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Bio exam 1

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

a)

population, ecosystem, organism, community

b)

organism, population, community, ecosystem

c)

community, ecosystem, organism, population

d)

organism, community, population, ecosystem

e)

ecosystem, community, population, organism

2.

The specific abiotic factors defining a biome are ____.
I) annual variation in temperature and precipitation
II) average annual temperature and moisture levels
III) maximum annual temperature and moisture levels
IV) maximum annual temperatures, moisture levels, and average annual temperature

a)

only I, II, and IV

b)

only II, III, and IV

c)

only III and IV

d)

only I, II, and III

e)

only I and II

3.

The total amount of water on the Earth ____ from year to year and the hydrologic cycle ____.  

a)

stays about the same; moves it from one place to another place

b)

increases; captures it from the incoming solar radiation

c)

decreases; moves it into the atmosphere

d)

increases; gains water from the Earth's interior

e)

decreases; moves it from one place to another place

4.

The hydrologic compartment that contains the greatest amount of fresh water is ____.

a)

ice and snow

b)

clouds in the atmosphere

c)

groundwater

d)

the Great Lakes

e)

living organisms and biomass

5.

What would happen to the seasons if the Earth were tilted 35 degrees off its orbital plane instead of the usual 23.5 degrees?

a)

Winters and summers would be less severe.

b)

The seasons would be shorter.

c)

No change would happen to the seasons

d)

Winters and summers would be more severe.

e)

The seasons would disappear.

6.

Which of the following biomes has the highest variation in annual temperature?

a)

boreal forests or taiga

b)

temperate forests

c)

arctic tundra

d)

temperate grasslands

e)

subtropical deserts

7.

An ecosystems ecologist studies sockeye salmon. Which of the following variables of study are relevant at this level?

a)

Presence of ticks and associated diseases in Canada due to climate change

b)

Number of eggs produced by females

c)

Prey species in gut contents of salmon

d)

Decomposition rate of salmon in different streams

e)

Migration pathways of individuals

8.

As global warming continues, scientists predict that the range of the sugar maple tree will ____.  

a)

migrate northward

b)

expand dramatically

c)

remain basically unchanged

d)

shrink or become extinct

e)

lead to speciation

9.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?  

a)

An average monthly temperature increase of as little as 1 ºC can cause plants to bloom several days earlier than average.

b)

The average first-flowering date for summer-blooming plants is occurring later than it did 50 years ago.

c)

The average first-flowering date for spring-blooming plants has been unaffected by warming temperatures.

d)

Plants that are blossoming earlier are also keeping their blossoms longer.

e)

Early blooming is likely only occurring in a few tree species.

10.

The increase in carbon dioxide levels correlates with an increase in Earth’s ____.

a)

ozone layer

b)

surface temperature

c)

number of El Niños

d)

snow-covered areas

e)

volcanic activity

11.

Why is energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers?

a)

Most primary producers contain no usable energy for herbivores.

b)

Primary producers have energy stored in indigestible substances.

c)

Digestion takes place so rapidly that very little energy is absorbed.

d)

There is no energy lost when herbivores eat primary producers.

e)

Primary producers cannot produce once eaten.

12.

Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities?

a)

predation, competition

b)

temperature, water

c)

precipitation, wind

d)

nutrient availability, soil pH

e)

light intensity, seasonality

13.

An organism is a keystone species if ____. 

a)

it is the most abundant species in a community.

b)

its loss would increase the population of other species.

c)

it is important for pollination.

d)

it is important for the survival of angiosperms.

e)

its loss would negatively impact a specific community and ecosystem.

14.

Which of the following is primarily responsible for limiting the number of trophic levels in most ecosystems?

a)

Nutrient cycles involve both abiotic and biotic components of ecosystems.

b)

Many primary and higher-order consumers are opportunistic feeders.

c)

Decomposers compete with higher-order consumers for nutrients and energy.

d)

Energy transfer between trophic levels is usually less than 20 percent efficient.

e)

Nutrient cycling rates tend to be limited by decomposition.

15.

Which of the following consume other living organisms?
I)     primary producers
II)     herbivores
III)    carnivores
IV)    decomposers

a)

only I and IV

b)

only I, II, and III

c)

only II and III

d)

only II, III, and IV

e)

only I, II, and IV

16.

Why would a plant species go extinct but an animal species survive when temperature change alters a habitat?   

a)

Animals evolve more quickly than plants.

b)

Animals are more mobile than plants.

c)

Plants are less tolerant of rapid temperature changes.

d)

This statement is not true for all known plant and animal species.

e)

Animals are more adaptable than plants.

17.

Which plant grouping relies heavily on bee or insect pollination?   

a)

gymnosperms

b)

mosses

c)

angiosperms

d)

ferns

e)

bryophytes

18.

The Aleutian Islands are an island chain in Alaska. All of the polar bears, seals, fish species, whales, seabirds and Aleuts in the Aleutian Islands make up a(n) ____.

a)

tribe

b)

community

c)

island ecosystem

d)

island system population

e)

population

19.

The competitive exclusion principle states that ____.

a)

two species with the same niche will constantly be competing for resources

b)

it is not possible for two species with the same niche to coexist in the same region

c)

it is not possible for two species to compete for the same resources

d)

two species are infectious biological agents using the same host species

e)

two species with different niches will not compete for the same resources

20.

Detritivores ____.

a)

may be autotrophic or heterotrophic

b)

secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into carbon dioxide and water

c)

convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers

d)

synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers

e)

recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers

21.

Some birds follow moving swarms of army ants in the tropics. As the ants march along the forest floor hunting insects and small vertebrates, birds follow and pick off any insects or small vertebrates that fly or jump out of the way of the ants. This situation is an example of what kind of species interaction between the birds and the ants?

a)

commensalism

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

consumption

e)

cooperation

22.

Which species interaction depends on prey density and effectiveness of prey defenses to determine the impact on the prey population?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Facilitation

c)

Mutualism

d)

Competition

e)

Consumption

23.

Which would be the best way to directly test the hypothesis that Chthamalus stellatus (a species of barnacle) is competitively excluded from the lower intertidal zone by Semibalanus balanoides (another species of barnacle)?

a)

Remove all S. balanoides from the lower intertidal zone.

b)

Remove all C. stellatus from the upper tidal zone.

c)

Place individuals of each species in a jar and see which species survives.

d)

Clear rocks in an entire area and document recolonization events.

e)

Transplant S. balanoides to the upper intertidal zone.

24.

The symbols +, -, and o are to be used to show the results of interactions between individuals and groups of individuals in the examples that follow. The symbol + denotes a positive interaction, - denotes a negative interaction, and o denotes where individuals are not affected by interacting. The first symbol refers to the first organism mentioned. What interactions exist between a lion pride and a hyena pack?

a)

+/+

b)

+/-

c)

-/-

d)

+/o

e)

 

o/o

25.

As you study two closely related predatory insect species, the two-spot and the three-spot avenger beetles, you notice that each species seeks prey at dawn in areas without the other species. However, where their ranges overlap, the two-spot avenger beetle hunts at night and the three-spot hunts in the morning. When you bring them into the laboratory and isolate the two different species, you discover that the offspring of both species are found to be nocturnal. You have discovered an example of _____.

a)

resource partitioning

b)

pathogenic mutualism

c)

character displacement

d)

facultative commensalism

e)

Batesian mimicry

26.

A population is correctly defined as having which of the following characteristics?

I) inhabiting the same general area

II) belonging to the same species

III) possessing a constant and uniform density and dispersion

a)

I and II only

b)

I only

c)

III only

d)

I, II, and III

e)

II and III only

27.

An ecologist recorded twelve white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square kilometer in one woodlot and twenty per square kilometer in another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?

a)

carrying capacity

b)

range

c)

dispersion

d)

cohorts

e)

density

28.

Which of the following choices would most likely promote random distribution?

a)

species that secrete chemicals to attract or inhibit other individuals

b)

flocking and schooling behaviors

c)

spacing during the breeding season

d)

territorial species

e)

homogeneous chemical and physical factors in the environment

29.

The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time is called _____.

a)

demography

b)

community ecology

c)

populism

d)

immigration biology

e)

logistic growth

30.

Suppose researchers marked 1000 turtles and later were able to trap a total of 300 individuals in that population, of which 150 were marked. What is the estimate for total population size?

a)

4000

b)

1500

c)

2000

d)

1000

e)

300

31.

Which of the following examples would most accurately measure the density of the population being studied?

a)

Counting the number of times a 1-kilometer transect is intersected by tracks of red squirrels after a snowfall.

b)

Counting the number of moss plants in 1-square-meter quadrants.

c)

Counting the number of coyote droppings per hectare.

d)

Counting the number of elephants in Africa.

e)

Counting the number of prairie dog burrows per hectare.

32.

Carrying capacity is _____.

a)

the term used to describe the stress a population undergoes due to limited resources

b)

the maximum population size that a particular environment can support

c)

fixed for most species over most of their range most of the time

d)

determined by density and dispersion data

e)

seldom reached by marine producers and consumers because of the vast ocean resources of the ocean

33.

Which environmental factors impact the stability of the mutualistic relationship between corals and their photosynthetic protists?

 

a)

Ocean cooling and decreased nutrient levels

b)

Coral-reef communities and changing precipitation patterns

c)

Increased sunlight exposure and higher salinity

d)

Overfishing and decreased salinity

e)

Nutrient runoff, ocean warming, and ocean acidification

34.

A population of ground squirrels has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.06 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.02. Calculate an estimate of the total number of individuals added to (or lost from) a population of 1000 individuals in one year.

 

a)

400 individuals added

b)

20 individuals lost

c)

120 individuals added

d)

40 individuals added

e)

20 individuals added

35.

Given that fertility rate is defined as each woman producing exactly enough offspring to replace herself and her offspring's father, if the fertility rate is sustained for a generation, then _____

a)

0 < r < 1

b)

r = 0 and there is zero population growth

c)

r > 1

d)

population size is at carrying capacity

e)

r = 1

36.

Which of the following would be most significant in understanding the structure of an ecological community?

I) determining how many species are present overall

II) determining which particular species are present

III) determining the kinds of interactions that occur among organisms of different species

IV) determining the relative abundance of species

a)

only II and IV

b)

only I and III

c)

only I, II, and III

d)

I, II, III, and IV

e)

only II, III, and IV

37.

What is the biological significance of genetic diversity between populations?

a)

Isolated populations become more fit.

b)

Diseases and parasites are not spread between separated populations.

c)

Genes for traits conferring an advantage to local conditions make microevolution possible.

d)

Genetic diversity allows for species stability by preventing speciation.

e)

 

The population that is most fit would survive by competitive exclusion.

38.

If all individuals in the last remaining population of a particular bird species were all highly related, which type of diversity would be of greatest concern when planning to keep the species from going extinct?

I. Genetic diversity

II. Species diversity

III. Ecosystem diversity

 

a)

I, II, and III

b)

Only III

c)

Only I

d)

Only II

e)

I and III

39.

With regard to the destruction of tropical forests, the focus is often on biodiversity and the impact to these ecosystems. What is a direct benefit to humans that helps explain why these forests need to be preserved?

 

a)

The diversity could contain novel drugs for consumers.

b)

This diversity could contain undocumented insect species.

c)

The plant diversity provides shade, which lowers global warming.

d)

Natural and undisturbed areas are important wildlife habitats.

e)

There is actually no direct benefit of tropical forests to humans.

40.

Which of the following criteria must be met for a species to qualify as invasive?

 

a)

Introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces native species

b)

Endemic to the area, spreads rapidly, and displaces foreign species

c)

Endemic to the area, spreads slowly, and displaces native species

d)

Endemic to the area, using a significant amount of water resources

e)

Introduced to a new area, spreads rapidly, and displaces other invasive species

41.

Which of the following is an acellular biological entity?

a)

Helminths

b)

Protists

c)

Fungi

d)

Prions

e)

Bacteria

42.

Which statement describes a typical prokaryotic cell?

a)

It has a cell wall enclosing nuclear membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and nucleoid region with genetic material. It may have a protective capsule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

b)

It has multiple organelles, such as nuclei, vacuoles, and lysosomes.

c)

It has a cell wall enclosing nuclear membrane, cytoplasm, mitochondria, vacuoles, and nucleoid region with genetic material. It may have asule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

d)

It has a cell wall enclosing cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and nucleoid region with genetic material. It may have a protective capsule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

e)

It has a cell wall enclosing cell membrane, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and nucleus containing genetic material. It may have a protective capsule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

43.

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

 

a)

Bacteria and Archaea

b)

Bacteria and Fungi

c)

Archaea and Planta

d)

Eukarya and Archaea

e)

Bacteria and Protista

44.

Microbiologists use the Gram stain to aid in the identification of bacteria. What is the major difference between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria?

a)

Presence or absence of unsaturated fatty acids in the cytoplasmic membrane

b)

Presence or absence of proteins in the cell wall

c)

Presence or absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

d)

Structure of nucleic acids in the nucleus

e)

Presence or absence of outer plasma membrane

45.

A bacterium was grown in two test tubes filled with media rich in glucose. One tube was sealed to produce anaerobic conditions, and the other was not. A third uninoculated, unsealed tube was used as a control. Glucose utilization by this bacterium causes acid production, which is indicated by a lightening of the media color. If the bacterium is able to produce ATP only by aerobic respiration, we expect lightening of media in _____.

 

a)

the unsealed tube only

b)

the control tube only

c)

the sealed and unsealed tubes only

d)

all three tubes

e)

the sealed tube only

46.

Biologists sometimes divide living organisms into two groups: autotrophs and heterotrophs. These two groups differ in _____.

a)

the way that they catabolize fatty acids

b)

their sources of energy

c)

the way that they generate ATP

d)

their electron acceptors

e)

their mode of nutrition

47.

When some bacteria use lactose as a source of energy, they produce propionic acid and carbon dioxide. What is the name for this process?

 

a)

Fermentation

b)

Fermentation

c)

Cellular respiration

d)

Chemical synthesis

e)

Photosynthesis

48.

A prokaryote that obtains energy and carbon as it decomposes dead organisms is a(n) _____.

 

a)

heterotroph and chemotroph

b)

chemotroph

c)

autotroph

d)

autotroph and phototroph

e)

autotroph, phototroph, and chemotroph

49.

Which three foods use prokaryotes in their processing?

 

Wine, bread, and butter

 

C

a)

Wine, bread, and butter

b)

Coffee, milk, and sour creme

c)

Milk, wine, and beer

d)

Cheese, yogurt, and bread

e)

Cheese, yogurt, and milk

50.

Identify and discuss a bacterial disease that caused a historically important plague or epidemic. What is the modern distribution of this disease?

 

a)

Bubonic plague is a viral disease, which is eradicated worldwide since 1946.

b)

Bubonic plague, caused by Yersinia pestis, was a pandemic that occurred in the 14th century. In modern times, there are about 1,000 to 3,000 cases of bubonic plague each year. The bacterium responds well to modern antibiotics.

c)

Bubonic plague, caused by Yersinia pestis, was a pandemic that occurred in the 14th century. In modern times, there are only about 100 cases of bubonic plague each year. The bacterium responds well to modern antibiotics.

d)

Pneumonic plague, caused by Yersinia pestis, was a pandemic that occurred in the 14th century. In modern times, there are about 1,000 to 3,000 cases of pneumonic plague each year. The bacterium responds well to modern antibiotics.

e)

Bubonic plague, caused by Yersinia enterocolitica, was a pandemic that occurred in the 14th century. In modern times, there are about 1,000 to 3,000 cases of bubonic plague each year. The bacterium responds well to modern antibiotics.

51.

Three basic prokaryotic categories are cocci, spirilli, and bacilli. What are the basic structural features of each category?

a)

All cocci are Gram-negative bacteria, while all spirilli and bacilli are Gram-positive bacteria. Therefore, cocci differ from spirilli and bacilli in the general chemical composition of their cell walls.

b)

Cocci and spirilli have similar basic structural features. They typically have cell walls enclosing cell membranes, a flagellum for locomotion, and pili for attachment. Bacilli are rod shaped which contain ribosomes and a nucleoid region with genetic material.

c)

These three prokaryote groups have similar basic structural features. They typically have cell walls enclosing nuclear membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, mitochondria, and nucleoid region with genetic material. They may have a protective capsule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

d)

These three prokaryote groups have similar basic structural features. They typically have cell walls enclosing cell membranes, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and a nucleoid region with chromosomes. They may have a protective capsule, flagellum, pili, and plasmids.

e)

Bacilli and spirilli have similar basic structural features. They typically have cell walls enclosing nuclear membranes, a flagellum for locomotion, and pili for attachment. Cocci are spherical, containing ribosomes and a nucleoid region with genetic material.

52.

What is the relationship between Earth’s ancient atmosphere and the evolution of some of the first life-forms on Earth? Use the terms anaerobic and phototrophic, and explain the effect of cyanobacteria on the atmosphere.

a)

Phototrophic organisms appeared during the first 2 billion years of Earth’s existence. Anaerobic organisms appeared within 1 billion years of Earth’s formation. From these organisms evolved the cyanobacteria that produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis, leading to the oxygenation of the atmosphere.

b)

For the first 2 billion years of Earth’s existence, the atmosphere had no molecular oxygen. Thus, the first organisms were anaerobic. Cyanobacteria appeared within 1 billion years of Earth’s formation. From these evolved the phototrophic organisms that produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis, leading to the oxygenation of the atmosphere.

c)

For the first 2 billion years of Earth’s existence, the atmosphere had no molecular oxygen. Thus, the first organisms were anaerobic. Phototrophic organisms appeared within 1 billion years of Earth’s formation. From these organisms evolved the cyanobacteria, which produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis, leading to the oxygenation of the atmosphere.

d)

For the first 2 billion years of Earth’s existence, the atmosphere had no molecular oxygen. Thus, the first organisms were anaerobic. Cyanobacteria that produce oxygen as a by-product of photosynthesis, leading to the oxygenation of the atmosphere, appeared within 1 billion years of Earth’s formation. From these organisms evolved phototrophic organisms.

e)

Anaerobic organisms were the first form of life about 3 billion years ago. They produced carbon dioxide that accumulated in the atmosphere. This carbon dioxide was then used by phototrophic organisms that appeared about 1.5 billion years ago to produce larger carbon-containing biomolecules (such as glucose).

53.

You have found a new prokaryote. What line of evidence would support your hypothesis that the organism is a cyanobacterium?

 

a)

It is able to form colonies and produce oxygen.

b)

It forms chains called mycelia.

c)

It lacks cell walls.

d)

You determine that it can cause Lyme disease.

e)

It is an endosymbiont.

54.

If you suddenly and dramatically changed your diet, how might this affect the diversity of prokaryotic species that live in your intestine?

 

 

a)

The species abundance increases while the relative species distribution decreases.

b)

The relative species distribution increases while the species abundance decreases.

c)

The diversity would not get altered and would remain the same.

d)

The species abundance and relative distribution may get affected.

e)

The diversity of prokaryotic organisms decreases while the species abundance and relative distribution increases.

55.

A newly discovered organism is found to use sulfide (S2-) for aerobic respiration and use carbon dioxide (CO2) from the air as a source of carbon, much like a plant. This organism must be a _____.

 

a)

chemoorganoautotroph

b)

chemolithotrophic heterotroph

c)

photoautotroph

d)

chemolithoautotroph

e)

photoheterotroph

56.

Researchers have found a new type of bacteria, and they want to determine its phylum. What would be the most reliable method to do so?

 

a)

Perform an analysis of metabolic pathways.

b)

Examine the fatty acid composition of the cytoplasmic membrane.

c)

Conduct a Gram-stain test.

d)

Determine the ribosomal RNA sequence of the bacteria.

e)

Analyze the morphological characteristics of the bacteria.

57.

Which two structures play direct roles in permitting bacteria to adhere to each other, or to other surfaces?

1. capsules

2. endospores

3. fimbriae

4. plasmids

5. flagella

 

a)

3 and 5

b)

1 and 2

c)

2 and 3

d)

3 and 4

e)

1 and 3

58.

Which statement about the genomes of prokaryotes is correct? 

 

 

a)

Prokaryotic cells have multiple chromosomes, "packed" with a relatively large amount of protein.

b)

The prokaryotic chromosome is not contained within a nucleus but, rather, is found at the nucleolus.

c)

Prokaryotic genomes are composed of circular DNA.

d)

Prokaryotic chromosomes are sometimes called plasmids.

e)

Prokaryotic genomes are diploid throughout most of the cell cycle.

59.

Which of these statements about prokaryotes is correct?

 

a)

Their genetic material is confined within vesicles known as plasmids.

b)

Bacterial cells conjugate to mutually exchange genetic material.

c)

The persistence of bacteria throughout evolutionary time is due to their genetic homogeneity (in other words, sameness).

d)

Genetic variation in bacteria is not known to occur, because of their asexual mode of reproduction.

e)

They divide by binary fission, without mitosis or meiosis.

60.

The termite gut protist, Mixotricha paradoxa, has at least two kinds of bacteria attached to its outer surface. One kind is a spirochete that propels its host through the termite gut. A second type of bacteria synthesizes ATP, some of which is used by the spirochetes. The locomotion provided by the spirochetes introduces the ATP-producing bacteria to new food sources. Which term(s) is (are) applicable to the relationship between the two kinds of bacteria?

1. mutualism

2. parasitism

3. symbiosis

4. metabolic cooperation

 

a)

2 and 3

b)

1 only

c)

1 and 2

d)

2, 3, and 4

e)

1, 3, and 4

61.

What is the major distinguishing characteristic of fungi?

 

a)

Decomposing dead organisms

b)

Prokaryotic cells

c)

Sedentary lifestyle

d)

Absorbing nutrients

e)

Acquiring nutrition through ingestion

62.

Fungi with hyphae _____.

 

a)

have a body plan that is a unicellular sphere

b)

are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources

c)

have cell walls that consist mainly of cellulose microfibrils

d)

acquire their nutrients by phagocytosis

e)

reproduce asexually by a process known as budding

63.

When pathogenic fungi are found growing on the roots of grape vines, grape farmers sometimes respond by covering the ground around their vines with plastic sheeting and pumping a gaseous fungicide into the soil. The most important concern of grape farmers who engage in this practice should be that the _____.

 

a)

the gaseous fungicide is not affecting pathogenic fungi in the soil

b)

the gaseous fungicide might also kill mycorrhizae

c)

the fungicide might also kill the native yeasts residing on the surfaces of the grapes

d)

lichens growing on the vines' branches are not harmed

e)

the sheeting is transparent so that photosynthesis can continue

64.

Which of the following characteristics is unique to chytrids compared to other groups of fungi?

 

a)

flagellated spores

b)

zoospores

c)

cell walls of cellulose

d)

nucleotide sequences of several genes

e)

autotrophic mode of nutrition

65.

Why is it more difficult to treat fungal infections than bacterial infections in humans?

a)

Fungi are able to mutate more quickly than bacteria, so they quickly develop resistance to antifungal drugs.

b)

Fungi are able to mutate more quickly than bacteria, so they quickly develop resistance to antifungal drugs.

c)

Most fungi are multicellular and thus the drugs required to treat a fungal infection must be able to kill several types of cells; bacteria, on the other hand, are unicellular and thus simpler to kill.

d)

Fungi are larger organisms than bacteria and thus require stronger drugs to stop an infection.

e)

Fungi grow and spread much faster in human bodies.

66.

you are given an organism to identify. it has a fruiting body that contains many structures with eight haploid spores lined up in a row. what kind of a fungus is this

a)

ascomycete

b)

deuteromucete

c)

zygomycete

d)

basidiomycete

e)

chytrid

67.

Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because _____.

a)

protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack

b)

protists are photosynthetic

c)

protists eat bacteria

d)

bacteria are not made of cells

e)

bacteria decompose protists

68.

It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?

a)

Radioactively labeled sugars produced by plants eventually show up in the fungi with which they are associated.

b)

Fungi release large amounts of carbon dioxide originated from sugars. This carbon dioxide can be detected using NDIR (non-dispersive infrared) sensors.

c)

Fungi survive better when they are associated with plants.

d)

Radioactive labeling experiments show that plants pass crucial raw materials to the fungus for manufacturing sugars.

e)

Fungi associated with plants have the ability to undergo photosynthesis and produce their own sugars, while those not associated with plants do not produce their own sugars.

69.

In both lichens and mycorrhizae, what does the fungal partner provide to its photosynthetic partner?

a)

water and minerals

b)

antibiotics

c)

carbohydrates

d)

protection from harmful ultraviolet light

e)

fixed nitrogen

70.

Some fungal species can kill herbivores while feeding off of sugars from its plant host. What type of relationship does this fungus have with its host?

 

predatory

 

commensal

 

facilitating

 

parasitic

 

mutualistic

a)

predatory

b)

commensal

c)

facilitating

d)

parasitic

e)

mutualistic

71.

The sporangia of the bread mold Rhizopus are _____.

a)

asexual structures that produce haploid spores

b)

neither sexual nor asexual structures

c)

sexual structures that produce diploid spores

d)

asexual structures that produce diploid spores

e)

sexual structures that produce haploid spores

72.

The microsporidian Brachiola gambiae parasitizes the mosquito Anopheles gambiae. Adult female mosquitoes must take blood meals for their eggs to develop, and it is while they take blood that they transmit malarial parasites to humans. Male mosquitoes drink flower nectar. If humans are to safely and effectively use Brachiola gambiae as a biological control to reduce human deaths from malaria, then how many of the following statements should be true?

1. Brachiola should kill the mosquitoes before the malarial parasite they carry reaches maturity.

2. The microsporidian should not be harmful to other insects.

3. Microsporidians should infect mosquito larvae, rather than mosquito adults.

4. The subsequent decline in anopheline mosquitoes should not significantly disrupt human food resources or other food webs.

5. Brachiola must be harmful to male mosquitoes, but not to female mosquitoes.

a)

3 and 4

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

1, 2 and 4

d)

2 and 5

e)

2, 3 and 5

73.

Consider the following points: (a) All excavates live in environments where oxygen availability is low; (b) all excavates lack mitochondria; and (c) all excavates have some mitochondrial genes. Based on this information, which of the following statements is true of the excavate lineage?

a)

Their ancestors were eukaryotes that existed prior to the origin of mitochondria.

b)

Excavates are in the process of acquiring mitochondria through evolutionary adaptation.

c)

Their ancestors were not able to metabolize glucose.

d)

Excavates use chloroplasts instead of mitochondria.

e)

Their ancestors had mitochondria, but the mitochondria were lost over time.

74.

Alternation of generations occurs in some protists. Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events for this mode of reproduction?

a)

sporophyte → spore fusion → gametophyte → gamete → sporophyte

b)

sporophyte → fusion → spore → gamete → gametophyte

c)

gametophyte → gamete → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gametophyte

d)

gametophyte → fusion → sporophyte → spore → gamete → gametophyte

e)

gamete → fusion → gametophyte → spore → sporophyte → gamete

75.

Which of the following is a producer?

 

a)

ciliates

b)

kinetoplastid

c)

apicomplexan

d)

oomycete

e)

diatom

76.

A flagellated protist that is sexually transmitted is _____.

a)

Plasmodium

b)

Entamoeba

c)

Giardia

d)

Paramecium

e)

Trichomonas

77.

Which feature has to be present in a protist in order to classify it as a photoautotroph? 

a)

The ability to synthesize organic compounds.

b)

The ability to synthesize inorganic compounds.

c)

The presence of cellulose in the cell wall.

d)

The presence of a light trapping pigment.

e)

 

The presence of mitochondria within the cell.

78.

Amoebic dysentery is transmitted by (through) ____.  

a)

ingesting contaminated water or food

b)

having sex with an infected partner

c)

the bite of a tsetse fly

d)

the saliva of dogs

e)

the bite of a mosquito

79.

Select the disease(s) caused by trypanosomes.

a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

African sleeping sickness

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Malaria

e)

Giardiasis

80.

Which of the following is a catastrophic disturbance?

a)

Nutrient blown away by wind

b)

Phosphorus captured in rock

c)

Heat energy released by animals

d)

Fire burning a forest

81.

What causes seasonality at high latitudes? It is caused ______

a)

by the tilt of Earth’s axis of rotation and its annual passage around the sun

b)

by carrying warm water from the equator to the North Atlantic and South Pacific

c)

by air rises over warm land and drawing a cool breeze from the water across the land

d)

by surface water in the equatorial Pacific becoming warmer than average and east winds blowing weaker than normal

82.

In which terrestrial regions are boreal forests located?

a)

A) Arctic regions

b)

B) Subarctic regions

c)

C) Temperate regions

d)

D) Tropical regions

83.

Which of the following is a freshwater biome?

a)

A) Estuaries

b)

B) Deep-sea hydrothermal vents

c)

C) Wetlands

d)

D) Coral reefs

84.

______ is the speed at which an ecosystem recovers

equilibrium after being disturbed.

a)

A) Resistance

b)

B) Resilience

c)

C) Reconciliation

d)

D) Retention

85.

Omnivores are organisms that ____.

a)

A) eat producers only

b)

B) eat consumers only

c)

C) eat both, producers and consumers

d)

D) consume litter, debris, and dung

86.

Which biome has the highest total net primary production?

a)

A) Tropical wet forests

b)

B) Boreal forests

c)

C) Wetlands

d)

D) Estuaries

87.

The biogeochemical cycles most relevant to living

organisms are those of ____.

a)

A) water, carbon, iron, copper, and sulfur

b)

B) water, carbon, nitrogen, and calcium

c)

C) carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium

d)

D) water, carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus, and sulfur

88.

Forming herds is a(n) ______ defense mechanism.

a)

behavioral

b)

mechanical

c)

physiological

d)

chemical

89.

Which of the following type of species relationship is

based on a (-/-) interaction?

a)

Commensalism

b)

Competition

c)

Predation

d)

Facilitation

90.

______ are species that have a strong role in structuring

a community and are able to occupy any trophic level in

a food web

a)

Keystone species

b)

Impact species

c)

Charity species

d)

Foundation species

91.

______ is the initial ecological step after an extreme

disturbance, which usually occurs in an environment

devoid of vegetation and other organisms.

a)

A) Nunc coepi

b)

B) Nova facilitatio

c)

C) Primary succession

d)

D) Secondary succession

92.

On which process does population density (generally) not depend on:

a)

birth

b)

death

c)

emigration

d)

speciation

93.

Which of the following survivorship curves shows high mortality early in life?

a)

A) Type I

b)

B) Type II

c)

C) Type III

d)

D) Cannot tell from this graph

94.

As shown by the graph below, the human population is experiencing ____ growth.

a)

linear

b)

exponential

c)

logistic

d)

negative

95.

The population pyramid of Singapore is shown below. Therefore, Singapore has a ____ population.

a)

shrinking

b)

stable

c)

exponential

d)

fluctuating

96.

Which term describes the number of different kinds of

organisms within a community or ecosystem?

a)

A) Genetic diversity

b)

B) Species diversity

c)

C) Ecosystem diversity

d)

D) Diversity of life

97.

Which of the following is not a cause of the biodiversity crisis?

a)

A) Controlling infectious diseases

b)

B) Loss of habitats

c)

C) Pollution

d)

D) Overharvesting

98.

Which of the following is not a general category of

ecosystem services?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Supporting

c)

Regulating

d)

Prospecting

99.

A species in imminent danger of extinction is classified by the

U.S. Endangered Species Act as

a)

vulnerable

b)

threatened

c)

endangered

d)

at risk

100.

Which of the following are considered subcellular or acellular

biological entities?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Helminths

d)

Viruses

101.

Flukes are classified in the class ______

a)

Cestodes

b)

Trematodes

c)

Nematodes

d)

Basidomycetes

102.

Prions are infectious ______.

a)

A) protein particles

b)

B) DNA molecules

c)

C) RNA molecules

d)

D) bacterial cells

103.

There are ______ fungal species known as human pathogens.

a)

28

b)

149

c)

317

d)

506

104.

Cyanobacteria are ______.

a)

photoautotrophs

b)

photoheterotrophs

c)

chemoautotrophs

d)

chemoheterotrophs

105.

Systematics is the ______.

a)

A) science of identification, classification, and nomenclature

b)

B) evolutionary history of a group of organisms

c)

C) study of the diversity of organisms and their relationships

d)

D) study of the origin of life

106.

Firmicutes are ______ bacteria.

a)

A) high G+C Gram-negative

b)

B) low G+C Gram-negative

c)

C) high G+C Gram-positive

d)

D) low G+C Gram-positive

107.

Bordetella pertussis is the causative agent of the highly

contagious respiratory infection pertussis. B. pertussis

belongs to the class ______.

a)

Alphaproteobacteria

b)

Betaproteobacteria

c)

Gammaproteobacteria

d)

Spirochaetes

108.

Yeast are unicellular fungi. The vegetative bodies (thalli) of yeasts are small, globular, and composed of a single cell. ______ yeasts divide symmetrically, while ______ yeasts divide

asymmetrically.

a)

A) Budding; meiotic

b)

B) Fission; budding

c)

C) Meiotic; hyphal

d)

D) Dimorphic; fruiting

109.

Which of the following is not a general type of

sexual spores?

a)

Ascospores

b)

Basidiospores

c)

Chytridospores

d)

Zygospores

110.

The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor, a superficial

mycosis, is

a)

A) Malassezia furfur

b)

B) Aspergillus flavus

c)

C) Penicillium citrinum

d)

D) Agaricus campestris

111.

In ______ mycoses, fungi infect internal organs.

a)

superficial

b)

cutaneous

c)

subcutaneous

d)

systemic

112.

Arthropods are considered eukaryotic parasites as ______.

a)

ectoparasites

b)

B) mechanical or biological vectors

c)

C) instigators of allergic responses

d)

D) all of the above

113.

The mode of entry for Leishmaniasis is ______.

a)

A) the mouth

b)

B) an arthropod bite

c)

C) the eye

d)

D) the skin

114.

A reservoir of the foodborne and waterborne disease

amebiasis is infected ______

a)

cattle

b)

cats

c)

humans

d)

wildlife

115.

A ______ is the activated, feeding stage in the life cycle of

certain protozoa.

a)

trophozoite

b)

cyst

c)

schizont

d)

conjugate