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EDN MIDTERMS

Total questions: 113

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Teamwork isn't really teamwork unless the TEAM actually works. What does the acronym TEAM mean?

a)

Tomorrow Emergency And Mitigation

b)

Together Everyone Achieves More

c)

Tomorrow Everyone Acts More

d)

Together Emergency Acts Malevolent

2.

Any sudden illness or injury that is perceived by the client or significant other as requiring immediate intervention. It continues until the condition is stable and no longer threatens the client's integrity or well-being. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

3.

A perilous situation that arises suddenly and threatens the life or welfare of a person or group of people, as a natural disaster, medical crisis, or trauma situation. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

4.

A procedure for moving a victim from an unsafe place to a place of safety. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

5.

An episodic and crisis-oriented care provided by healthcare professional to patients with serious or potentially life threatening injuries or illnesses.

(a)  

6.

Scope and practice of emergency nursing. (SATA)

a)

The emergency nurse establishes priorities, monitors and continuously assesses acutely ill and injured patients, supports and attends to families, supervises allied health personnel, and teaches patients and family within a time limited, high pressured care environment

b)

The entire emergency health care staff members work as a team in performing the highly technical, hands-on skills required to care for patients in an emergency situation

c)

Nursing intervention are accomplished interdependently, in consultation with or under the direction of a licensed physician or nurse practitioner

d)

Emergency medical care is a politically important aspect of health service provision as it is often the first contact point with the health system for many patients requiring urgent care and delays in access to treatment are understood to be a matter of 'life or death'.

e)

Emergency medicine is a medical speciality—a field of practice based on the knowledge and skills required to prevent, diagnose, and manage acute and urgent aspects of illness and injury affecting patients of all age groups with a full spectrum of undifferentiated physical and behavioural disorders.

7.

Golden Rules in Giving Emergency Care: What to do (SATA)

a)

Do loosen tight clothing

b)

Do care for the most serious injuries first.

c)

Do handle the victim to a minimum

d)

Do require the patient to make their own decision

e)

Do think of the worst.

8.

Golden Rules in Giving Emergency Care: What NOT to do (SATA)

a)

Do not handle the victim to a minimum

b)

Do not trust the judgment of a confused victim and don’t require to make decision

c)

Do not leave the victim alone except to get help

d)

Do not leave the victim alone except to get help

e)

Do not make unrealistic promises

9.

The first description of disaster and its management comes from the biblical story of ... ?

a)

Thunderstorm of hail and fire

b)

Sodom and Gomorrah

c)

Turning water to blood

d)

Noah and his ark.

10.

T/F: Disasters are old as mankind

a)

True

b)

False

11.

An emergency with greater magnitude, longer duration, generally lower outcomes. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

12.

A serious disruption of the functioning of a community or society involving widespread human, material, economic, or environmental losses and impacts, which exceed the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

13.

"An occurrence, either natural or manmade that causes human suffering and creates needs that victims cannot alleviate without assistance" - The American Red Cross (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

14.

Disaster Alphabetically means...

a)

-Destruction-Incidents-Sufferings-Administrative & financial failures-Sentiments-Tragedies-Eruption of communicable diseases-Research programme and its implementation

b)

-Destruction-Incidents-Sufferings-Administrative negligence-Sentiments-Tragedies-Eruption of communicable diseases-Research programme and its implementation

c)

-Destruction-Incidents-Sufferings-Administrative & financial failures-Sentiments-Tragedies-Eruption of volcanoes-Research programme and its implementation

d)

-Destruction-Incidents-Sufferings-Administrative & financial failures-Sentiments-Tragedies-Eruption of communicable diseases-Research agenda

15.

Enumeration: Types of Disaster - Natural Disasters (3)

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN ALPHABETICAL ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

16.

Enumeration: Types of disaster - Man-made disaster (3)

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN ALPHABETICAL ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

17.

Topographical Disasters (SATA)

a)

El Nino

b)

Volcanic Eruptions

c)

Avalanches

d)

Limnic Eruption

e)

Global Warming

18.

Meteorological Disasters (SATA)

a)

Hail Storm

b)

Snow Storm

c)

Blizzard

d)

Flood

e)

Tsunami

19.

Environmental Disasters (SATA)

a)

Limnic Eruption

b)

Drought

c)

El Nino

d)

Ozone depletion-UVB radiation

e)

Solar Flare

20.

CBRNE is a type of Man-made disaster under Warfare and Violence. What does CBRNE mean?

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

21.

Technological Disaster (SATA)

a)

Fire

b)

Cyberattacks

c)

Transport Failure

d)

Public place failure

e)

Nudity

22.

Industrial Disaster (SATA)

a)

Solar flare

b)

Chemical spills

c)

Fire

d)

Radioactive spills

e)

Pollution

23.

Warfare and Violence Disaster (SATA)

a)

CBPNE

b)

War

c)

Terrorism

d)

Civil Unrest

e)

Mass Shooting

24.

Transition Phase in Triaging (SATA)

a)

After START completed, hospital admission follows

b)

Resource independent and involves grouping patient together at the scene

c)

Establish communication between the incident command, triage areas to treatment areas

d)

Re-triage if condition changes (SAVE Triage)

e)

Move victims to secondary triage based on tagging

25.

Treatment Unit in Emergency Assessment (SATA)

a)

Reassess patients, conducts secondary triage to match patient with resources

b)

Determine depth of the treatment area

c)

Does not coordinate with the Triage Unit to move patients from the triage area to treatment areas

d)

Coordinates with the Triage Unit to move patients from the triage area to treatment areas

e)

Establish communication with the Incident Command

26.

Transportation Unit in Emergency Assessment (SATA)

a)

Maintains communication with the Incident Command

b)

Management of patient movement from the scene to the receiving hospitals

c)

Designates a parking space

d)

Works with the treatment unit to establish adequately sized, easily identifiable patient loading area

e)

Designates an ambulance staging area

27.

A teenage boy is limping, he tells you he has a broken ankle.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

28.

The driver, a 38-year-old male is slumped over the steering wheel, unresponsive and not breathing.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

29.

A middle-aged female is unconscious but breathing fast (>25bpm).

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

30.

An unresponsive male appears to be snoring. His breathing improves when you open his airway.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

31.

An elderly casualty is found, disoriented on the floor but breathing normally.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

32.

A middle-aged male is found, unable to move is clearly injured legs but is breathing normally.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

33.

A 67-year-old female is conscious with no obvious injuries but breathing fast. She is cold and pale.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

34.

A young child is found unresponsive and not breathing.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

35.

A young woman approaches you and offers help

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

36.

A middle-aged male with an obvious head injury and exposed brain tissue.

a)

Immediate

b)

Delayed

c)

Minor

d)

Dead

37.

What does SAVE mean in SAVE Triage? (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

38.

The removal of the victim from difficult situation or position; or removal of a patient from a wrecked care or other place of entrapment (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

39.

Equipments for Transfer (SATA)

a)

Patient transfer sheet

b)

Dunhills

c)

Body straps

d)

Babcock

e)

Scooper

40.

Criteria for Selection of Methods of Transfers (SATA)

a)

Distance of the place where the victim will be transferred

b)

Size of the victim

c)

proper body position

d)

Physical capabilities of rescuer

e)

Nature and severity of the injury

41.

Basic principles of emergency rescue and Emergency transfer (SATA)

a)

Moving victim as one unit and in proper body position

b)

Widest first aider must stay at the head part of the victim

c)

Methods of ERT should be safe, comfortable and fast

d)

Immobilization of injured body parts before extrication and transfer

e)

Check victim’s condition regularly before, during, and after ERT

42.

Indications for emergency rescue (SATA)

a)

Risk for drowning

b)

Danger of collapsing walls

c)

Serious traffic hazard

d)

Danger of fire and explosion

e)

Danger of attachment

43.

Moving of a patient from a safe place to a safer place after giving first aid. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

44.

5 levels of Acuity/triage in emergency dept. setup

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN THE RIGHT LEVEL ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

45.

Non urgent cases classified in the ED should be treated within?

a)

2 hrs

b)

1.5 hrs

c)

1 hr

d)

30 mins

46.

Emergent patients categorized in the ER should be treated within?

a)

Immediately upon arrival

b)

15 mins.

c)

W/in 30 mins

d)

W/in 5 mins

47.

All of the following are example of Triage Level 1 in emergency room, except:

a)

A patient who has trauma to the head who is lethargic

b)

A patient with a neck fracture with obvious airway compromise

c)

Patient who has a massive blunt trauma to the chest and abdomen with bp of palpatory 70

d)

A pregnant lady who is having active seizures

48.

All of the following are SAVE categories EXCEPT:

a)

Those who will die regardless of care

b)

Those who will survive whether or not they receive care

c)

Those who will benefit from limited immediate field intervention

d)

Those who have high risk illnesses (e.g. diabetes, high blood pressure etc.)

49.

All of the following are the definitions of a Staging Area EXCEPT:

a)

Set up the perimeter; should have gate keeper and security

b)

Only one staging area is required

c)

Mark off areas for support needs

d)

Place where media should be designated

50.

A form of traumatic injury caused by thermal, electrical, chemical and radioactive substances. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

51.

STOP, DROP, & ROLL is the best way to put a fire out from the person. What is the other alternative?

a)

roll the person out until the fire extinguishes with the ground

b)

throw a pale of water unto the person

c)

smother the person with a wet blanket

d)

leave them be for the air to extinguish

52.

This results from an energy transfer from a heat source to a part of the body. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

53.

What are the different kinds of burns? (5)

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN ALPHABETICAL ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER | NO NEED TO ADD 'BURNS'

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

54.

damage is limited to the epidermis, causing erythema and pain

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree (superficial)

c)

2nd degree (deep layer)

d)

3rd degree

55.

epidermis and part of dermis are damage, producing blisters and mild to-moderate edema and pain

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree (superficial)

c)

2nd degree (deep layer)

d)

3rd degree

56.

epidermis and dermis are damage. No blister appear, but white, brown, or black leathery tissue and thrombosed vessel are visible

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree (superficial)

c)

2nd degree (deep layer)

d)

3rd degree

57.

damage extends through deeply charred subcutaneous tissue, to muscles and tendons, and bones

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree (superficial)

c)

2nd degree (deep layer)

d)

3rd degree

58.

Triage Criteria: Major Burns

1: Usually complicated by fracture & Respiratory damage

2: All burns in high-risk patients (elderly, pregnant)

a)

Only statement 1 is correct

b)

Only statement 2 is correct

c)

Both are right

d)

Both are wrong

59.

Destruction of the skin layers from burn injury may lead to: (SATA)

a)

impaired skin integrity

b)

acute pain

c)

ineffective thermoregulation

d)

risk for infection

e)

fluid volume deficit

60.

the nursing diagnoses for fluid shifts in burns (SATA)

a)

risk for ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion

b)

risk for decreased cardiac output

c)

ineffective thermoregulation

d)

fluid volume deficit

e)

impaired physical mobility

61.

Nurse Sara learned during the burns lesson that in the occasion of the patient's fluid shift even if the patient is thirsty they should be NPO till NABS has returned. What is the other criteria for removing the NPO order of a burns patient?

a)

If they are starting to get desperately thirsty

b)

They are no longer intubated

c)

They are autonomous

d)

They can swallow on their own

62.

the care given to individual, families, groups, and communities affected by disaster to preserve health and prevent illness and other health complications brought about by the crisis. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

63.

the adaptation of professional nursing knowledge, skills, and attitude in recognizing and meeting the nursing, health and emotional needs of disaster victims. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

64.

the initial phase of disaster. Prior to the occurrence a warding is given at the sign of the first possible danger. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

65.

the time of enduring hardships or injury and trying to survive. “Holding on” until help arrives. This phase may last for several minutes to several days or weeks. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

66.

recovery begins and ends with both the return of normal community order and functioning. This phase can last a lifetime onto some survivors due to the gravity of results of the disaster. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

67.

Enumerate: 3 Phases of a Disaster

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN THE CORRECT ORDER WITH THE DASH AND 'PHASE' | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

68.

the organization and management of resources and responsibilities

for dealing with all the humanitarian aspects of emergencies, in particular preparedness, response and recovery in order to lessen the impact of disaster. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

69.

An applied science which seeks, by systemic observation and analysis of disasters, to improve measures relating to prevention, emergency response, recovery and mitigation. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

70.

Encompasses all aspects of planning for, and responding to disasters, including both pre and post disaster activities (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

71.

Principles of Disaster Management (Select all that apply).

a)

Prevent the occurrence of a disaster

b)

Provide first aid to the injured

c)

Rescue the victims and minimize the number of casualties if the disaster cannot be prevented

d)

Promote reconstruction of lives

e)

Disaster management is not the responsibility of all spheres of government

72.

What are the roles of nurses in disaster management? (Select all that apply)

a)

Assess the Disaster Threats in the Community

b)

Diagnose the Community

c)

Community Disaster Planning

d)

Implementation of Disaster Plan

e)

Evaluate Effectiveness of Disaster Plan

73.

Enumeration: 4 Phases of Disaster Management?

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN THE CORRECT ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

74.

Aling Mina, a 40-year old female, a Yolanda survivor, is still experiencing nightmares, and occasionally cries at night due to the lost of her husband, 2 kids and 3 grandchildren. This situation describes which phase of a disaster?

a)

Impact Phase

b)

Recovery Phase

c)

Pre-Impact Phase

d)

Post-Impact Phase

75.

All of the following are principles of disaster management, except:

a)

Rescue victims and minimize the number of casualties

b)

Do community disaster planning

c)

Promote reconstruction of lives

d)

Disaster management is the responsibility of all sphere of government

76.

The following are activities of the Recovery Phase of Disaster Management? (Select all that apply).

a)

Shelter and evacuation

b)

Damage Assessment

c)

Clean up and basic reconstruction

d)

Restoration of critical facilities and systems

77.

the provision of basic medical care to someone experiencing a sudden injury or illness, it consists of initial support provided until appropriate medical management can be given by health care professionals. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

78.

a systematic approach that provides the emergency nurse with a methodical approach to help identify and prioritize patient’s needs. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

79.

normal value of heart rate (Put the number only with no space ex: 1-35)

(a)  

80.

the normal value of respiratory rate (Put the number only with no space ex: 1-35)

(a)  

81.

degrees centigrade is the normal value of temperature (Put the number only with no space ex: 1-35)

(a)  

82.

% is the normal value of oxygen saturation (Put the number only with no space ex: 1-35)

(a)  

83.

What is the normal value of capillary refill time?

a)

≥ 2 seconds

b)

≤ 2 seconds

c)

2 seconds

d)

> 2 seconds

84.

It refers to the initials, rapid assessment of the patient meant to identify life-threatening problems. This is done before proceeding to secondary assessment. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

85.

Enumarate: ABCDE in emergency assessment

(ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS | NO PUNCTUATION | ANSWER IN CORRECT ORDER | PUT A SPACE ONLY AFTER 1 ANSWER

ANSWER EX. SHOULD BE: ALPACA BIRD CAT DOG)

(a)  

86.

Which question/s can you use to assess the Airway of the patient? (Select all that apply).

a)

   Does the patient have an open airway?

b)

Is the patient able to speak?

c)

Is there a rise and fall of the chest?

d)

Is the patient breathing?

e)

Is the patient awake?

87.

a brief, but thorough systematic assessment designed to identify all injuries and provide initial management. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPITAL LETTERS)

(a)  

88.

T/F: There is no need to apply a new tag when re-triaging

a)

True

b)

False

89.

(a)   Triage aims to rapidly find immediate patients (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

90.

(a)   Triage is the most common protocol used for triage. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

91.

T/F: Triage does not occur at every stage of patient assessment, decontamination, treatment, transport and each level of care

a)

True

b)

False

92.

the screening or classification of sick, wounded or injured persons during war or disaster, to determine the priority needs for efficient use of manpower and facilities. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

93.

a.k.a. the gatekeeper (can be a nurse or a doctor, or anyone who had training) is the one who will perform a brief evaluation of the patient to determine a level of acuity or priority of care, thus the role is to make acuity determinations and set priorities. (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

(a)  

94.

In assessing the RPM, R stands for?

a)

Respiratory Rate of 12-20 bpm

b)

  Recognizable injury

c)

Respiration of 30 bpm

d)

  Random Blood Sugar of 60-100 mmol

95.

The M in MIVT in History Taking stands for (a)   . (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

96.

The I in MIVT in History Taking stands for (a)   . (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

97.

The V in MIVT in History Taking stands for (a)   . (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

98.

The T in MIVT in History Taking stands for (a)   . (ANSWER IN ALL CAPS)

99.

You are the ER nurse, it is part of your assessment to do history taking of disaster patients brought by the EMTs to your hospital. The following are components of the prehospital information you need to gather. (Select all that apply).

a)

Mechanism of the drugs given

b)

Sustained or suspected injuries

c)

Treatment given prior arrival to the hospital

d)

Vital signs

100.

In the area you were able to assess two patients; a woman with a bleeding head wound but has normal vital signs and a man with a sucking chest wound but has abnormal vital signs. Which patient would you prioritize?

a)

The woman with a bleeding head wound

b)

The man with a sucking chest wound

101.

He is the person responsible in running the entire emergency rescue, treatment and transfer. He is the one declaring if the scene is safe during disaster response. All lines of communication should be communicated with this person

a)

Safety officer

b)

Triage officer

c)

Incident commander

d)

Emergency rescuer team leader

102.

Select the following that belongs to the Principles of Disaster Triage (Select all that apply).

a)

Move the casualty backwards (against the flow)

b)

Never hold critical patient for further care

c)

Salvage limb over life

d)

Triage providers stop to treat patients

e)

Never move the casualty backwards (against the flow)

103.

All of the following are considered central pulses that are priority to assess during triaging a victim to determine circulatory status, except:

a)

Radial

b)

Apical

c)

Femoral

d)

Carotid

e)

Temporal

104.

In disaster triage, which of the following is Category III?

a)

red: immediate

b)

black: expectant

c)

yellow: delayed

d)

green: minor

105.

In disaster triage, which of the following is Category IV?

a)

red: immediate

b)

black: expectant

c)

yellow: delayed

d)

green: minor

106.

The following are actions that are done in a triage procedure (Select all that apply).

a)

·         First clear the walking wounded using verbal instructions

b)

·         Begin from the farthest area

c)

·         Move from starting point in a systematic manner

d)

·         Stop at each victim and quickly assess RPM, maximum 30 seconds

e)

·         Correct life-threatening airway problems

107.

The following belongs in the secondary assessment (Select all that apply).

a)

      Environmental control

b)

  Full set of VS

c)

Five interventions

d)

Facilitate Family Presence

e)

Give comfort measures

108.

Select the following that are part of the five interventions during secondary assessment (Select all that apply).

a)

  Administration of IV fluids

b)

Insertion of indwelling foley catheter

c)

Administration of oxygen via face mask

d)

NGT tube insertion

e)

Capillary Blood Glucose Test

109.

Mina is an emergency responder; she knows that you should never move patients before triage except in cases of: (Select all that apply)

a)

Risks due to bad weather

b)

Impending darkness or darkness has fallen

c)

    A continued risk for injury

d)

  Medical facilities are not immediately available

e)

A tactical situation that dictates movement

110.

The following are the benefits of going triage (Select all that apply)

a)

Separates those who need rapid medical care to save life or limb.

b)

Separating out the minor injuries reduces urgent burden on medical facilities and organizations

c)

By providing for the equitable and rational distribution of casualties among the available hospitals reduces the burden on each to a manageable level

111.

The NDRRMC is the lead agency to develop and formulate national agenda for capacity building and disaster plans for the Philippines. Who is the head of this agency?

a)

Secretary of health

b)

Head of the office of civil defense

c)

Secretary of national defense

d)

Secretary of Social Welfare and Development

112.

A recent oil spill happened in Oriental Mindoro, initially affected 5 coastal municipalities and now reaches the provinces of Palawan and Antique. Preparations are mandated to other nearby provinces as well. Help from other countries are also being summoned to help clean up this incident. In this kind of disaster, which DRRM council will be activated?

a)

National DRRMC

b)

Regional DRRMC

c)

Provincial DRRMC

d)

Municipal DRRMC

113.

What is the current DOH vision during disasters?

a)

Kaligtasang pangkomunidad para sa Kalusugan sa kamay ng kalamidad

b)

Nasa kamay ng komunidad ang kaligtasang pangkalusugan kapag may kalamidad

c)

Kalusugan at kaligtasan sa kalamidad sa kamay ng komunidad

d)

Kaligtasang pangkalusugan sa kalamidad sa kamay ng komunidad