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Exam #2 Mock

Total questions: 54

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nurse is teaching a female client who has a severe UTI about ciprofloxacin. Which of the following information about adverse reactions should the nurse include? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Observe for pain and swelling of the achilles tendon

b)

Watch for a vaginal yeast infection

c)

Expect excessive nighttime perspiration

d)

Inspect the mouth for cottage cheese like lesions

e)

Take the medication with a dairy product

2.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a UTI and a history of recurrence of this type of infection. The client asks why the provider has not yet prescribed an antibiotic. The nurse should explain that the provider has to wait for the results of which of the following lab tests to identify which antibiotic to prescribe? (Select all that apply)

a)

Gram Stain

b)

Culture

c)

Sensitivity

d)

Specific Gravity

3.

Which assessment is of greatest priority for the nurse to complete before administering penicillin?

a)

Allergy History

b)

BUN

c)

Temperature

d)

Wound Drainage

4.

Your patient is starting Carbamazepine. What will you teach your patient before they are discharged?

a)

“It is okay to stop taking these if your symptoms are improving”

b)

“You may experience pink/red urine”

c)

“You can take this medicine at any time of the day, it is not pertinent to take at the same time every day.”

d)

“This medication may cause mood swings.”

5.

What are adverse effects of Vancomycin? (SATA)

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Leukocytopenia

c)

Red man syndrome

d)

Hepatotoxicity

e)

Thrombophlebitis

6.

A nurse is infusing IV amphotericin B to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Constipation

c)

Fever

d)

Hyperkalemia

7.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has increased intraocular pressure. The provider has ordered a cholinergic agonist. The nurse will perform a thorough health history to make sure the patient does not have a history of which condition?

a)

Asthma

b)

Diabetes

c)

Hypertension

d)

Renal Disease

8.

Patients prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) should be instructed regarding the potential

life-threatening drug interaction with which medication?

a)

Warfarin

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Acetaminophen

d)

Aspirin

9.

What common side effect would the nurse include in the discharge teaching for a patient

receiving finasteride (Proscar)?

a)

Hair loss

b)

increased libido

c)

ejaculatory dysfunction

d)

muscle weakness

10.

The nurse is teaching patients with glaucoma to self-administer their medications. Which

patient teaching should the nurse provide?

a)

Apply an ointment under the upper eyelid

b)

Allow eyedrops to fall on the conjunctival sac

c)

Allow all excess medication to be absorbed slowly

d)

Wipe the eyes with a warm compress after administering eye drops

11.

The nurse is providing education to a patient and the patient's caregiver, who is pregnant, on the medication finasteride for treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). What important teaching would the nurse provide to the patient and the patient's caregiver about this medication?

a)

Instruct to put the drug into a container with other medications

b)

Notify your health care provider for an erection that lasts 2 hours

c)

Take the medication with dairy containing products such as milk or yogurt

d)

emphasize that it should not be handled by pregnant women because of teratogenic effects

12.

What kind of extrapyramidal symptoms might a patient experience when taking haloperidol for an extended period of time?

a)

Dizziness and drowsiness

b)

Muscle twitches and tremors

c)

Dry mouth and constipation

d)

Nausea and vomiting

13.

A patient tells the nurse they have an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following drug classes would raise concern if ordered for this patient?

a)

Cephalosporins

b)

Quinolone

c)

Tetracyclines

d)

Sulfonamides

14.

A patient is taking a tetracycline antibiotic. Which statement by the patient would indicate that further teaching is needed?

a)

“I don’t need to avoid aged cheeses while taking this medication.”

b)

“I should continue taking this medication for the entire prescribed course of therapy.”

c)

“I can lay out in the sun like I do for a couple hours each day to get my Vitamin C.”

d)

“I should avoid taking antacids while on this medication.”

15.

The nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse concludes that the client has a sufficient knowledge if the client states that:

a)

“Wearing a medical alert tag is not required”.

b)

“Alcohol is permitted while taking this medication”.

c)

“I can take the medicine with milk”.

d)

“Have the serum phenytoin level taken before giving the medication”.

16.

Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is prescribed to an 8-year-old child for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The nurse will most likely monitor which of the following during the medication therapy?

a)

Deep tendon reflex

b)

Intake and output

c)

Temperature and breath sound

d)

Height and weight

17.

Which should you avoid while taking MAOIs? (SATA)

a)

Smoked fish/meats

b)

Avocados

c)

Figs

d)

Most cheeses

e)

Import beers

18.

A patient is taking a newly prescribed anti-epileptic drug. What statement by the patient would require prompt educating and correcting by the nurse?

a)

I will take extra care of my teeth and maintain my really dental appointments while on these medications

b)

I can stop taking these medications when I’m not having seizures

c)

I should not drink while taking these medications

d)

I should take these medications exactly as prescribed without skipping doses

19.

A client is prescribed with carbamazepine (Tegretol) for the treatment of bipolar disorder. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is experiencing a side effect of this medication?

a)

Neutrophil count of 1,200/mm3

b)

Platelet count of 160,000/mm3

c)

Uric acid level of 4mg/dl

d)

SGPT (ALT) level 50 units per liter of serum

20.

A female client who has a history of seizures went to a healthcare facility to ask the nurse regarding the use of birth control pills while on phenytoin therapy. The nurse correctly states to the client that:

a)

Taking phenytoin decreases the effectiveness of birth control pills

b)

Pregnancy is not allowed while taking phenytoin

c)

There is no known interactions between these medicines so there is nothing to worry about

d)

To discontinue phenytoin and proceed with the oral contraceptive

21.

A nurse provides instructions to a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac) a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant. The nurse tells the client to take the medication:

a)

Early in the morning

b)

During lunch time

c)

At snack time

d)

At bedtime

22.

Quinolones are a class of antibiotics known for several significant complications. Which are possible adverse effects with these drugs? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Prolongation of the QT interval

b)

Ototoxicity

c)

Nephrotoxicity

d)

Tendon rupture

23.

When providing instructions to clients on use of antibiotics, which instructions would the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Wash your hands before and after preparing food

b)

Complete the entire course of therapy

c)

Increase fluid intake up to 3000 mL/day

d)

Save unused medication in a cool dry place for later use

e)

Notify the provider of any possible reactions that occur

24.

What is a common side effect of Phenytoin?

a)

excessive thirst

b)

weight gain

c)

muscle tremors

d)

gingival hyperplasia

25.

The patient has been prescribed amitriptyline as an adjunct to therapy for depression. What information will the nurse include in the health teaching regarding this medication?

a)

"Check your heart rate daily. It may become very slow"

b)

"You should start to feel less depressed within 12 hours"

c)

"Take your medication in the morning because it will make you alert"

d)

"Stand up slowly when you rise out of the bed or chair"

26.

A pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. The nurse determines that the client is experiencing toxicity from the medication if which finding is noted on assessment?

a)

proteinuria 3+

b)

respirations of 10/min

c)

presence of deep tendon reflexes

d)

serum magnesium level of 6 mEq/L

27.

A client in preterm labor (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client's labor can be inhibited for the next 48 hrs, the nurse anticipates a prescription for which medication?

a)

nalbuphine

b)

betamethasone (Celestone)

c)

Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

d)

Dinoprostone (Cercidil vaginal insert)

28.

Methylergonovine is prescribed for a woman to treat postpartum hemorrhage. Before administration of methylergonovine, what is the priority nursing assessment?

a)

uterine tone

b)

blood pressure

c)

amount of lochia

d)

deep tendon reflexes

29.

A nurse is instructing a client regarding carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease. The nurse tells the client which of the following indicates an overdose of the medication?

a)

Difficulty performing a voluntary movement

b)

Increased blood pressure

c)

Decreased appetite

d)

Black tarry stools

30.

How do you feel about this exam?

a)

Meh

b)

okay

c)

no idea

d)

I am confident

31.

When someone is STATUS EPILEPETICUS! What will we administer?

a)

Pregabalin

b)

Carbamazepine

c)

Diazepam

d)

Gabapentin

32.

A nurse is infusing IV amphotericin B to a client who has a systemic fungal infection. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Constipation

c)

Fever

d)

Hyperkalemia

33.

A patient tells the nurse that they are sexually active and on oral contraceptives, which medication in the patients health history probes the nurse to ask about the use of a 2nd form of contraception?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Erythromycin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Vancomycin

34.

A patient comes to the emergency department exhibiting signs of an overdose. The patients wife tells the nurse that he usually takes Phenobarbital for seizures. The patient is barely breathing and not responsive to stimuli. What should be the nurses first action of the following?

a)

Maintain airway and support respiratory system

b)

Administer Lisinopril to decrease BP

c)

Administer Narcan

d)

Start IV fluids

35.

What is the first thing we do when giving an antibiotic through IV infusion and we notice that the patient is presenting with signs of an allergic reaction?

a)

Assess patient's V/S

b)

Stop infusion immediately

c)

Call HCP

d)

Increase IV flow rate

36.

What order do we collect lab work when a patient has an infection? Of the following: blood culture, antibiotic dose, urine culture?

a)

Blood culture, urine culture, and antibiotic dose

b)

urine culture, blood culture, and antibiotic dose

c)

antibiotic dose, blood culture, and urine culture

37.

What is our main concern when a patient that has been taking antibiotics for 2 weeks and complains of watery diarrhea for two days with a temp of 102?

a)

C DIFF

b)

Dysentery

c)

Sepsis

38.

Select all that apply. When assessing for adverse effects of cholinergic-blocking drug therapy, the nurse knows that the patient may experience which drug effect?

a)

Dry mouth

b)

Urinary frequency

c)

Constipation

d)

Dilated pupils

e)

Diaphoresis

39.

The nurse would be concerned about the increased possibility of an allergic reaction when administering which antibiotics if the patient’s allergy record includes penicillin allergy?

a)

Ampicillin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Carbenicillin

d)

Cephalexin

40.

The nurse is teaching a client who is beginning a course of metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client as a priority to stop taking metronidazole and notify the provider?

a)

Metallic taste (In the book)

b)

Nausea

c)

Ataxia

d)

Dark-colored urine

41.

A patient is taking lithium. The nurse should be aware of the importance of which nursing intervention(s)? (Select all that apply.)

a)

Observe the patient for motor tremors

b)

Monitor the patient for hypotension

c)

Draw lithium blood levels immediately after a dose

d)

Advise the patient to avoid caffeinated foods and beverages

e)

Teach the patient to take lithium with meals to decrease gastric irritation

42.

Phenytoin has been prescribed for a patient with seizures. The nurse should include which appropriate nursing intervention in the plan of care?

a)

Report an abnormal phenytoin level of 18 mcg/mL

b)

Monitor complete blood count levels for early detection of blood dyscrasias

c)

Encourage the patient to brush teeth vigorously to prevent plaque buildup

d)

Teach the patient to stop the drug immediately when passing pinkish-red or reddish-brown urine

43.

Changes in visual acuity and color perception are associated with treatment by which of the following agents?

a)

INH (isoniazid)

b)

PZA (pyrazinamide)

c)

ETH (ethambutol)

d)

SM (streptomycin)

44.

Which of the following groups of anti-tubercular agents includes first-line agents?

a)

INH, PZA, RIF

b)

SM, PAS, INH

c)

EMB, PAS, INH

d)

INH, cycloserine, RIF

45.

Alice is using antiviral creams for her genital herpes. Which of the following is a potential side effect of the medication?

a)

Vulvitis

b)

Headache

c)

Dizziness

d)

Staining of the skin

46.

A nurse is providing instructions to a client receiving baclofen (Lioresal). Which of the following would be included in the teaching plan?

a)

Limit fluid intake

b)

Hold the medication if diarrhea occurs

c)

Restrict alcohol intake

d)

Notify the physician if weakness occurs

47.

A nurse is analyzing the laboratory studies on a client receiving dantrolene sodium (Dantrium). Which of the following laboratory tests would identify an adverse effect associated with the use of the medication

a)

Blood urea nitrogen

b)

Creatinine

c)

Liver function test

d)

Triglyceride

48.

Which of the following laboratory tests must be monitored for pregnant patients receiving betamethosone?

a)

Random blood sugar

b)

Serum Calcium

c)

Red blood cell count

d)

Uric Acid

49.

Which group of drugs mimics parasympathetic activity?

a)

Cholinergic agents

b)

Anticholinergic agents

c)

Adrenergic agents

d)

Antiadrenergic agents

50.

Cholinergic agents are used to:

a)

Produce miosis

b)

Facilitate neuromuscular blockade

c)

Synergize neuromuscular blockers

d)

Facilitate tricyclic activity

51.

Cholinergics are contraindicated in:

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Hypothyroidism

c)

Hypotension

d)

Asthma

52.

Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated in:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Pheochromocytoma

c)

Migraines

d)

Obstructive airway disease

53.

A side effect of cholinergic administration is:

a)

Nausea

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Increase salivation

d)

All of the above

54.

What preanesthetic medication does the nurse recognize as being administered primarily to reduce anxiety?

a)

Morphine

b)

Nitrous oxide

c)

Midazolam

d)

Demerol