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Heart, Blood, Lymphatic System

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Basophils have a _____ shape nucleus, Eosinophils have a _____ shaped nucleus and Neutrophils have ______ nucleus.

a)

Bilobed, S shaped, 3-5

b)

S shaped, Bilobed, 3-5

c)

S shaped, Bilobed, 2-4

2.

B cells remain in the ___ for maturation.

a)

thymus

b)

bone marrow

c)

blood stream

d)

liver

3.

T cells leave bone marrow to go to the ____ for maturation.

a)

spleen

b)

liver

c)

kidneys

d)

thymus

4.

Which leukocytes are phagocytic

a)

Monocytes, Neutrophils, Eosinophils

b)

Basophils, Lymphocytes

c)

Lymphocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils

d)

Monocytes only

5.

Where are T cells formed?

a)

Thymus

b)

Bone marrow

c)

Liver

d)

Heart

6.

The lymph node is?

a)

acquired, adaptive, specific

b)

innate, lymph nodes, tonsils

7.

Complement proteins are in the?

a)

Liver

b)

Spleen

c)

Kidneys

d)

Small intestines

8.

Fluid in the lymphatic vessels is known as (a)   ?

9.

Most of the lymphatic trunk drains into _____; drains all of left side of upper body into junction of left ____ ____ and left ____ ____

a)

left subclavian trunk, thoracic duct, jugular trunk

b)

thoracic duct, broncho- mediastinal trunk, lymph nodes

c)

thoracic duct, internal jugular, subclavian vein

10.

Remaining trunk of lymph trunk drain into right ____ _____ that drains into junction of right ____ ____ and right ____ ____

a)

lymphatic duct, internal jugular, subclavian vein

b)

subclavian vein, internal jugular, thoracic duct

c)

thoracic duct, internal jugular, subclavian vein

11.

What percentage of interstitial fluid drains into lymphatic capillaries?

a)

5%

b)

30%

c)

10%

d)

50%

12.

Where do dietary fats go after entering lymphatic capillaries?

a)

small intestines

b)

large intestines

c)

spleen

d)

thymus

13.

Where do lymphoid organs filter pathogens?

a)

only lymph

b)

only blood

c)

both

d)

neither

14.

The capillary in small intestines is called ____ and collects ____.

a)

lacteal, fat

b)

fibers, oxygen

c)

lacteal, carbon dioxide

d)

T cells, fat

15.

The lymph vessel has ____ muscle.

a)

reticular

b)

cardiac

c)

skeletal

d)

smooth

16.

Blood vessels have no end but lymph vessels have an end.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

What type of connective tissue do lymphoid tissue have that interweave and form nets that trap disease causing pathogens?

a)

nervous

b)

reticular

c)

dendritic

18.

____ engulf foreign materials and initiate immune response.

a)

monocyte

b)

macrophages

c)

pathogens

d)

immunoglobulins

19.

What does MALT stand for?

a)

Mucosa associated lymphatic tissue

b)

Mucosa atypical leukemia tissue

c)

Mucosa associated lymphatic T-Cell

d)

Macrophage associated lymphatic tissue

20.

Choose the answer that best describes the role of the Peyer's Patch.

a)

Small masses of lmyphatic tissue that help monitor and prevent the growth of pathogenic bacteria in the small and large intestines.

b)

Loosely organized clusters of lymphoid tissue that have a wet membrane that are used to being exposed to pathogens.

c)

A hormone that helps maturing T cells

21.

The appendix is a 2 ended tube that filters and looks out for foreign things.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is found inside the lymph node?

a)

macrophages

b)

lymphocytes

c)

dendritic cells

d)

osteocytes

23.

Does the spleen detect pathogens?

a)

Yes

b)

No

24.

Does the Thymus detect pathogens?

a)

Yes

b)

No

25.

In the spleen, what type of pulp contains macrophages that destroy old erythoctyes

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

Yellow

26.

In the spleen, what kind of pulp filters pathogens from blood that contain leukocytes and dendritic cells?

a)

Red

b)

White

c)

hypersensitive

d)

cytokine

27.

The thymus secretes a hormone called thymosin. Select all that are true about this hormone.

a)

Most active in adults

b)

Most active in children

c)

Atrophy occurs when you become older

d)

by 65 we have about 2% of T cell production

28.

Which line of defense is innate, has barriers that block pathogen and is made of the skin/mucous membrane.

a)

1st line of defense

b)

2nd line of defense

c)

3rd line of defense

d)

1st and 2nd line of defense

29.

Which line of defense is innate, response to inflammation, complement proteins and antimicrobial substances.

a)

1st line of defense

b)

2nd line of defense

c)

3rd line of defense

30.

Which line of defense is adaptive/acquired immunity and has specialized lymphocytes?

a)

1st line of defense

b)

2nd line of defense

c)

3rd line of defense

d)

1st line and 3rd line of defense

31.

Which one does NOT apply to Cutaneous membranes?

a)

Slightly basic pH

b)

contain sebum

c)

several layers of epithelial tissue

32.

Pick which one is FALSE about mucous membranes

a)

made of 3-5 layers of cells

b)

lines the stomach, mouth and nose

c)

one layer of cells

d)

kills pathogens

33.

Which leukocyte responds to parasitic pathogens?

a)

Basophil

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Macrophage

34.

Which one is usually the first responder to cellular injury?

a)

neutrophil

b)

natural killer cells

c)

macrophage

d)

sinusoidal capillary

35.

Which leukocyte releases chemicals to fight off pathogens?

a)

Basophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Macrophage

d)

Lysosome

36.

Who recognizes cancerous cells and viruses

a)

Natural killer cells

b)

Basophils

c)

Dendritic cells

d)

Neutrophils

37.

Complement protein are made by

a)

kidneys

b)

lymph node

c)

spleen

d)

liver

38.

Interferons job is to?

a)

Interfere with viral replications

b)

activate other WBc's to serve as messages

c)

secrete macrophages in response to bacteria and pathogens.

39.

Interleukons are chemicals made by white blood cells to activate?

a)

natural killer cells

b)

c3b

c)

other white blood cells

d)

b cells

40.

What sets the bodies temperature back to 38 degrees celsius after a fever?

a)

bradykinin

b)

chemotaxis

c)

pyrogens

d)

thymosin

41.

Lymphedema is the dysregulation of interstitial fluid; the arms and legs are usually affected.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Check off the facts for type 1 diabetes in autoimmune disorders.

a)

pancreas cannot create insulin

b)

the immune system turns itself on itself and binds to self antigens (sees them as foreign)

c)

immune cells see pancreas as antigens therefore destroying it

d)

do not need insulin shots

43.

Check off facts about AIDS.

a)

take down lymphocytes

b)

B cells get destroyed

c)

T cells get destroyed

44.

Active immunity produces memory cells naturally or through a vaccine meaning they are protected ___?

a)

forever

b)

one time

c)

for one year only

45.

Passive immunity occurs naturally such as igG passed through mothers milk, or artificially through injection with antibodies. The memory is?

a)

one time

b)

forever

c)

never

d)

depends on the blood type

46.

Atrial Natriuretic Peptide is produced by the ___. ANP is a hormone that ___ blood pressure by increasing urination through decreasing Na+ retention in the kidneys.

a)

pulmonary trunk, increases

b)

atria, decreases

c)

atria, increases

d)

aorta, decreases

47.

The pulmonary system is on the ___ side and the system system is on the __ side

a)

right, left

b)

left, right

c)

right, right

d)

left, left

48.

Right atrium receives blood from the superior and inferior vena cava?

a)

True

b)

False

49.

The interventricular sulcus has a depression between the?

a)

right and left ventricles

b)

the atria and ventricles

50.

Vessels are ____ and arteries are ____?

a)

away from the heart, towards the heart

b)

towards the heart, away from the heart

51.

Which node is responsible for starting the heart rate in the right atrium?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

SL node

d)

Purkinje node

52.

Contractile cells pump __, pacemaker cells are responsible for __.

a)

1%, 99%

b)

99%, 1%

53.

Which one is the middle layer of the heart tissue?

a)

endocardium

b)

pericardium

c)

myocardium

54.

The endocardium is composed ___ tissue while the myocardium is composed of ___ tissue.

a)

simple squamous epithelium, dense irregular CT

b)

simple cuboidal epithelium, smooth connective tissue

55.

The left atrium is thicker than the right atrium.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Pulmonary veins drain oxygenated blood into the ___?

a)

Left ventricle

b)

Right atrium

c)

Right ventricle

d)

Left atrium

57.

What is the role of the chordae tendineae?

a)

prevent the blood from back flow

b)

contract the heart muscle

c)

hold the valve in place; provides structure

58.

The right AV valve is called the tricuspid valve and the left AV valve is called the bicuspid or mitral valve.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Pacemaker cells are found in?

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Both

d)

none

60.

Put the Action Potential phases in order:


1. Repolarization phase

2. Full depolarization phase

3. Slow initial depolarization phase

4. Minimum Potential Phase (resting)

a)

3, 2, 1, 4

b)

1, 2, 3, 4

c)

4, 1, 2, 3

d)

3, 2, 4, 1

61.

Which action potential phase is it when cation + channels open allowing Na+ to leak into the cell and K to leak out?

a)

Repolarization Phase

b)

Slow initial depolarization phase

c)

Resting potential phase

62.

Which type of junction in the intercelated discs allow for Action Potentials to pass from Pacemaker cells to Contracticle cells?

a)

Tight Junction

b)

Gap Junction

c)

Electrical Junction

63.

Put these in order for Electrophysiology of Contractile cells:


1. Repolarization phase

2. Initial repolarization phase

3. Platea phase

4. Rapid depolarization phase

a)

4, 3, 2, 1

b)

4, 2, 3, 1

c)

4, 1, 2, 3

d)

1, 4, 3, 2

64.

In the plateau phase, how many mv is the depolarization at?

a)

-20-0mv

b)

+10-0mv

c)

-10-0mv

d)

+20-0mv

65.

In the repolarization phase of Contractile cells, both Na+ and Ca+ channels return to resting state and K+ channels open at __ mv.

a)

-85mv

b)

-60mv

c)

-45mv

d)

+80mv

66.

In what stage are k+ channels open for a brief period of time in Contractile cells?

a)

stage 1. rapid depolarization

b)

stage 2. initial repolarization phase

c)

stage 3. plateau phase

d)

stage 4. repolarization phase

67.

Tetany (no contraction) occurs during which phase?

a)

Repolarization phase

b)

Slow initial depolarization phase

c)

Plateau phase

68.

P wave is the first wave that depolarizes all cells in the atria except the ____ node.

a)

SA

b)

AV

69.

The QRS complex is the place where ventricular repolarization occurs

a)

True

b)

False (depolarization)

70.

The T wave represents?

a)

ventricular depolarization

b)

ventricular repolarization

c)

plateau phase

71.

When the ventricles are relaxing, the pressure in the atria is ___ and the semilunar valves are ___.

a)

High, open

b)

High, closed

c)

Low, open

d)

Low, closed

72.

When the ventricles are relaxed, the end diastolic preload volume is at __ ML.

a)

0 ML

b)

10 ML

c)

30 ML

d)

120 ML

73.

During atrial systole (contraction), how much ML of blood is being pushed into the ventricles?

a)

100 ML

b)

80 ML

c)

120 ML

d)

20 ML

74.

Does blood stay the same during ventricular isovolumetric contraction?

a)

yes

b)

no, it goes down

c)

no, it goes up

75.

During ventricular isovolumetric contraction, what happens to the valves?

a)

they all open

b)

they all close

c)

semilunar valves open

d)

av valves open

76.

During systole ejection phase how many ML of blood are in the ventricles?

a)

70 ML

b)

60 ML

c)

30 ML

d)

10 ML

77.

During End systolic volume, how many ML of blood remain?

a)

90 ML

b)

120 ML

c)

20 ML

d)

50 ML

78.

Check off the facts of Cardiac output.

a)

Amount of blood pumped into pulmonary and systemic circuit in 1 minute

b)

determined by stroke volume x heart rate

c)

determines the percentage of red blood cells there are compared to the whole blood

d)

determined by EDV - ESV

79.

How do we determine Stroke Volume?

a)

End diastolic volume (120 ML) - End systolic Volume (50 ML) = 70 ML

b)

End systolic Volume (50 ML) - End diastolic volume (120 ML) = -70 ML

80.

Where does the coronary sinus receive blood from?

a)

pulmonary vein

b)

great cardiac vein

c)

anterior interventricular vein

81.

The P wave is the atria depolarization phase and the QRS complex is responsible for the ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization phase.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

High pressure in the pulmonary trunk and aorta make the ___ valves close.

a)

Semilunar valves

b)

Av vavles

83.

What determines the preload; length or degree of stretch of sarcomeres in ventricular cells before they contract?

a)

EDV

b)

ESV

c)

SA node

d)

AV node

84.

In the sympathetic nervous system, the hormones that increases cardiac output is?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Aldosterone

d)

Norepinephrine

85.

The parasympathetic nervous system innervates heart by the vagus nerve X and releases _____ hormone that affects SA node by decreasing its rate of action potential generation.

a)

acetylcholine

b)

epinephrine

c)

glucagon

d)

antidiuretic hormone

86.

In the sympathetic system in the Adrenal Medulla, it secrets NE and E which will cause:

a)

heart rate to go up

b)

stroke volume to go down

c)

stroke volume to go up

d)

heart rate to go down

87.

ANP decreases blood volume and preload and therefore ___ cardiac output

a)

increases

b)

decreases

88.

The hormone such as aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone increase blood volume and preload and so ___ cardiac output

a)

decrease

b)

increase

89.

If body temperature goes down then the parasympathetic will ____?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

90.

If body temperature goes up then the sympathetic will ___?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

91.

The buildup of plaques is called?

a)

coronary artery disease

b)

peripheral artery disease

c)

ischemia disease

92.

Plasma makes 55% while formed elements make 45%

a)

True

b)

False

93.

RBC count

a)

4.2-6.2 million

b)

250-400 thousand

c)

5-10 thousand

d)

100-200 million

94.

WBc count

a)

5-10 thousand

b)

250-400 thousand

95.

Platelet count:

a)

100-200 thousand

b)

250-400 thousand

c)

4.2-6.2 million

96.

Percentage of each WBC


Neutrohpil %=

Lymphocyte %=

Monocyte %=

Eosinophil %=

Basophil %=

(a)  

97.

What is the percentage of Erythrocytes in formed elements?

a)

1%

b)

45%

c)

44%

d)

15%

98.

3 leukocytic phagocytes?

a)

monocyte

b)

neutrophil

c)

basophil

d)

eosinophil

99.

Platelets are developed into megakaryocytes (thrombopoiesis) that have a life span of ____ days and are removed from circulation by the ___ and ____.

a)

7-10 days, kidney and spleen.

b)

1-3 days, liver and spleen

c)

5-7 days, liver and kidney

d)

7-10 days, liver and spleen

100.

Hemoglobin amount in woman vs men?

a)

14-18 vs 12-16 g/dL

b)

12-16 vs 14-18 g/dL

c)

24-32 vs 48-56 g/dL

101.

How long does it take for blood to start clotting?

a)

11-13 seconds

b)

1-3 seconds

c)

10-20 minutes

d)

2-5 seconds

102.

When does clotting start?

a)

Platelet plug formation

b)

Coagulation

103.

What is the life span of a RBC?

a)

100-500 days

b)

100-120 days

c)

5-7 days

d)

20-40 days

104.

In the intrinsic pathway, proteins are already found in the blood. XII (12) activates __ and ___

a)

XI (11) and IX (9)

b)

VI (6) IX (9)

105.

Calcium activates protein?

a)

11

b)

7

c)

4

d)

10

106.

During erythrocyte death, erythrocytes are trapped in sinusoids of the ___ and ___ digest them.

a)

spleen, monocytes

b)

spleen, macrophages

c)

liver, natural killer cells

d)

spleen, natural killer cells

107.

What can be reused to make new proteins?

a)

amino acids

b)

platelets

108.

Where is Bilirubin sent for excretion of bile?

a)

kidneys

b)

small intestines

c)

liver

d)

large intestines

109.

Blood clotting is a ___ feedback.

a)

positive

b)

negative

110.

Which type of capillary has no holes, is most common and has tight junctions?

a)

fenestrated

b)

continuous

c)

sinusoidal

111.

To find NFP you must subtract hydrostatic pressure form osmotic pressure.

(35mmHg-22mmHg =13 mmHg)

a)

True

b)

False

112.

Atherosclerosis is the buildup of fat, calcium and salts in the tunica ___

a)

media

b)

intima

c)

externa

113.

What type of antigen do macrophages carry? Who exocytosed into them?

a)

MHC II, neutrophils

b)

MHC I, basophils

114.

Naive B. cells that encounter their Ags become activated, B cells bind to a T _ to become fully activated.

a)

T c

b)

T h (helper cell)

115.

In innate immunity, T helper cells secrete cytokine interleukin _ and cause macrophages to produce interleukin _ in order to generate more interleukin 3 which is an example of ____ feedback regulation.

a)

2, 3, negative

b)

3, 12, positive

c)

3, 12, negative

116.

In adaptive immunity, T helper cells secrete cytokine interleukin _ that is required to activate Tc cells. T helper cells directly bind to B cells and stimulate them to proliferate and differentiate.

a)

3

b)

12

c)

6

d)

2

117.

T c cells generally interact only with class 1 or class 2 MHC molecules?

a)

MHC I (found on surface of plasma membrane on nucleated cell)

b)

MHC II ( found on surfaces of Ag presenting cells)