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Cell & Molecular Biology Test Prep

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Shuttles proteins and lipids to various locations such as the Golgi apparatus
a)
Secretory Vesicles
b)
Transport Vesicles
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Peroxisomes
2.
Modifies lipids and proteins from the ER; sorts them and packages them in vesicles
a)
Smooth ER
b)
Rough ER
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Golgi Apparatus
3.
Synthesizes lipids, stores calcium, detoxifies drugs and poisons
a)
Rough ER
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Peroxisomes
4.
Synthesizes proteins and packages them in vesicles; vesicles commonly go to the Golgi Apparatus
a)
Rough ER
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
5.
Fuse with the plasma membrane
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Secretory Vesicles
d)
Transport Vesicles
6.
Site of protein synthesis
a)
Ribosome
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleolus
7.
Found in plants only; made of cellulose
a)
Cell Membrane
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Centriole
d)
Cell Wall
8.
Goo found between the nucleus and cell membrane
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Cytosol
c)
Cortisol
d)
Centriole
9.
Synthesizes proteins that function in the cytosol
a)
Bound Ribosome on ER
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Free Ribosome
d)
Nucleolus
10.
Attached to the outside of the Rough ER
a)
Centrioles
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Lysosomes
d)
Peroxisomes
11.
Produces ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and assembles the two subunits of a ribosome
a)
Nucleolus
b)
Nucleus
c)
Cytosol
d)
Centriole
12.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the endomembrane system?
a)
Compartmentalization (creates different areas in the cell which do different things)
b)
Detoxification
c)
Protein modification and transportation of proteins
d)
Creation of ATP (energy)
13.
What is the function of the vesicle?
a)
Storage of water and nutrients
b)
Receives, modifies, and ships out proteins
c)
Transports ribosomes
d)
Transports proteins in a small bubble like package
14.
A chemical that binds to a surface protein in a cell membrane, but does not enter the cell is called:
a)
Surface antigen
b)
Protein receptor
c)
Ligand
d)
Carbohydrate chai
15.
If you break off two phosphate groups from an ATP molecule, what does it become?
a)
Inactivated
b)
Protein Kinase
c)
Phosphorylated
d)
cAMP
16.
When a food particle is absorbed into a cell from the external environment, this process is called:
a)
Exocytosis
b)
Endocytosis
17.

What does the rough ER do?

a)

Transports and modifies proteins

b)

Transports and modifies lipids

c)

Transports and modifies carbohydrates

d)

Secretes proteins out of the cell

18.

What does the smooth ER do?

a)

Transports and modifies proteins

b)

Secretes proteins out the cell

c)

Transports and modifies lipids

d)

Moves proteins around the inside of the cell

19.

What does the golgi body do?

a)

Receives proteins from vesicles, tags them, then secretes them out of the cell.

b)

Makes proteins and moves them around the cell.

c)

Makes lipids and moves them around the cell.

d)

Receives vesicles from outside of the cell and destroys their contents with enzymes.

20.

What is the correct order for the endomembrane system journey:

a)

Ribosome --> smooth ER --> vesicle --> lysosome

b)

Ribosome --> rough ER --> vesicle --> golgi body --> vesicle --> outside of the cell

c)

Ribosome --> golgi body --> smooth ER --> vesicle --> rough ER

d)

Ribosome --> rough ER --> golgi body --> outside of the cell

21.

Cells with lots of golgi bodies are doing lots of:

a)

Secretion

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Respiration

d)

Mitosis

22.

An example of an animal cell that does lots of secretion is:

a)

Red blood cell

b)

Hair cell

c)

Bone cell

d)

Stomach cell

23.

What do lysosomes do?

a)

Break down things the cell wants to get rid of using enzymes

b)

Move proteins around the inside of the cell

c)

Prepare proteins for secretion out of the cell

d)

Make lipids and transports them around the cell

24.

What are some typical things a cell would use its lysosome to break down and get rid of? Select all that apply:

a)

Old mitochiondria

b)

Bacteria that are trying to invade

c)

Proteins it wants to secrete

d)

Large food particles it has ingested

25.
A enzyme that is used in the membrane would move from the Golgi to the _____________ in a vesicle.
a)
Lysosome
b)
Ribosome
c)
Rough ER
d)
plasma membrane
26.
Contains digestive enzymes that can break down worn out cell parts and invading bacteria.
a)
Ribosome
b)
Lysosome
c)
Getyasome
d)
Peroxisome
27.

Which organelle makes ribosomes?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Vacuole

d)

Golgi Body

28.

Which organelle acts like a cellular stomach and degrades things?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Vacuole

d)

Vesicle

29.

A cross section of part of a Golgi complex is shown. Part of the membrane of the Golgi complex pinches off and moves away. Which of the following is a function of this process?

a)

to release energy from ATP

b)

to deliver proteins to other locations in the cell

c)

to collect amino acids for use in protein synthesis

d)

to sent messages about cell requirements to the nucleus

30.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the endomembrane system?
a)
Compartmentalization (creates different areas in the cell which do different things)
b)
Detoxification
c)
Protein modification and transportation of proteins
d)
Creation of ATP (energy)
31.

The endomembrane system includes...

a)

Ribosomes, Vesicles, Large Central Vacuole, Cell Membrane

b)

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, Ribosomes,Mitochondrion, Cell Membrane

c)

Lysosomes, Ribosomes, Golgi, Smooth ER, Vacuoles

d)

Ribosomes, Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, Vesicles, Golgi

32.

In cell signaling, how is the flow of specific ions

regulated?

a)

Opening and closing of ligand-gated channels

b)

Transduction

c)

Cytoskeleton rearrangement

d)

Endocytosis

33.

Many signal transduction pathways use second messengers to:

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer portion of the plasma membrane.

b)

relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell.

c)

relay the message from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm.

d)

amplify the message by phosphorylating proteins.

34.

Which of the following can activate a protein by transferring a phosphate group to it?

a)

cAMP

b)

G proteins

c)

phosphodiesterase

d)

protein kinase

35.

Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to

a)

the active site of an enzyme in the cytoplasm that binds to a specific substrate.

b)

RNA specifying the amino acids in a polypeptide.

c)

genes making up a chromosome.

d)

an enzyme with an optimal pH and temperature for activity.

36.

What could happen to the target cells in an animal that lack receptors for local regulators?

a)

They could compensate by receiving nutrients via an α factor.

b)

They could develop normally in response to neurotransmitters instead.

c)

They could divide but never reach full size.

d)

They would not be able to multiply in response to growth factors from nearby cells.

37.
A signal molecule that binds to a plasma-membrane protein is a
a)
ligand
b)
second messenger
c)
protein kinase
d)
receptor protein
38.
What is a G protein?
a)
specific type of membrane-receptor protein
b)
protein on the cytoplasmic side of a membrane
c)
membrane-bound enzyme
d)
relay protein
39.
Which of the following is a chemical message that usually travels through the bloodstream to target cells?
a)
hormone
b)
local regulator
c)
endocrine cell
40.
The 3 steps of signal transduction in order are
a)
reception, transduction, response
b)
response, transduction, reception
c)
reception, response, transduction
d)
transduction, reception, response
41.

This is an example of

a)

paracrine signaling

b)

endocrine signaling

c)

autocrine signaling

d)

juxtacrine signaling

42.

Which letter represents the cell surface receptor protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

43.

Which letter represents the ligand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

44.

Which letter represents the ligand?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

45.
Which of the following would be an example of paracrine signaling in animals?
a)
neurotransmitter acetylcholine
b)
hormone epinephrine
c)
neurotransmitter norepinephrine
d)
growth factor
46.
What do second messengers do?
a)
transport a signal through the lipid bilayer
b)
relay a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell
c)
relay message from the inside of the mebrane throughout the cytoplasm
d)
dampen the message
47.
Signal amplification is most often achieved by
a)
an enzyme cascade
b)
binding of multiple signals
c)
branching pathways
d)
action of adenylyl cyclase
48.
What does a protein kinase do?
a)
removes phosphates
b)
transfers phosphates from ATP to proteins
c)
activates an enzyme
49.
What is a phosphorylation cascade?
a)
travelling of hormones through the air
b)
travelling of hormones through the blood
c)
the removal of a phosphate
d)
a series of molecules that get phosphorylated
50.
What determines whether a cell is a target cell for a particular signal molecule?
a)
phosphorylation cascade
b)
cAMP
c)
signal receptors
d)
phosphatase
51.
Do plant cells communicate using hormones?
a)
yes
b)
no
52.

Which part of the cell is made up of a network of filaments that maintains the cell structure?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Vacuoles

53.

Which filaments are built from molecules of protein actin?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Microfilaments

c)

Intermediate filaments

d)

Cilia and flagella

54.

Channels that perforate plant cell wall

a)

Plasmodesmata

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Gap junctions

55.

Which of the following is the main function of intermediate filaments?

a)

Cytoplasmic streaming

b)

Cellular motility

c)

Separate chromosomes in dividing cells

d)

Fix organelles in place

56.

Intermediate filaments are found in what structure?

a)

The mitotic spindle

b)

Desmosomes

c)

Cilia

d)

Centrosome

57.

Breakdown of molecules one of life processes in eukaryotic cells, which involves

a)

Lysosomes

b)

Peroxisomes

c)

Vacuoles

d)

All of the above

58.

Structural support, movement and communication of the cell involve:

a)

Cytoskeleton

b)

Plasma membrane

c)

Cell wall

d)

All of the above

59.

Microfilaments play major role in:

a)

Formation of nuclear lamina

b)

Cleavage furrow

c)

Chromosomes movements

d)

All of the above

60.

Motion of flagella is not:

a)

Covers freshwater protozoan Colpidium

b)

Driving cell in the same direction

c)

Snake like

d)

Powered by ATP

61.

One of the following is composed of actin subunit:

a)

Microtubules

b)

Intermediate filaments

c)

Microfilaments

d)

All of the above

62.

Which of the following is microfilaments function?

a)

Chromosomes movements

b)

Cleavage furrow formation

c)

Formation of nuclear lamina

d)

None of the above

63.

Which of the following is microtubule function?

a)

Chromosomes movements

b)

Cleavage furrow formation

c)

Formation of nuclear lamina

d)

None of the above

64.

Which of the following is correct regarding cilia characteristic?

a)

Drive the cell in the same direction

b)

Contains dynein protein

c)

Can slide far

d)

Snake like movements

65.

Peroxisomes function is involved in:

a)

Manufacturing process

b)

Breakdown of molecules process

c)

Energy processing

d)

Structural support, movement and communication

66.

Which of the following intercellular junction contains keratin?

a)

Tight junction

b)

Gap junction

c)

Desmosomes

d)

All of the above

67.

Which cellular junction is not found in animal cell?

a)

Tight junction

b)

Desmosomes

c)

Gap Junction

d)

Plasmodesmata

68.

Which of the following is found in the nucleus of animal cells?

a)

Microtubules

b)

Actin filaments

c)

Microfilaments

d)

Intermediate filaments

69.

Which of the following are found only in animal cells?

a)

Intermediate filaments

b)

Microtubules

c)

Nucleus

d)

Microfilaments

70.

Microtubules are formed of the protein ……..

a)

Dynein

b)

Keratin

c)

Tubulin

d)

Actin

71.

Cytoskeletal filaments are polymers of ………

a)

Ribonucleic acid

b)

Protein

c)

Deoxyribonucleic acids

d)

Carbohydrates

72.

What of the following is mismatch with microfilaments functions?

a)

muscle contractions

b)

cytoplasmic streaming

c)

chromosome movements

d)

cell motility

73.

What of the following is mismatch with tight junctions?

a)

forming continuous seals around the cells.

b)

prevent leakage of extracellular fluid.

c)

small molecules and ions pass through.

d)

connect epithelial cells.

74.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
75.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
76.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
77.
What part of the cell cycle results in the splitting of the new cells?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
78.
True or False. 
After a cell goes through cytokinesis, it starts mitosis all over again.
a)
True
b)
False
79.
True or False.
Mitosis is a continuous process.
a)
True
b)
False
80.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
81.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
82.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
83.
What part of the cell cycle is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Cytokinesis
84.
What is the longest phase in MITOSIS?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
85.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
86.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
87.

Select ALL stages of Interphase

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

88.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the cell grow in size?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

89.

In which stage of the cell cycle does the DNA replicate?

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

Mitosis

90.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromatin condenses and spindle fibers form at each side of the cell. The chromosomes begin to form and nuclear membrane disappears.

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

91.

The following describes_________________________ during mitosis. The chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell and the spindle fibers attach to each chromosome at the centromere.

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

telophase

92.

How many chromosomes do human somatic cells (body cells) have?

a)

23

b)

48

c)

46

d)

92

93.

When you start with 1 cell, at the end of mitosis, how many identical cells will you have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

94.

After meiosis is complete how many cells will there be?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

95.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
96.
Put the following stages of the cell cycle in order: G2, S, G1, M. 
a)
G1, S, G2, M
b)
S, G1, G2, M
c)
G1, M, G2, S
d)
M, G1, S, G2
97.
Put the following in order: G2, G1, S, mitosis, cytokinesis. 
a)
G1, G2, S, Mitosis, cytokinesis
b)
G1, S, G2, Mitosis, cytokinesis
c)
G1, G2, S, cytokinesis, mitosis
d)
G1, S, G2, cytokinesis, mitosis
98.

Cancer cells:

a)

Lose the ability to divide

b)

Divide more slowly than normal cells

c)

Spend less time in Interphase

d)

Spend less time in mitosis/cytokinesis

99.

Which cancer mutation is similar to the brakes of a car

a)

Tumor Suppressor genes

b)

Proto-oncogenes

100.

Normal cells become cancer when

a)

regulation of cell growth and division occurs

b)

cells do not respond to checkpoints of the cell cycle

c)

cells respond to control mechanisms

d)

cell pass through G1

101.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
102.
Which type of cancer treatment works best for when cancer has metastasized around the body?
a)
Chemotherapy
b)
Radiation Treatments
c)
Hormones Treatments
d)
Surgery
103.
Programmed cell death is called
a)
apoptosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
interphase
d)
cancer
104.

What is the purpose the the cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

To repair damaged cells before they enter cell division.

b)

To remove damaged cells from an organism.

105.

How many cell cycle checkpoints are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

106.

What is the first checkpoint of the cell cycle?

a)

Mitosis checkpoint

b)

G1 checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

107.

When is apoptosis initiated?

a)

When DNA damage is repaired.

b)

When cells are removed from the cell cycle.

c)

When DNA damage cannot be repaired.

108.
Uncontrolled cell division is stopped by...
a)
tumor suppressor genes
b)
oncogenes
109.
Which is an example of a tumor suppressor gene?
a)
apoptosis
b)
proto-oncogenes
c)
p53
d)
oncogenes
110.
Normal cell division is regulated by...
a)
Proto-oncogenes
b)
oncogenes
111.
Proto-oncogenes can mutate into...
a)
oncogenes
b)
tumor suppressor genes
c)
DNA repair proteins
112.
Oncogenes cause super-accelerated
a)
apoptosis
b)
mitosis
113.
This is the cell cycle checkpoint that makes sure environmental conditions are ideal for cell survival.
a)
G1 Checkpoint
b)
G2 Checkpoint
c)
M Checkpoint
d)
I Checkpoint
114.
The checkpoints that regulate the cell cycle can fail when ____ becomes damaged.
a)
DNA 
b)
Cell Membrane
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Ribosomes
115.

Name the 3 checkpoints of the cell cycle

a)

Anaphase checkpoint, mitosis/metaphase checkpoint, and telophase checkpoint

b)

Interphase checkpoint, S phase checkpoint, and M phase checkpoint

c)

G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and S phase checkpoint

d)

G1 checkpoint, G2 checkpoint, and mitosis/metaphase checkpoint

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