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Synthetic Antibacterial (Nitrofurans and Antituberculars)

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

First nitroheterocyclic compound to be introduced into chemotherapy.

(a)  

2.

Nitrofurans are derivatives of 4-nitro-3-furaldehyde, formed on reaction with the appropriate hydramine or amine derivative.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

An antiprotozoal nitrofuran used to treat trypanosomiasis and leishmaniasis

(a)  

4.

A nitrofuran with an azole group used as an amoebacide

(a)  

5.

MAjor adverse effect of nitrofurans

(a)  

6.

Nitrofurans antibacterial property is only present when the nitro group is in __________ of the ring

a)

4 position

b)

5 position

c)

3 position

d)

6 position

7.

The mechanism of action of nitrofurans is trough the reduction of the nitro group via the action of the enzyme nitrofuran reductase followed by the formation of reactive intermediates or radicals which causes damage or disruption of the following:

a)

Ribosomal proteins

b)

DNA and its inhibition

c)

RNA

d)

Proteins

e)

Cell wall and its sythesis

8.

For burns and infections involving skin grafts

(a)  

9.

Oral treatment for bacterial or protozoal diarrhea

(a)  

10.

Nitrofuran orally administered for UTI. Its microcrystalline form improves GI tolerance without interfering with oral absorption.

(a)  

11.

Methenamine is prepared by evaporating a specific combination of the solution to dryness. What is the components of that solution?

a)

Formaldehyde

b)

Strong ammonia water

c)

Ammoniated lime

d)

Acetic acid

12.

The antibacterial activity of methenamine depends on the liberation of formaldehyde. This can be enhanced by acidifying the medium using what of the following

a)

Sal ammoniae

b)

Ammonium chloride

c)

Sodium biphosphate

d)

Potassium bisphosphate

13.

Methenamine is ineffective against microorganisms containing (a)   . An enzyme that can degrade urea to ammonia.

14.

Nitrofuran used for chronic UTI

(a)  

15.

Acidification of urine to a pH of (a)   for optimal delivery of methanamine.

16.

The salt form of methenamine.are used as

(a)  

17.

Mandelamine

(a)  

18.

Hiprex

(a)  

19.

Alleviate pain and discomfort caused by UTI and concentrates in the urine through local analgesic effect on the mucosa of UT. Also known as a urinary analgesic.

(a)  

20.

Phenazopyridine is combined with

a)

Paracetamol

b)

Ammonium chloride

c)

Azo-gantrisin

d)

Urobiotic

21.

Phenazopyridine preparations color the urine similar to Rifampicin, red-orange. To prevent staining (a)   is used.

22.

Do Mycobacterium tuberculosis live inside the macrophages and lysosomes

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The causative agents for tuberculosis are gram-positive acid-fast bacillus (has mycolic acid on its cell wall)

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Organs and systems susceptible to tuberculosis

a)

Bones and Intestine

b)

Lymph Nodes

c)

Kidney

d)

Tubercular Meningitis

e)

Breast

25.

Management of Tuberculosis

(a)  

26.

Aim of tuberculosis therapy, treatment must be for

longer period because the response to chemotherapy

is slow due to

a)

Slow rate of growth

b)

Due to ineffective drugs

c)

Intracellular location of the infection (inside macrophages and lysosomes)

d)

Large number of actively multiplying bacteria must be killed

e)

Development of rapid resistance

27.

Best treatment for a large number of actively multiplying bacteria must be killed

(a)  

28.

Persisters are semi-dormant bacilli that metabolize slowly, should be treated with

(a)  

29.

Why combination therapy is given in TB

a)

single agents are not enough to treat mild infections

b)

reduce the toxicity of individual drugs

c)

drugs forms synergism to one another to increase their activity against the infectious agents

d)

To broaden the spectrum

e)

prevent the emergence of resistance

30.

First-line agents for TB

(a)  

31.

a single agent as first-line treatment for TB

(a)  

32.

Which of the following is not a 2nd line agent for TB

a)

ciprofloxacin, ethionamide,

b)

Aminoglycosides, paminosalicylic acid (PAS)

c)

levofoxacin, cycloserine

d)

rifabutin, capreomycin

e)

Rifamycin, echiocandins

33.

The first 2 months of the TB therapy are composed of the RIPE, however in the last 4 months a drug is removed to reduce the incidence of optic neuropathy. What drug is this?

(a)  

34.

Which among are the prophylactic doses for TB using Isoniazid

a)

300mg/day

b)

900mg twice weekly for 6 to 12 months in case of immunocompromised patients

c)

5mg/kg/day

d)

600mg twice weekly for 6 to 12 months in case of immunocompromised patients

e)

350mg/day

35.

Prophylaxis for the patients who are unable to take isoniazid; have close contact with a case of active TB caused by an isoniazid resistant Rifampicin-susceptible strain

(a)  

36.

Toxicity includes insomnia, peripheral neuropathy, and hepatotoxicity.


(INH)

(a)  

37.

safest, most potent, and effective against all forms of M. tuberculosis; Bactericidal

(a)  

38.

An antitubercular is readily absorbed from the GIT and does not bind with the plasma protein. It will undergo extensive distribution in the tissue and body fluids.

(a)  

39.

2nd line agent for TB as a treatment for INH-resistant cases. It can cause GI intolerance, visual disturbances, and hepatotoxicity.

(a)  

40.

first line agent in short term TB

(a)  

41.

synthetic analogue of nicotinamide

(a)  

42.

Effective in low pH environment as it can kill TB bacilli in acidic pH up to 5.5 including intracellular infection, within the macrophage and lysosome. It also penetrates inflamed meningesHowever, cannot kill TB bacilli in the blood because of high pH.

(a)  

43.

Stereospecific to active against dividing mycobacteria antitubercular

(a)  

44.

Mechanism of action of ethambutol

a)

Prevents incorporation of PABA in dehydrofolic acid molecule

b)

Inhibition of the incorporation of mycolic acid into the cell wall of the microorganisms

c)

prevents the synthesis of cross-linking peptide in the formation of bacterial cell walls

d)

Inhibits the synthesis of Arabinogalactan which is an essential component of the mycobacterial cell wall.

45.

Mechanism of action of cycloserine

a)

Prevents incorporation of PABA in dehydrofolic acid molecule

b)

Inhibition of the incorporation of mycolic acid into the cell wall of the microorganisms

c)

prevents the synthesis of cross-linking peptide in the formation of bacterial cell walls

d)

Inhibits the synthesis of Arabinogalactan which is an essential component of the mycobacterial cell wall.

46.

Mechanism of action of aminosalicylic acid

a)

Prevents incorporation of PABA in dehydrofolic acid molecule

b)

Inhibition of the incorporation of mycolic acid into the cell wall of the microorganisms

c)

prevents the synthesis of cross-linking peptide in the formation of bacterial cell walls

d)

Inhibits the synthesis of Arabinogalactan which is an essential component of the mycobacterial cell wall.

47.

True about the toxicity of ethambutol, except:

a)

Retrobulbar optic neuritis (most common)—loss of visual acuity, blue-green color blindness, and blindness

b)

Can be given to children

c)

Causes increase in urine uric acid (Hyperuricemia)

d)

Hypersensitivity is common

48.

Mechanism of action of aminosalicylate sodium

a)

Prevents incorporation of PABA in dehydrofolic acid molecule

b)

Inhibition of the incorporation of mycolic acid into the cell wall of the microorganisms

c)

prevents the synthesis of cross-linking peptide in the formation of bacterial cell walls

d)

Inhibits the synthesis of Arabinogalactan which is an essential component of the mycobacterial cell wall.

49.

A basic red dye that exerts slow bactericidal effect on M. leprae and has an anti-inflammatory and immune-modulating effects

(a)  

50.

Treatment for skin lesions caused by M. ulcerans. However also causes skin pigmentation, ichthyosis, dryness, rash, pruritus, and severe GI disturbances (similar to ethionamide).

(a)  

51.

Prophylaxis of disseminated MAC in AIDS patients

(a)  

52.

Semisynthetic derivative of Rifamycin produced by S. mediterranei

(a)  

53.

An antitubercular effective against Neisseria meningitidis

(a)  

54.

Rifampin / rifampicin is an enzyme

a)

Inducer

b)

Inhibitor

55.

When rifampicin is taken along with this drug it inactivates APAP

(a)  

56.

Color or tint of urine, stool, saliva, tears, skin after taking rifampicin

(a)  

57.

Cycloserine is isolated from which of the following agents

a)

Strep. orchidaceus

b)

Strep. lavendulus

c)

Strep. garyphalus

d)

Strep. mediterranae

e)

Strep. rimosus

58.

An aminoglycoside, strongly basic cyclic peptide isolated from Strep. capreolus. Second line agent and an alternative to streptomycin.

(a)  

59.

Which among is correctly paired with their corresponding toxicities, except:

a)

Isoniazid - optic neuritis

b)

Pyrazinamide - Cholestatic jaundice + renal toxicity + Flu like syndrome

c)

Pyrazinamide - Hepatotoxicity + Hypeuricemia

d)

Rifampicin - Cholestatic jaundice + renal toxicity + Flu like syndrome

e)

Ethambutol - optic neuritis