompt delivery to the laboratory.

a)

Patient preparation

b)

Patient identification

c)

Type of container

d)

Sample labelling

e)

Special handling of specimens

37.

Handle all samples as if they are infectious.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

All potentially hazardous material requires triple packaging.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

The goal of Quality Control is to detect, evaluate, nd correct errors due to test system failure, environmental conditions or operator performance, before patient

results are reported.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

These substances contain an established amount of the substance being tested and are tested at the same time and in the same way as patient samples to validate the reliability of the test system and evaluate the operator’s performance and environmental conditions that might impact results.

a)

Patient samples

b)

Control Samples

c)

Calibration Samples

d)

All of the above

41.

These are solutions with a specified defined concentration that are used to set or calibrate an instrument, kit, or system before testing is begun.

a)

Patient samples

b)

Control Samples

c)

Calibration Samples

d)

All of the above

42.

Controls are usually available in "high", "normal" and "low" ranges.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

All are measures of central tendency except?

a)

Mean

b)

Median

c)

Mode

d)

Standard Deviation

44.

It is defined as the closeness of a measurement to its true value.

a)

Acurracy

b)

Precision

c)

Reliability

d)

Reproducibility

e)

Bias

45.

It is defined as the amount of variation in the measurements.

a)

Acurracy

b)

Precision

c)

Reliability

d)

Reproducibility

e)

Bias

46.

It is the difference between the expectation of a test result and an accepted reference method.

a)

Acurracy

b)

Precision

c)

Reliability

d)

Reproducibility

e)

Bias

47.

It occurs when an abrupt change is followed by six or more

consecutive QC results that fall on one side of the mean.

a)

Shift

b)

Trend

48.

It occurs when values gradually, but continually, move in one direction over six or more analytical runs.

a)

Shift

b)

Trend

49.

This type of examination measure the presence or absence of a substance, or evaluate cellular characteristics such as morphology.

a)

Quantitative examination

b)

Qualitative Examination

c)

Semi-qualitative Examination

d)

Semi-quantitative Examination

50.

Built-in controls are those that are integrated into the

design of a test system such as a test kit device. Usually, the device is marked with designated areas where coloured lines, bars or dots should appear to indicate success or failure of positive and negative controls, and these controls are performed automatically with each test.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

51.

QC in microbiology requires use of dead/inactivated control organisms with predictable reactions to verify that stains, reagents and media are working correctly.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

52.

Assessments conducted by groups or agencies from outside the laboratories are called?

a)

external audits

b)

internal audits

c)

Licensing

d)

Accreditation

53.

Type of assessment that laboratories can utilize

where staff working in one area of the laboratory conduct assessments on another area of the same laboratory.

a)

external audits

b)

internal audits

c)

Licensing

d)

Accreditation

54.

It is the most commonly employed type of External Quality Assessment program that allows external provider sends unknown samples for testing to a set of laboratories, and the results of all laboratories are analyzed, compared and reported to the laboratories.

a)

On site evaluation

b)

Rechecking or retesting

c)

Proficiency testing

d)

None of the above

55.

It is a document that provides rules, guidelines or characteristics for activities or their results. It covers such documents as standards, technical specifications, codes of practice and regulations.

a)

Normative Document

b)

Standard Document

c)

Regulatory Documents.

d)

Procedure Manuals

56.

It is any standard that is mandated by a governmental agency or authoritative body.

a)

Normative Document

b)

Standard Document

c)

Regulation

d)

Procedure Manuals

57.

It is the procedure by which an independent body gives written assurance that a product, process or service conforms to specific requirements

a)

External qualification

b)

Certification

c)

Licensing

d)

Accreditation

58.

It is the procedure by which an authoritative body gives formal recognition that a body or person is competent to carry out specific tasks.

a)

External qualification

b)

Certification

c)

Licensing

d)

Accreditation

59.

It is the granting of ability to practice, usually provided by a local governmental agency. Licensure is usually based on demonstrated knowledge, training and skills

a)

External qualification

b)

Certification

c)

Licensing

d)

Accreditation

60.

Management must establish appropriate personnel qualifications for all positions in the laboratory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

61.

It is defined as the application of knowledge, skills and behaviors used in performing specific job tasks.

a)

Competency

b)

Skills

c)

Talents

d)

Capability

62.

It is required when competency assessment reveals the need for improving an employee’s knowledge and skills.

a)

Retraining

b)

Cross training

c)

Continuing education

d)

None of the above

63.

It provides an opportunity for staff to acquire skills outside their own discipline. This allows for flexibility in shifting or reassigning personnel whenever needed; this may occur in crisis situations or with absences of staff due to illness or vacation.

a)

Retraining

b)

Cross training

c)

Continuing education

d)

None of the above

64.

This enables employees to be up to-date in a particular area of knowledge or skills.

a)

Retraining

b)

Cross training

c)

Continuing education

d)

None of the above

65.

Good customer service is capable to provide: valuable information for best patient car, valuable information to improve surveillance and other public health actions and gives professional image for the laboratory.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

This are documents that contain written step-by-step instructions that laboratory staff should meticulously follow when performing a procedure.

a)

Safety Manual

b)

Chain of infection manual

c)

Standard operating procedure manual

d)

Disinfection manual