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BIOL 1215 Test 3 Review

Total questions: 118

Worksheet time: 6hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
2.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)
segregation of sister chromatids
b)
condensation and segregation of alleles
c)
mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered
d)
crossing - over in which alleles are exchanged
3.

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

longer

b)

genetic variation

c)

search for mate can expose to disease

d)

takes more energy to find a mate

4.

Hailey is comparing and contrasting various forms of cellular reproduction, and she focuses her research on meiosis. Meiosis is important for sexual reproduction because it gives sex cells (gametes) what unique feature?

a)

They contain only half the genetic material of the parent.

b)

They are able to exist outside of the organism.

c)

They are smaller than all other cells in the body.

d)

They have a very short life span.

5.

Sexual and asexual reproduction allow for transfer of genetic material to offspring. Which of the following is true regarding how mitosis differs from meiosis?

a)

Mitosis is cell reproduction for animals; meiosis is cell reproduction for plants.

b)

Mitosis produces genetically identical cells; meiosis does not.

c)

Meiosis is a form of asexual reproduction; mitosis is a form of sexual reproduction.

d)

Meiosis produces genetically identical cells; mitosis does not.

6.

What happens during meiosis that does NOT happen during mitosis?

a)

new cells are formed

b)

two rounds of cell division

c)

DNA is passed on to the daughter cells

d)

parent cells grow in size before division

7.

How is cancer related to cell division?

a)

Mutations can cause uncontrolled cell division which causes cancerous cells to spread rapidly and take nutrients from healthy cells.

b)

Cancer stops cell division from happening.

c)

Cell division causes viruses that spread around the body and cause cancer.

d)

Cancer is not related to cell division.

8.

What is the effect of crossing over and independent assortment during meiosis?

a)

increased genetic diversity of gametes

b)

decreased genetic diversity of gametes

c)

increased number of daughter cells

d)

decreased number of daughter cells

9.

Any change in the sequence of DNA is a

a)

recombination

b)

mutation

c)

chromatin

d)

independent assortment

10.

In which stage of mitosis, does the cell appear to be resting when in fact it is very busy?

a)

prophase

b)

metaphase

c)

anaphase

d)

interphase

11.

What type of cell in your body undergoes mitosis at the fastest rate/ which may never undergo mitosis after you are born?

a)

blood cells/muscle cells

b)

nerve cells/liver cells

c)

bone cells/spleen cells

d)

skin cells/nerve cells

12.

If the signal to slow down or stop dividing does not come through to a cell, what can be the result?

a)

tumor

b)

freckle

c)

hive

d)

rash

13.

In a human, what is the diploid number of chromosomes in a cell/ what is the haploid number of chromosomes?

a)

2/1

b)

23/46

c)

46/23

d)

92/46

14.

What is the result of crossing over during meiosis?

a)

All gametes are identical

b)

All gametes are different

c)

2 gametes are identical and 2 are identical

d)

3 gametes are identical and 1 is different

15.

"A" represents what?

a)

chromosome

b)

chromatid

c)

centromere

d)

chromatin

16.

"B" represents what?

a)

chromosome

b)

centromere

c)

chromatid

d)

chromatin

17.

"C" represents:

a)

chromosome

b)

chromatids

c)

centromere

d)

chromatin

18.

What type of cell is unspecialized?

a)

blood cell

b)

cancer cell

c)

stem cell

d)

liver cell

19.

When homologous chromosomes find each other and then replicate during meiosis, what do we call this group:

a)

duo

b)

triplet

c)

quadrad

d)

tetrad

20.

When a cell is nearing the end of its life and needs to be replaced, what does it undergo?

a)

necrosis

b)

apoptosis

c)

mitosis

d)

meiosis

21.

What is special about embryonic stem cells?

a)

They can become any type of cell

b)

They are already programmed to become a specific type of cell

c)

They will divide once and then die

d)

They will undergo apoptosis

22.

Which of images represents interphase?

a)

A

b)

C

c)

D

d)

F

23.

The haploid number of chromosomes is referred to as/ the diploid number is referred to as:

a)

H/D

b)

2N/N

c)

N/2N

d)

D/H

24.

Why do most changes to DNA have no effect at all?

a)

Because they're too minor to have any effect

b)

Because the changes are offset by RNA, which cannot change

c)

Because the changes are quickly repaired

d)

Because the changes only occur in a few cells

25.

How are cancerous cells different from normal cells?

a)

Cancerous cells are shaped differently than normal cells

b)

Cancerous cells divide more frequently than normal cells

c)

Cancerous cells contain chemicals not found in normal cells

d)

Cancerous cells need more oxygen than normal cells

26.

Which of the following is an example of a beneficial mutation?

a)

When an organism's lifespan becomes shorter.

b)

When an organism becomes unable to reproduce.

c)

When an organism's body becomes deformed.

d)

When an organism develops immunity to a disease.

27.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
28.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
29.

Which Karyotype displays a female with Down syndrome?

a)
b)
c)
d)
30.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
31.

The rearrangement of whole blocks of genes.Involve changes to a triplet resulting in a different amino acid.

a)

translocation

b)

gene mutation

c)

deletion

d)

missive substitution

32.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
33.
The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?
a)
Mutations are a source of variation in the species
b)
Mutations are the cause of disease in the species
c)
Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells
d)
Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations
34.
A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the sythesis of the segment shown. Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?
a)
methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
b)
methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
c)
Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine
d)
methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
35.
Which mutation will cause translation to stop? 
a)
Mutations 1 and 3 only
b)
Mutation 1 only
c)
Mutation 2 only
d)
Muations 1, 2, 3
36.

Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?

a)

Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring

b)

Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.

c)

No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring

d)

Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.

37.

Which of the following replication enzymes is used to unwind the DNA double helix?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

Primase

c)

DNA ligase

d)

Helicase

38.

Of the following DNA replication enzymes, which one links the Okazaki fragments of the lagging strand?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

39.

DNA replication is semi-conservative. This means that __________.

a)

both double strands have different percentages of nucleotides

b)

both double strands have a newly created strand and an original template strand

c)

an entirely new synthesized DNA molecule is created, while the original double helix stays together

d)

none of the above

40.

Which of the following complementary base pairs are correct?

a)

A - T

b)

T - C

c)

A - G

d)

G - U

41.

Which enzyme catalyzes the elongation of a new DNA strand in the 5' → 3' direction?

a)

Ligase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Lactase

42.

DNA is a polymer made of monomers (building blocks) called

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Proteins

c)

Amino Acids

d)

Lipids

43.

A nitrogenous base is an important component of the nucleotide making up DNA. Which of the following correctly lists the four possible nitrogenous bases in DNA?

a)

glutamine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine

b)

adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

c)

leucine, proline, tyrosine, phenylalanine

d)

adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

44.

What is an Okazaki fragment?

a)

short RNA primers placed before DNA replication starts

b)

long segments of DNA on leading strand

c)

short sequences of DNA which are synthesized discontinuously on lagging strand

d)

a japanese show on netflix

45.

Site or section where double-stranded DNA splits apart into 2 single strands

a)

Leading Strand

b)

Replication Fork

c)

Lagging Strand

d)

RNA primer

46.

Which strand is replicated continuously?

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

c)

Template strand

47.

DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides in the ___________ direction.

a)

5' to 3'

b)

5' to 5'

c)

3' to 5'

d)

3' to 7'

48.

In what process is mRNA synthesized?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Mitosis

49.

Where does TRANSCRIPTION occur?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Mitochondria

50.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

51.

Which of the following is a codon?

a)
b)

ATG

c)

AUG

d)

AUT

52.

On which molecule can an anticodon be found?

a)

mRNA

b)

DNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

53.

What is the purpose for anti-codons?

a)

to ensure the correct amino acid is dropped off

b)

to match the strand of DNA

c)

to decode a sequence of 4 nucleotides into an amino acid

d)

to make me hate biology

54.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

55.

Which two thing are found on a molecule of tRNA?

a)

amino acids; anticodons

b)

amino acids; codons

c)

ribose sugar; proteins

d)

deoxyribose sugar; codons

56.

How do you know when to begin translating a strand of mRNA?

a)

look for AUG

b)

start at the beginning

c)

look for ATG

d)

when Ms. H tells me to

57.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

58.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

59.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
60.

Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.)

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

fatty acids

d)

polysaccharides

61.

The important enzyme related with transcription is;

a)

gyrase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

ligase

62.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

63.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

64.
The function of ______ is to combine with proteins to form ribosomes.
a)
rRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
mRNA
d)
DNA
65.
In proteins, the amino acid order is determined by 
a)
nitrogenous bases in RNA
b)
random placement
c)
nitrogenous bases in DNA
d)
there is no order
66.
In proteins, the amino acid order is determined by 
a)
nitrogenous bases in RNA
b)
random placement
c)
nitrogenous bases in DNA
d)
there is no order
67.

Found as adenine, thymine, cytosine or guanine. Makes the inside "steps" of the DNA ladder

a)

nucleotide

b)

deoxyribose sugar

c)

phosphate

d)

hydrogen bond

e)

nitrogenous base

68.

Pick all of the following that show Chargaff's rule?

a)

40% Adenine 10% Cytosine 40% Thymine 10% Guanine

b)

40% Adenine 40% Cytosine 10% Thymine 10% Guanine

c)

10% Adenine 40% Cytosine 10% Thymine 40% Guanine

d)

25% Adenine 25% Cytosine 25% Thymine 25% Guanine

e)

10% Adenine 40% Cytosine 40% Thymine 10% Guanine

69.

An amino acid chain is produced from the mRNA codons and tRNA anti-codons in the process of ____

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

All of the above

70.

This process or processes occurs in the nucleus

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

All of the above

71.

Transfer RNA (tRNA) is shown as the letter ___?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

72.

A codon is shown as the letter ____ and the anti-codon is ____

a)

B and G

b)

F and E

c)

D and B

d)

H and G

e)

A and C

73.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
74.
Co-dominance ________________
a)
 is a situation in which both alleles are equally strong and both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
b)
 is a situation in which the dominant allele is stronger than the recessive allele, but both alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
c)
 is a situation in which the recessive alleles are stronger than the dominant allele,  within which the recessive alleles are visible in the hybrid genotype
d)
none of the answers are correct.
75.
One of the co-dominant traits studied in class was blood types. If a person has the allele blood type I B i o, what type of blood type does the individual have?
a)
The individual would have blood type A
b)
The individual would have blood type B
c)
The individual would have blood type AB
d)
The individual would have blood type O
76.
If you cross two checkered chickens (Bb x Bb), what would be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
a)
All Checkered
b)
1 Black : 2 Checkered : 1 White
c)
2 Black : 2 White
d)
3 Black : 1 White
77.
R = tongue rolling, r = no tongue rolling. An individual who is Rr can roll their tongue.  What type of inheritance pattern does this follow?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Co-Dominance
d)
Sex-linked
78.
What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Co-Dominance
d)
Sex-linked
79.
If a man with straight hair marries a woman with curly hair, all of their children have wavy hair.  What type of inheritance pattern does this follow?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Co-Dominance
d)
Sex-linked
80.
Cross a roan cow (pictured here Rr) with a white cow (rr), what will be the resulting phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
a)
All Roan cows
b)
All White cows
c)
50% Roan : 50% White
d)
50% Red : %50 White
81.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
82.
Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
1/16
d)
16/16
83.
A male beetle has the genotype Ttbb. If this beetle mates with a female with genotype TTBb, what is the chance their offspring will have the genotype TtBb?
a)
3/16
b)
4/16
c)
8/16
d)
12/16
84.
What proportion of the offspring in Figure 11-4 would be expected to have white, smooth hair?
a)
9/16
b)
3/16
c)
4/16
d)
1/16
85.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

86.

In Mendel's experiments, if the gene for tall (T) plants was incompletely dominant over the gene for short (t) plants, what would be the result of crossing two Tt plants?

a)

2 Tall 2 Short Plants

b)

1 Tall 3 Short Plants

c)

3 Tall 1 Short Plants

d)

4 Tall 0 Short Plants

87.

What information can you gather about the pictured monohybrid cross? (Select all that apply!)

a)

2/4 are male

b)

The monohybrid cross shows an autosomal trait

c)

The monohybrid cross shows a sex-linked trait

d)

The outcome in red is showing a male with a recessive trait

88.
This scientist(s) found a "transforming principle" that changed harmless bacteria into harmful bacteria
a)
Mendel
b)
Avery
c)
Chargraff
d)
Griffith
89.
The scientist(s) who settled the debate about whether it was proteins or DNA that was the genetic material of the cell
a)
Avery
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Watson & Crick
d)
Griffith
90.
The scientist(s) who discovered dominant and recessive traits
a)
Mendel
b)
Avery
c)
Griffith
d)
Watson & Crick
91.
Scientist(s) who used chemical analysis to show that the genetic material in bacteria was DNA
a)
Griffith
b)
Hershey & Chase
c)
Mendel
d)
Avery
92.
In the early 1900s, most scientists thought it was _____________ that carried traits form parent to offspring. 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
DNA
93.
By using radioactive isotopes, Hershey and Chase were able to conclude that __ is/are the carrier(s) of genetic information.
a)
nucleic acid
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Lipids
94.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
95.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
96.
Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
97.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
98.

prions are

a)

contagious segments of RNA

b)

the first amino acid in eukaryotic proteins

c)

the proteins that DNA winds around

d)

misfolded proteins

99.

A virus that has RNA as its genetic material is known as a ___________.

a)

CRISPR

b)

viroid

c)

bacteriophage

d)

retrovirus

100.

During which process do two bacterial cells join together to transfer genetic material?

a)

transduction

b)

conjugation

c)

binary fission

d)

asexual reproduction

101.

Which of the following occurs when a virus infects a bacterium and leaves behind new genes from a different bacterium?

a)

transduction

b)

conjugation

c)

transformation

d)

binary fission

102.

Which one of the following statement are not attributed to plasmids

a)

they are circular DNA molecule

b)

they have antibiotic resistant genes

c)

they have the ability of autonomous replication

d)

they have DNA that is as long as chromosomal DNA

103.

Which of the following is required for repairing the phosphodiester backbone of DNA during molecular cloning?

a)

cDNA

b)

reverse transcriptase

c)

restriction enzymes

d)

DNA ligase

104.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
105.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
106.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
107.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
108.
Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation from the following DNA sequence: 
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA  AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
109.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
110.
What does the lactose do to the Operon? 
a)
Blocks transcription because of the energy it provides
b)
Allows the repressor to be unbind from the Operator.
c)
The lactose binds the lactose and stops transcription
d)
Allows for the transcription to speed
111.
What structure of this molecule binds with the mRNA molecule?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
tRNA
c)
Anticodon
d)
Codon
112.

What is an operon?

a)

a part of a ribsome

b)

a part of a Rna

c)

a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task

d)

needed for dna replication

113.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
114.

What does a promoter do?

a)

binds RNA polymerase for transcription

b)

binds DNA polymerase for replication

c)

binds the operator

d)

binds the repressor

115.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
116.
In cloning, what is the purpose of the surrogate mother? 
a)
Donate her DNA
b)
Donate her egg cell
c)
Incubate and carry the baby until birth
d)
Nothing.  She's useless.
117.
T6- Combining DNA from 2 different organisms is called
a)
Bioengineering
b)
Biotechnology
c)
Recombinant DNA
d)
Genetic Engineering
118.
T6- How do scientists cut DNA into smaller strands?
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
scissors
c)
ligase
d)
agarose

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119 questions

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