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Mol Bio

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Organelle in eukaryotic cells that is the site of cellular respiration that burns sugar with oxygen to produce energy, carbon dioxide, and water.

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Vacuoles

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Golgi Apparatus

2.

Which of the following are basic needs for plants to make food, but not for animals.

a)

Water and oxygen

b)

Acid rain

c)

Sunlight, CO2, and soil

d)

Glucose

3.

Which best describes how organisms obtain energy from food?

a)

Food (Glucose) reacts with water to release energy during photosynthesis.

b)

Food (Glucose) reacts with oxygen to release energy (ATP) during cellular respiration.

c)

Food (Glucose) reacts with sunlight to release energy during photosynthesis.

d)

Food (Glucose) reacts with carbon dioxide to release energy during cellular respiration.

4.

How are plant cells and human cells the same?

a)

They can produce their own oxygen.

b)

They can receive nutrients through the cell wall.

c)

They make their own glucose from sunlight during photosynthesis.

d)

They use mitochondria to release energy from glucose during cellular respiration.

5.
Which best explains why some fats are recommended as part of a healthy diet?
a)
Fats provide the body with the chemicals necessary for controlling the pH of the blood.
b)
Fats act as a catalyst, reacting with the sugars in fruits and vegetables.
c)
Fats provide the body and its organs with insulation and protection.
6.

Which best describes the nutrients that are sources of energy for the body?

a)

fats and proteins

b)

fats and carbohydrates

c)

water and carbohydrates

d)

Calcium and fiber

7.
Units of heat that measure the energy used by the body and the energy that foods supply to the body.
a)
Nutrients
b)
Calories
c)
Appetite
d)
Nutrition
8.

Which choice describes a chromosome in a prokaryotic cell?

a)

linear in the nucleus

b)

circular in the nucleus

c)

linear in the cytoplasm

d)

circular in the cytoplasm

9.

What is the correct description of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

many linear pieces of DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

many linear pieces of DNA in the nucleus

c)

one circular piece of DNA in the cytoplasm

d)

many circular pieces of DNA in the nucleus

10.

Which choices describe DNA replication?

a)

semiconservative

b)

produces two pieces of DNA identical to the original

c)

products are half original and half new

d)

all of the above

11.

What is the process for making another DNA copy of a chromosome?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

chromatin

12.

Where in the cell does DNA replication occur?

a)

always the cytoplasm

b)

always the nucleus

c)

in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the nucleus in prokaryotes

d)

in the cytoplasm in prokaryotes and the nucleus in eukaryotes

13.

What is the enzyme responsible for DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

14.

What does DNA polymerase do?

a)

connects sugars and phosphates with weak hydrogen bonds

b)

connects sugars and phosphates with strong covalent bonds

c)

connects bases with strong hydrogen bonds

d)

connects bases with strong covalent bonds

15.

What are the 2 functions of DNA polymerase?

a)

makes DNA and RNA

b)

makes DNA and protein

c)

makes DNA and fixes its mistakes

d)

makes RNA and protein

16.

What is the structure of the DNA during DNA replication?

a)

wrapped around histones in chromatin form

b)

tightly coiled into chromosomes

c)

just as it appears in a karyotype

d)

DNA has no structure during replication

17.

When in the cell cycle is DNA replication?

a)

S phase of interphase

b)

Go of interphase

c)

mitosis

d)

meiosis

18.

Where does transcription take place in a cell?

a)

always in the nucleus

b)

always in the cytoplasm

c)

in the nucleus in eukaryotes and the cytoplasm in prokaryotes

d)

in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes and the nucleus in prokaryotes

19.

Which of the following describes the product of transcription?

a)

contains ribose and U''s

b)

contains deoxyribose and T's

c)

contains ribose and T's

d)

contains deoxyribose and U's

20.

What is the first step in both replication and transcription?

a)

DNA is unzipped

b)

weak hydrogen bonds are broken

c)

DNA strands separate

d)

all of the above

21.

Which of the following describes the products of transcription?

a)

long, double stranded RNA

b)

short, double stranded DNA

c)

long, single stranded RNA

d)

short, single stranded RNA

22.

Following transcription in eukaryotes, the RNA

a)

stays in the nucleus

b)

is made into mRNA and goes to the cytoplasm

c)

goes directly to the cytoplasm without changes

d)

goes back to the nucleus for changes

23.

In replication, ______________ DNA strands are copied and in transcription ____________________ DNA strands are copied.

a)

only one of the, both

b)

both, only one of the

c)

both, both

d)

only one of the, only one of the

24.

rRNA is

a)

used as a template to make protein

b)

part of a ribosome

c)

a small molecule used by the ribosome and is not made into protein

d)

all of the above

25.

mRNA is

a)

used as a template to make protein

b)

part of a ribosme

c)

a small molecule used by the ribosome and is not made into protein

d)

all of the above

26.

What happens to an mRNA when the protein it is used to make is no longer needed?

a)

it is broken down into amino acids and they are reused

b)

it is broken down into nucleotides and they are reused

c)

it is broken down into glucose and reused

d)

it goes back to the nucleus

27.

Where are rRNA and tRNA made in the cell?

a)

the nucleolus in the cytoplasm

b)

the nucleolus in the mitochondria

c)

the nucleolus in the nucleus

d)

always in the cytoplasm

28.

tRNA is

a)

used as a template to make protein

b)

part of a ribosome

c)

a small molecule used by the ribosome and is not made into protein

d)

all of the above

29.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
CAT TCA CTG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
30.
Based on the diagram, how many origins of replication are represented?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
31.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
32.
This picture is illustrating the ____ nature of DNA.
a)
anti-parallel
b)
deoxyribosic
c)
helical
d)
radioactive
33.
The enzyme that splits open the DNA creates what's called a fork - where the DNA separates into the lagging strand and the ______ strand.
a)
leading
b)
leveraging
c)
Okazaki
d)
ligase
34.

Eukaryotes differ from prokaryote in mechanism of DNA replication due to ____________

a)

Use of DNA primer rather than RNA primer

b)

Different enzyme for synthesis of lagging and leading strand

c)

Discontinuous rather than semi-discontinuous replication

d)

Unidirectional rather than semi-discontinuous replication

35.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
36.
Based on the diagram, the enzyme (represented in gray) is most likely...
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
DNA Ligase
c)
Nuclease
d)
Helicase
37.
Which enzyme seals okazaki fragments together on the lagging strand?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Polymerase
d)
Ligase
38.

Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides to the free three prime end

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymersase 3

d)

DNA Polymersase 1

39.

What are three parts of a DNA nucleotide?

a)

Phosphate group

b)

Sugar

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogenous base

40.

What is RNA?

a)

A nucleic acid that processes all steps of protein synthesis in all living cells.

b)

A molecule that contains the genetic code of organisms.

c)

The process in which cells make proteins.

d)

A gene that is damaged or changed in a way to alter the genetic message carried by that gene.

41.

What is transcription?

a)

A molecule that contains the genetic code for organisms.

b)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

c)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

d)

The process in which cells make proteins

42.

What is translation?

a)

The RNA → Protein part of the central dogma

b)

The DNA → RNA part of the central dogma of molecular biology

c)

The process in which cells make proteins

d)

A molecule that contains the genetic code of organisms.

43.

How many cells at least does your genes have?

a)

50,000

b)

30,000

c)

20,000

d)

40,000

44.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
45.
Most gene regulation happens at which step along the way?
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
signal transduction
d)
DNA replication
46.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
47.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
48.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
49.
What is the name given to part of a DNA molecule that codes for a protein?
a)
Glucose
b)
Chromosome
c)
Gene
d)
Phosphate
50.
What does the lactose do to the Operon? 
a)
Blocks transcription because of the energy it provides
b)
Allows the repressor to be unbind from the Operator.
c)
The lactose binds the lactose and stops transcription
d)
Allows for the transcription to speed
51.
Which of the following statements regarding mRNA is correct?
a)
Exons are included in the protein sequence, while introns are left out
b)
Introns are included in the protein sequence, while exons are left out
c)
Exons and Introns can both be included or left out depending on the protein
d)
Exons and Introns are both part of the mRNA sequence, but only exons are part of the rRNA and tRNA
52.
Which of the following statements regarding mRNA is correct?
a)
Exons are included in the protein sequence, while introns are left out
b)
Introns are included in the protein sequence, while exons are left out
c)
Exons and Introns can both be included or left out depending on the protein
d)
Exons and Introns are both part of the mRNA sequence, but only exons are part of the rRNA and tRNA
53.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
54.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
55.
What structure of this molecule binds with the mRNA molecule?
a)
Amino Acid
b)
tRNA
c)
Anticodon
d)
Codon
56.

Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

c)

animals only

d)

viruses

57.

What is the name of the stretch of DNA where RNA polymerase binds?

a)

operator

b)

promoter

c)

enhancer

d)

regulatory gene

58.

A key advantage of grouping genes with related functions is that a single "on-off" switch can control the whole cluster.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the

a)

promoter

b)

enhancer

c)

operator

d)

gene

60.

What is a gene?

a)

A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein

b)

The portion of the chromosome that does not get transcribed

c)

A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein

d)

The collection of your chromosomes

61.

A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase

a)

inducer

b)

repressor

c)

activator

d)

corepressor

62.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
63.
A small molecule that binds to a repressor and makes it active
a)
repressor
b)
regulator
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
64.
A small molecule that binds to the repressor and makes it inactive is
a)
corepressor
b)
inducer
c)
promoter
d)
operator
65.

The tryptophan operon is

a)

permanently turned on.

b)

turned on when tryptophan is present in the growth medium.

c)

turned off only when glucose is present in the growth medium.

d)

turned off when tryptophan is added to the growth medium.

66.

In the lac operon model, the genes within the operon will be expressed if

a)

lactose is absent in the cell

b)

glucose is present in the cell

c)

lactose is present in the cell

d)

tryptophan is present

67.

The purpose of the lac operon is to produce enzymes that

a)

synthesize lactose

b)

use lactose

c)

synthesize tryptophan

d)

use tryptophan

68.

The lac operon is referred to as a(n) __________ operon.

a)

inducible

b)

repressible

c)

audible

d)

inaudible

69.
what does a promoter do?
a)
it allows a gene to be transcribed
b)
it creates a DNA segment
c)
it is another word for ribosomes
d)
it is another word for RNA
70.
An operon consists of all the the following EXCEPT
a)
operator
b)
promoter
c)
regulatory gene
d)
genes of the operon
71.
A small molecule that binds to a repressor and makes it active
a)
repressor
b)
regulator
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
72.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
73.
When a gene does not transcribe unless turned on by activator , it is considered _____ control
a)
positive
b)
negative
74.
When a gene transcribes unless turned off by a repressor, it is considered _____ control
a)
negative
b)
positive
75.
All of the following are true about DNA methylation EXCEPT
a)
takes place on the DNA
b)
enzymes add a methyl group
c)
when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
76.
Inheritance of traits by mechanisms not directly involving nucleotide sequence is called
a)
epigenetic inheritance
b)
differential gene expression
c)
chromosomal inheritance
d)
gene regulation
77.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for transcription
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
78.
In eukaryotes, a cluster of proteins that assemble on the promoter is called the
a)
transcription initiation complex
b)
control element
c)
activator
d)
protein blobby thing
79.
differentiation and morphogenesis are controlled by internal transcription factors, proteins and organelles in the cell... this is called
a)
cytoplasmic determinants 
b)
inductive signals
c)
endosymbiotic theory
d)
epigenetic inheritance
80.
In embryonic development, the physical process of an organism developing its shape is called
a)
differentiation
b)
morphogenesis
c)
cell division
d)
topoisomerase
81.
Translation takes place in the 
a)
ribosome
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
82.
What would be the tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon CAG?
a)
GTC
b)
GUC
c)
CUG
d)
CAG
83.
Brings the amino acids to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
84.
What type of bonds are forming during translation?
a)
Peptide bonds
b)
Hydrogen bonds
c)
Acid bonds
85.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
86.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
87.
EXTRA AWESOME QUESTION: Which types of cells can begin the process of translation even before the mRNA has been completely transcribed?  
a)
Eukaryotes
b)
Prokaryotes
c)
Both Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes can
d)
No cells can can do this
88.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
89.
The job of tRNA is to
a)
carry amino acids to the ribisomes
b)
carry ribisomes to the ER
c)
carry glucose to mitochondria
d)
carry mRNA out of the nucleus
90.
What would happen if we did not have start codons?
a)
Polypeptide chains would continue to grow
b)
Amino acids would bind to tRNA
c)
Protein synthesis wouldn't occur
d)
mRNA would form a double strand
91.
Which of the following occurs first in translation?
a)
The small ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
b)
The large ribosomal subunit binds to mRNA
c)
tRNA binds to the mRNA
d)
A peptide bond forms between amino acids
92.
What would be the tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon CAG?
a)
GTC
b)
GUC
c)
CUG
d)
CAG
93.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
94.

This point is translated 3 right and 2 down. Which diagram shows the new position of the point?

a)
b)
c)
d)
95.

Why must transcription occur where DNA can be found?

a)

because DNA can't leave

b)

because ribosomes are in the nucleus

c)

because DNA polymerase is found there

d)

because helicase unzips the DNA

96.

TRANSCRIBE this DNA sequence: TACGTTACT

a)

AUGCAAUGA

b)

ATGCAATGA

c)

AUGGATUGA

d)

TACGTTACT

97.

A polypeptide is a sequence of ____________________ held together by a ______________ bond.

a)

amino acids; peptide

b)

fatty acids; ionic

c)

proteins; hydrogen

d)

fatty acids; covalent

98.

TRANSLATE this RNA sequence: AUGCAAUGA

a)

Met-Glu-Stop

b)

Met-His-Stop

c)

Thr-Glu-Stop

d)

Thr-Pro-Stop

99.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
100.
Which of the following is the template for the production of RNA within a cell?
a)
DNA
b)
protein
c)
ATO
d)
carbohydrate
101.
The DNA sequence ATCAGCGCTGGC is part of a gene. how many amino acids are coded for by this message?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
12
d)
20
102.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
103.
What are the backbones (sides) of the DNA structure made up of?
a)
repeating phosphates and sugars
b)
nitrogen bases
c)
nucleotides
d)
adenine and thymine
104.

True or False: The sugar in a nucleotide of DNA is called deoxyribose.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

True or False: RNA is double stranded.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

What type of RNA moves to the ribosome to start protein synthesis?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

nRNA

107.

Which macromolecule is made up of amino acids?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

108.

mRNA is read into amino acids during what process?

a)

transcription

b)

transfer

c)

translation

d)

transition

109.

RNA polymerase reads the mRNA strand in which direction?

a)

3' to 5' direction

b)

5' to 3' direction

110.

mRNA is made in which direction?

a)

5' to 3' direction

b)

3' to 5' direction

111.

Where would you find the anti-codon?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

ribosome

d)

rRNA

112.

What do tRNA bring to the ribosome?

a)

glucose

b)

fatty acids

c)

nucleotides

d)

amino acids

113.
What is a Codon?
a)
4 base pairs that transfer to amino acids
b)
3 base pairs that transfer to amino acids
c)
3 base pairs that transfer to DNA
d)
3 base pairs that transfer to mRNA
114.
When transferring tRNA to amino acids, the process cannot begin until it reaches a...
a)
Beginning codon
b)
Start codon 
c)
Initiator codon
d)
Anticodon
115.
The process of transferring the codons to the amino acids ends with what codon?
a)
Stop
b)
Terminal
c)
End
d)
Cancel 
116.
The job of tRNA is to...
a)
carry amino acids to the ribosomes 
b)
carry ribosomes to the ER
c)
carry mRNA out of the nucleus
d)
carry glucose to mitochondria

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