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Cardiovascular Health Quiz

Total questions: 117

Worksheet time: 3hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is Angina Pectoris?

a)

A condition where the heart muscle receives too much oxygen

b)

The feeling of chest discomfort due to the heart muscle not receiving enough oxygen

c)

A type of heart attack caused by complete blockage of a coronary vessel

d)

High levels of lipids in the blood

2.

Which type of angina is characterized by chest pain that occurs at rest and is considered a medical emergency?

a)

Stable Angina

b)

Unstable Angina

c)

Prinzmetal (Variant) Angina

d)

Intermittent Claudication

3.

What is the primary cause of atherosclerosis?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Narrowing of blood vessels due to fatty tumors or cholesterol plaque

c)

Lack of exercise

d)

Excessive alcohol consumption

4.

What condition is described as a group of diseases caused by atherosclerosis, leading to coronary artery disease, stroke, and peripheral artery disease?

a)

Myocardial Infarction

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (ASCVD)

d)

Peripheral Vascular Disease

5.

What is a major risk factor for atherosclerosis and ASCVD?

a)

Low blood pressure

b)

Hyperlipidemia

c)

Regular exercise

d)

Low cholesterol levels

6.

What is hypertension often called due to its difficulty in diagnosis and treatment?

a)

The silent killer

b)

The hidden threat

c)

The invisible danger

d)

The quiet menace

7.

Which condition is characterized by the heart's inability to effectively pump blood throughout the body?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart Failure

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Thrombosis

8.

What is the term for a heart rate slower than 60 beats per minute?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Arrhythmia

d)

Hypertension

9.

What do nitrates do to help relieve angina?

a)

Increase heart rate

b)

Relax smooth muscle and vasodilate

c)

Constrict blood vessels

d)

Increase blood pressure

10.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of nitrates?

a)

Severe anemia

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

11.

What is a common side effect of nitrates that usually subsides after 20 to 30 minutes?

a)

Dizziness

b)

Headaches

c)

Nausea

d)

Fatigue

12.

What is the primary function of beta-adrenergic blockers?

a)

Increase heart rate and blood pressure

b)

Block beta-adrenergic receptors to decrease heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Enhance muscle contraction

d)

Increase oxygen demand of the heart

13.

Which of the following is a nonselective beta-blocker?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Propranolol

d)

Diltiazem

14.

Why should nonselective beta-blockers be avoided in patients with asthma?

a)

They can cause hypoglycemia

b)

They can cause bronchospasm

c)

They increase heart rate

d)

They enhance muscle contraction

15.

What is a potential drug-to-drug interaction with beta-blockers?

a)

Increased effectiveness with NSAIDs

b)

Reduced antihypertensive effect with NSAIDs

c)

Enhanced effect with insulin

d)

No interaction with calcium channel blockers

16.

What do calcium channel blockers (CCBs) primarily do?

a)

Increase heart rate

b)

Inhibit the movement of calcium ions to prevent muscle contraction

c)

Enhance muscle contraction

d)

Increase blood pressure

17.

Which of the following drugs is a dihydropyridine used mainly for hypertension and angina?

a)

Diltiazem

b)

Verapamil

c)

Amlodipine

d)

Ranolazine

18.

What is a potential risk when beta-blockers are used with diltiazem and verapamil?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Severe bradycardia

c)

Enhanced heart rate

d)

Reduced drug efficacy

19.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of non-dihydropyridines?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart failure

c)

Angina

d)

Pregnancy

20.

What is the primary use of ranolazine?

a)

Acute angina

b)

Chronic stable angina

c)

Hypertension

d)

Arrhythmias

21.

Which of the following is a drug-to-drug interaction concern with ranolazine?

a)

Increased risk of hypotension

b)

Interaction with strong CYP3A inhibitors

c)

Enhanced heart rate

d)

Reduced drug absorption

22.

What is the primary action of statins in the body?

a)

Increase LDL cholesterol

b)

Block HMG-CoA reductase

c)

Increase triglycerides

d)

Decrease HDL cholesterol

23.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of statins?

a)

Active liver disease

b)

High blood pressure

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

24.

Why should grapefruit juice be avoided when taking statins?

a)

It decreases the effectiveness of statins

b)

It can increase statin levels, raising the risk of toxicity

c)

It causes an allergic reaction

d)

It reduces HDL cholesterol

25.

Which of the following is a potential serious side effect of statins that should be reported immediately?

a)

Headache

b)

Nausea

c)

Unexplained muscle pain

d)

Dizziness

26.

When is the best time to take statins for optimal effectiveness?

a)

In the morning

b)

At noon

c)

In the evening

d)

Before lunch

27.

What is the primary function of bile acid sequestrants?

a)

They increase the absorption of dietary cholesterol.

b)

They bind with bile acids in the intestine to lower LDL cholesterol levels.

c)

They enhance the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

d)

They are absorbed systemically to reduce cholesterol.

28.

Which of the following drugs is a bile acid sequestrant?

a)

Ezetimibe

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Cholestyramine

d)

Simvastatin

29.

What is a common side effect of bile acid sequestrants?

a)

Muscle pain

b)

Liver damage

c)

Gastrointestinal issues like constipation

d)

Increased blood pressure

30.

Why should caution be used when administering bile acid sequestrants during pregnancy?

a)

They are absorbed systemically.

b)

They can cause severe liver damage.

c)

They are not absorbed systemically, making them a less risky choice.

d)

They increase the risk of gallstones.

31.

How do cholesterol absorption inhibitors work?

a)

They bind with bile acids to lower cholesterol.

b)

They block the absorption of dietary cholesterol in the small intestine.

c)

They increase the production of bile acids.

d)

They enhance the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

32.

Which drug is classified as a cholesterol absorption inhibitor?

a)

Colestipol

b)

Ezetimibe

c)

Colesevelam

d)

Cholestyramine

33.

What is the primary function of injectable monoclonal antibodies that inhibit the PCSK9 enzyme?

a)

Increase triglyceride levels

b)

Lower plasma LDL levels

c)

Increase blood pressure

d)

Reduce HDL levels

34.

Which of the following drugs is included in the category of fibrates?

a)

Alirocumab

b)

Evolocumab

c)

Fenofibrate

d)

Hydrochlorothiazide

35.

What is a common side effect of fibrates?

a)

Increased blood pressure

b)

Injection site reactions

c)

Nausea and diarrhea

d)

Increased uric acid

36.

Which condition should be monitored when using fibrates with warfarin?

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

INR (International Normalized Ratio)

c)

Blood pressure

d)

LDL levels

37.

What is the purpose of diuretics?

a)

Increase triglyceride levels

b)

Reduce fluid volume, blood pressure, and edema

c)

Increase LDL levels

d)

Reduce HDL levels

38.

Which of the following is a thiazide diuretic?

a)

Alirocumab

b)

Fenofibrate

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Evolocumab

39.

What is the primary purpose of loop diuretics?

a)

To increase potassium levels

b)

To block sodium, chloride, and water reabsorption in the loop of Henle

c)

To enhance glucose absorption

d)

To reduce calcium levels

40.

Which of the following is an example of a loop diuretic?

a)

Ibuprofen

b)

Furosemide (Lasix)

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Metformin

41.

What adverse effect is associated with loop diuretics?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

Hypernatremia

d)

Hypercalcemia

42.

Why should loop diuretics be used cautiously in patients with diabetes?

a)

They decrease glucose levels

b)

They increase glucose levels

c)

They have no effect on glucose levels

d)

They stabilize glucose levels

43.

What is a potential drug interaction with loop diuretics?

a)

Increased effect of NSAIDs

b)

Decreased toxicity of Digoxin

c)

Increased lithium levels

d)

Decreased uric acid levels

44.

What is a potential adverse effect of hyperkalemia?

a)

Hyperglycemia

b)

Muscle weakness

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotension

45.

Which drug interaction increases the risk of ototoxicity?

a)

Digoxin

b)

Lithium

c)

Aminoglycoside antibiotics (gentamicin)

d)

NSAIDs

46.

What is the purpose of potassium-sparing diuretics?

a)

Increase sodium reabsorption

b)

Retain potassium while reducing sodium and water reabsorption

c)

Increase water retention

d)

Decrease potassium levels

47.

Which of the following is an example of a potassium-sparing diuretic?

a)

Furosemide

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Hydrochlorothiazide

d)

Metoprolol

48.

What should be monitored when administering potassium-sparing diuretics?

a)

Blood glucose levels

b)

Heart rate

c)

I&O, daily weight, electrolytes, BP

d)

Respiratory rate

49.

What is a potential risk when using ACE inhibitors or ARBs?

a)

Increased risk of hyperkalemia

b)

Decreased risk of hyperkalemia

c)

Increased risk of hypokalemia

d)

Decreased risk of hypokalemia

50.

Which type of diuretics are known to save potassium?

a)

Potassium-sparing diuretics

b)

Thiazide diuretics

c)

Loop diuretics

d)

NSAIDs

51.

What should patients avoid if they are at risk of hyperkalemia?

a)

Foods high in potassium

b)

Foods low in potassium

c)

Foods high in sodium

d)

Foods low in sodium

52.

What is the primary purpose of vasodilators?

a)

Relax vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure

b)

Increase vascular smooth muscle to raise blood pressure

c)

Relax vascular smooth muscle to increase blood pressure

d)

Increase vascular smooth muscle to lower blood pressure

53.

Which of the following is a contraindication for vasodilators?

a)

Coronary artery disease

b)

Diabetes

c)

Asthma

d)

Hyperthyroidism

54.

What is the primary purpose of beta blockers?

a)

Increase heart rate

b)

Reduce heart rate, BP, myocardial oxygen demand

c)

Increase myocardial oxygen demand

d)

Block calcium channels

55.

Which of the following is a nonselective beta blocker?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Atenolol

c)

Propranolol

d)

Bisoprolol

56.

Why should nonselective beta blockers be avoided in patients with asthma?

a)

They cause hypoglycemia

b)

They cause bronchospasm

c)

They increase heart rate

d)

They reduce antihypertensive effect

57.

Which drug interaction can lead to severe bradycardia or heart block when combined with beta blockers?

a)

NSAIDs

b)

Insulin

c)

Calcium channel blockers

d)

Antihistamines

58.

What characterizes Stage A of heart failure according to ACC/AHA classifications?

a)

Structural heart disease with symptoms

b)

High risk for heart failure with no symptoms and no structural heart disease

c)

Structural heart disease with no symptoms

d)

Heart failure with severe symptoms

59.

What is the treatment for Stage C heart disease?

a)

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, beta blockers

b)

Advanced therapies (LVAD, transplant)

c)

Lifestyle changes only

d)

Surgery

60.

Which NYHA class involves marked limitation of physical activity but comfort at rest?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

61.

What is the purpose of a Chest X-Ray (CXR) in heart failure?

a)

To measure blood pressure

b)

To show heart size and pulmonary congestion

c)

To assess kidney function

d)

To evaluate liver enzymes

62.

Which stage of heart disease is associated with severe symptoms at rest despite therapy?

a)

Stage A

b)

Stage B

c)

Stage C

d)

Stage D

63.

What is BNP and when is it released?

a)

A hormone released from the liver during stress

b)

A hormone released from the ventricles when stretched from fluid overload

c)

A protein released from muscles during exercise

d)

A vitamin released from the kidneys during dehydration

64.

What does a high BNP level indicate in heart failure?

a)

Improvement in heart failure

b)

Worsening heart failure

c)

No change in heart failure

d)

Unrelated to heart failure

65.

Which lab test is used to assess cholesterol for CAD risk?

a)

Albumin test

b)

Electrolyte panel

c)

Lipid panel

d)

Blood glucose test

66.

What is the therapeutic action of Digoxin?

a)

Increases heart rate

b)

Slows the heart rate

c)

Decreases muscle contraction

d)

Increases blood pressure

67.

Before administering Digoxin, what should be checked?

a)

Blood pressure for 1 full minute

b)

Apical pulse for 1 full minute

c)

Respiratory rate for 1 full minute

d)

Temperature for 1 full minute

68.

What is the therapeutic range for digoxin levels?

a)

0.5-2 ng/mL

b)

1-3 ng/mL

c)

2-4 ng/mL

d)

0.1-0.5 ng/mL

69.

Which of the following is a contraindication for digoxin use?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Hypertension

c)

Diabetes

d)

Asthma

70.

What adverse effect is associated with phosphodiesterase inhibitors like Milrinone?

a)

Arrhythmias

b)

Nausea

c)

Headache

d)

Rash

71.

How do phosphodiesterase inhibitors affect heart cells?

a)

Increase calcium, leading to stronger contractions

b)

Decrease calcium, leading to weaker contractions

c)

Increase potassium, leading to stronger contractions

d)

Decrease potassium, leading to weaker contractions

72.

What is a common symptom of tachycardia?

a)

Fatigue

b)

Palpitations

c)

Syncope

d)

Headache

73.

Which condition is a contraindication for certain cardiac medications?

a)

Hypotension

b)

Severe valvular heart disease

c)

Headache

d)

Dizziness

74.

What should be monitored continuously due to the risk of arrhythmias?

a)

Blood sugar

b)

ECG

c)

Temperature

d)

Oxygen levels

75.

What is a cause of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)?

a)

Fever

b)

Hypoxia

c)

Anemia

d)

Stress

76.

What is the heart rate range for bradycardia?

a)

HR > 100 bpm

b)

HR < 60 bpm

c)

HR 60-100 bpm

d)

HR 80-120 bpm

77.

What is the typical atrial rate range for Atrial Flutter?

a)

100-150 bpm

b)

250-350 bpm

c)

400-450 bpm

d)

150-200 bpm

78.

Which of the following is a symptom of Atrial Fibrillation?

a)

Regular pulse

b)

Increased energy

c)

Irregular pulse

d)

Decreased stroke risk

79.

What should be monitored continuously when administering antiarrhythmic drugs?

a)

Blood sugar levels

b)

ECG rhythm

c)

Body temperature

d)

Cholesterol levels

80.

Which electrolyte imbalance can increase the risk of arrhythmia?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Iron

d)

Calcium

81.

What is a potential adverse effect of Amiodarone Hydrochloride?

a)

Increased appetite

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Improved vision

d)

Weight gain

82.

What class of drug is Amiodarone Hydrochloride?

a)

Class I Antiarrhythmic

b)

Class II Antiarrhythmic

c)

Class III Antiarrhythmic

d)

Class IV Antiarrhythmic

83.

What class of drug is used as a Na+ channel blocker for ventricular arrhythmias?

a)

Class Ia Antiarrhythmic

b)

Class Ib Antiarrhythmic

c)

Class Ic Antiarrhythmic

d)

Class II Antiarrhythmic

84.

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of the Class Ib Antiarrhythmic drug?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hyperactivity

d)

Insomnia

85.

What is the primary use of Propranolol (Inderal)?

a)

Treating diabetes

b)

Managing hypertension

c)

Curing infections

d)

Reducing cholesterol

86.

Which adverse effect should be avoided in patients with asthma when using Propranolol?

a)

Bradycardia

b)

Bronchospasm

c)

Fatigue

d)

Depression

87.

What is the therapeutic use of Propranolol in relation to migraines?

a)

Increases migraine frequency

b)

Stabilizes vascular tone

c)

Causes migraine

d)

Increases blood pressure

88.

What is a potential risk when using calcium channel blockers like verapamil and diltiazem?

a)

Increased risk of bradycardia and heart block

b)

Increased risk of hypoglycemia

c)

Increased risk of hypertension

d)

Increased risk of migraines

89.

Which condition is propranolol not recommended for due to its effects?

a)

Asthma

b)

Hypertension

c)

Migraines

d)

Arrhythmias

90.

What is the primary therapeutic use of diltiazem in treating angina?

a)

Relaxes coronary arteries and improves oxygen delivery

b)

Increases heart rate

c)

Increases blood pressure

d)

Causes bronchoconstriction

91.

How does diltiazem affect the heart rate?

a)

Slows heart rate (negative chronotropic)

b)

Increases heart rate

c)

Has no effect on heart rate

d)

Causes arrhythmias

92.

What should patients be educated about when taking medications like propranolol?

a)

Not stopping the medication suddenly

b)

Increasing the dosage without consultation

c)

Avoiding all physical activity

d)

Taking the medication only at night

93.

What are some adverse effects of the medication mentioned in the document?

a)

Increased appetite, insomnia

b)

Bradycardia, hypotension

c)

Weight gain, hyperactivity

d)

Fever, rash

94.

Which of the following is a contraindication for the medication?

a)

Mild headache

b)

Severe bradycardia

c)

Seasonal allergies

d)

Mild dehydration

95.

What should patients avoid consuming while on this medication?

a)

Orange juice

b)

Grapefruit juice

c)

Apple juice

d)

Cranberry juice

96.

What is the therapeutic use of Entresto (Sacubitril/Valsartan)?

a)

Treats diabetes

b)

Reduces anxiety

c)

Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction

d)

Cures infections

97.

What is the mechanism of action of Sacubitril?

a)

Inhibits neprilysin leading to increased natriuretic peptides

b)

Blocks angiotensin II leading to decreased vasoconstriction

c)

Increases blood pressure by vasoconstriction

d)

Decreases natriuresis by inhibiting aldosterone

98.

Why should Sacubitril not be taken with ACE inhibitors?

a)

Increases risk of hypertension

b)

Increases risk of angioedema

c)

Decreases risk of renal failure

d)

Decreases risk of hyperkalemia

99.

What is a common adverse effect of Sacubitril?

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Increased heart rate

d)

Hyperglycemia

100.

What is the primary cause of angina pectoris?

a)

Increased blood flow to the heart muscle

b)

Reduced blood flow (ischemia) to the heart muscle

c)

Increased oxygen supply to the heart

d)

Decreased heart rate

101.

Which medication is commonly prescribed to reduce fluid overload in patients with heart failure?

a)

Spironolactone

b)

Atorvastatin

c)

Metoprolol

d)

Ezetimibe

102.

What is a common side effect of thiazide diuretics?

a)

Hyperkalemia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Hyperglycemia

103.

Which class of drugs is primarily used to lower LDL cholesterol levels?

a)

Beta-blockers

b)

Calcium channel blockers

c)

Statins

d)

Loop diuretics

104.

A patient with hypertension is prescribed Atenolol. What should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness if the need?

a)

Heart rate

b)

Blood Pressure and Heart Rate

c)

Liver function and Potassium levels

d)

Blood Pressure and O2 Sat

105.

A patient with COPD can take Atenolol.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

What needs to be monitored on a diabetic patient taking Metoprolol?

a)
Blood glucose levels, blood pressure, and heart rate.
b)
Skin condition, vision changes, and hearing ability.
c)
Weight, dietary intake, and exercise frequency.
d)
Cholesterol levels, liver function, and kidney function.
107.

A patient presents with symptoms of tachycardia, hypertension, and dilated pupils. Which part of the autonomic system is stimulated?

a)
Parasympathetic nervous system
b)
Central nervous system
c)
Sympathetic nervous system
d)
Enteric nervous system
108.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of Asthma who is prescribed Propanolol. What is the most important to assess?

a)
Assess the patient's blood pressure.
b)
Assess the patient's heart rate.
c)
Assess the patient's dietary habits.
d)

Assess the patient for signs of bronchospasms.

109.

A patient on Warfarin is scheduled for surgery. What action should you take to manage the risk of bleeding?

a)
Continue Warfarin without changes
b)
Administer aspirin before surgery
c)
Increase Warfarin dosage prior to surgery
d)

Administer Vitamin K before surgery

110.

What should the iron level be for a patient on Warfarin (Coumadin)?

a)

2-3

b)

above 120 mcg/dL.

c)

0.5-2.0

d)
Iron level should be between 50-100 mcg/dL.
111.

A nurse is reviewing a patients medication lists and notes the absence of an alpha-1 adgrengic blocker. What should the nurse monitor for?

a)
Decreased heart rate and increased appetite.
b)
Lowered blood sugar levels and fatigue.
c)
Increased respiratory rate and insomnia.
d)

Decreased blood pressure

112.

A nurse is administering Digoxin, lab value 0.5-2.0, to a patient with heart failure. What parameter is crucial to check before adminstration?

a)

Radial pulse for 60 seconds

b)

Respiratory rate for 60 seconds

c)

Apical pulse for 60 seconds

d)

Temperature for 60 seconds

113.

A nurse is caring for a patient on Digoxin (Lanoxin). What are the signs of toxicity?

a)
Headache, dizziness, rash
b)
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, confusion, blurred vision, yellow-green halos, and arrhythmias.
c)
Dry mouth, insomnia
d)
Increased appetite, weight gain
114.

If a patient is on heparin, what lab value would you monitor for?

a)
Prothrombin time (PT)
b)
International normalized ratio (INR)
c)
Platelet count
d)

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and partial thromboplastin (PTT)

115.

What is the antidote for Digoxin (Lanoxin)?

a)
Digoxin immune fab (Digibind)
b)
Activated charcoal
c)
Atropine
d)
Calcium gluconate
116.

What is the antidote for Heparin?

a)
Vitamin K
b)
Calcium gluconate
c)
Protamine sulfate
d)
Aspirin
117.

When caring for a patient on Heparin infusion, what labs should you run?

a)
Prothrombin Time (PT) and INR
b)
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
c)
Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
d)

Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aTT) and partial thromboplastin (PTT)

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