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Madras OP LECOM P1

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is true about cortical bone?

a)

it is compact bone and make up 80% of bone type

b)

it is cancellous and make up 20% of bone type

c)

forms compact shell around bone

d)

formed in layers and highly calcified

e)

vertebrae, end of long bones, pelvis, wrist, ankle, ribs

2.

What is false about trabecular bone?

a)

also called cancellous and makes up 20% of bones

b)

surface of long and flat bones (forearm, hip)

c)

interior structure

d)

greatest bone turnover

e)

high amount of osteoclast and osteoblast

3.

T/F In bones, proteins provides elasticity and flexibility while minerals provides strength and rigidity

a)

True

b)

False

4.

T/F In young adults, osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity is equal to maintain skeletal bone because there is no remodeling

a)

True

b)

False. Osteoblastic activity is greater than osteoclastic activity

c)

False. Constant remodeling

5.

What is false about osteoblast

a)

promotes mineralization

b)

regulated by calcitriol, estrogen, PTH

c)

release enzyme and metabolic acids

d)

normal aging, there is a progressive decrease in osteoblasts and activity

6.

When RANKL binds to RANK what happens?

a)

fusion of osteoclast precursors into multinucleated cells, differentiation into mature osteoclasts, causes osteoblast to attach to bone surface, osteoblast activate to form bone

b)

fusion of osteoclast precursors into multinucleated cells, differentiate into mature osteoclasts, osteoclast attach to bone surfaces, osteoclast activate to resorb bone, osteoclast apoptosis

c)

fusion of osteoclast precursors into multinucleated cells, differentiate into mature osteoclasts, osteoclast attach to bone surfaces, osteoclast activate to resorb bone, osteoclast survival by preventing apoptosis

7.

T/F Vitamin D2 and D3 are referred to as vitamin D

a)

True

b)

False

8.

What are 3 functions of vitamin D to maintain ca levels

a)

decrease renal reabsorption

b)

increase intestinal absorption of Ca, phosphorous, and magnesium

c)

stimulates bone resorption depending on Ca level in blood

d)

inactivates when there is too much calcium

e)

acts with PTH to maintain free Ca level in blood

9.

What is true about PTH and vitamin D

a)

excess PTH decrease bone resoprtion

b)

PTH and vitaminD promote formation and resorption partially by increasing osteoblast and osteoclast

c)

PTH and vitamin D increase renal Ca retention, but PTH promotes renal phosphate excretion

d)

PTH inhibits renal phosphate excretion

10.

What is osteoporosis?

a)

bone loss= resorption> formation

b)

high bone mass, disruption of bone architecure

c)

increases with age

d)

low BMD increase fracture risk

11.

What is ways to quantify bone loss?

a)

SXA

b)

PIRO

c)

BMX

d)

DEXA

12.

If a patient has a z score of -2.5, does this patient have osteoporosis.

a)

No. A z score is a secondary diagnosis. Needs a t score below -2 for diagnosis with OP

b)

Yes. Z score is a a diagnostic tool

c)

No. Z score below -2 is within normal range

13.

When to order DEXA scan

a)

all women >65 and all men >70

b)

Adults with fragility fractures

c)

before giving pharmacologic therapy for osteoporosis

d)

to monitor osteoporosis treatment

e)

adults taking meds associated with low bone mass

14.

Which statement is true about bone physiology and pathology?

a)

Estrogen is important in women and men to prevent resorption

b)

Bone loss due to aging is predominately from increased osteoclast apoptosis

c)

Osteoprotegerin prevents RANKL from binding to the WNT signalng pathway

d)

Sclerostin inhibits cathepsin K, thereby decreasing bone resorption

15.

FRAX should be used to calculate fracture risk in which patient to determine whether there is a need for therapy

a)

70 year old man currently on denosumab therapy

b)

a postmenopausal woman with a t-score of the lumbar spine of -3

c)

a 58 year old postmenopausal woman with past breast cancer currently on raloxifene

d)

a 66 year old woman with a t score of a total hip of -2

e)

a 70 year old woman with a t score of the spine of -3 and a low trauma vertebral fracture

16.

A patient's T score of DXA are femoral neck (right) -2.2 and lumbar spine -2.8. How would interpret these DXA results?

a)

Normal bone density

b)

Low bone density (osteopenia)

c)

Osteoporosis

17.

A 65-year-old woman is taking osteoporosis prescription medication. She has high blood pressure, hypercholesterolemia, and type 2 diabetes. She has a problem with constipation. After using motivational interviewing, you find she cannot increase her diet to achieve the recommended daily allowances. Her current intake of calcium = 700 mg and vitamin D = 100 units. Which is the best supplement recommendation?

a)

Calcium 250 mg plus 400 units vitamin D combo bid

b)

Calcium citrate 600 mg daily, vitamin D 800 units daily

c)

Calcium carbonate 1200 mg daily, vitamin D 400 units daily

d)

Two multivitamins daily

18.

Which of the following should be completed prior to initiating therapy with denosumab?

a)

Correct any underlying hypocalcemia prior to administration

b)

Educate the patient on the need to remain upright after administration

c)

Inform the patient that the drug cannot be used for more than 2 years

d)

etermine the patient's thromboembolic risk

19.

In which of the following women should bisphosphonate therapy should be recommended? woman with a

a)

T score femoral neck of 0.2

b)

T score femoral neck of -0.9

c)

T score lumbar spine of -1.8, T-score femora neck of -2.1 and 10 year probability of hip fracture of 2%

d)

T-score lumbar spine of −2.2 and 10-year probability of hip fracture of 5%

e)

T-score femoral neck of −2.3 and 10-year probability of major osteoporotic fracture of 15%

20.

T/F SXA (single energy x-ray absorptiometry) measures peripheral sites (like finger, heel) is used in pharmacy and clinics as a diagnostic tool for osteoporosis.

a)

True

b)

False. DEXA is the technic

c)

False. It is not used for diagnosis

21.

T score is the number of SD of an individuals BMD is away from the mean peak BMD for young, health adults of same age, sex, ethnicity

a)

True

b)

False

22.

An 80 year old man has difficult swallowing both food and medications after a stroke. Which agent represents first-line therapy for osteoporosis in this patient?

a)

Subcutaneous teriparatide

b)

Subcutaneous denosumab

c)

Intranasal calcitonin

d)

Effervescent alendronate

23.

Which medication and common adverse effects statement is correct?

a)

Raloxifene—hot flushes, blood clots

b)

Calcitonin—rhinitis, atypical fractures

c)

Denosumab—increased cholesterol, serious infections

d)

Alendronate—nausea, osteonecrosis of the jaw

e)

Bazedoxifene and conjugated equine estrogens—blood clots, atypical fractures

24.

Mr. Jones, a 60-year-old man who just started treatment for prostate cancer, wants to know why his doctor wants to start an osteoporosis medication. Your best answer is?

a)

Cancer and some chemotherapy agents cause bone loss and fractures that can be prevented with these medications.

b)

. Because of your age, he prescribed it to prevent age-induced osteoporosis.

c)

This medication will prevent high serum calcium and other bone related problems associated with your cancer.

d)

The osteoporosis medication is not needed.

25.

You identify a 75-year-old woman who has not refilled her alendronate prescription for the last 3 months. She tells you she is concerned about osteonecrosis of the jaw (ONJ). Your response is?

a)

There is no risk of ONJ with oral osteoporosis medications.

b)

ONJ only happens in patients with cancer.

c)

Due to the risk of ONJ, you call her doctor to get it switched to raloxifene.

d)

ONJ is very rare and she should continue alendronate since she is more likely to have a hip fracture.

26.

What are the goals of prevention for osteoporosis

a)

Enhance development of skeleton and maximize peak bone mass

b)

Prevent falls and fractures

c)

maintain BDM and prevent age-related bone loss

d)

Damage skeleton integrity

27.

Which is not part of the very high risk category for OP?

a)

Recent fracture (within previous 12 months)

b)

very low t-score (<-3.0)

c)

high risk for falls

d)

very high fracture probability by FRAX (eg major osteoporosis fracture >30%, hip fracture >4.5%) or other validated fracture risk algorithm

e)

Few Fractures when taking medication that effect skeleton

28.

What are the benefits of exercise?

a)

stimulates osteoblasts

b)

long term during youth has increase peak BMD

c)

swimming and cycling are good choices

d)

Decrease falls improve balance

29.

Which drug does not decrease bone resorption by inhibiting osteoclast activity

a)

PTH

b)

Calcium

c)

Bisphosphonates

d)

Raloxifene

e)

Denosumab

30.

which are anabolic agents

a)

alendronate

b)

teriparatide

c)

abaloparatide

d)

estrogen

e)

calcitonin

31.

Which Bisphosphonates are IV

a)

Ibandronate

b)

Zoledronic acid

c)

Etidronate

d)

Pamidronate

e)

Alendronate

32.

Counterindications for bisphosphonates include

a)

food adversion

b)

Hypocalcemia

c)

severe renal impairment

d)

esophagus abnormalities

33.

What is false about calcitonin

a)

nasal formulation is used

b)

top therapy for women with OP who are at least 5 years postmenopausal

c)

calcitonin inhibits PTH

d)

analgesic effects

e)

may increase cancer risk

34.

T/F Conjugated estrogen combined with medroxyprogesterone acetate increase risk of MI, stroke, breast cancer, pulmonary embolism, DVT

a)

T

b)

F

35.

T/F Estrogen but not HRT is only used if the benefits outweigh the risks and should be used in he shortest duration consistent with treatment goals and risk for the individual woman.

a)

True

b)

False. Estrogen and HRT

c)

False. HRT but not estrogen

d)

False. Both don't carry those risk

36.

What are the two big concerns when taking Raloxifene

a)

hot flashes

b)

venous thromboembolism

c)

stroke

d)

Liver disease

37.

T/F Combination of conjugated estrogens with estrogen agonist/ antagonist indicated for prevention of postmenopausal osteoporosis in women without a uterus ​

a)

T

b)

F

38.

What is false about teriparatide?

a)

box warning for osteosarcoma

b)

treatment effects may be monitored by DXA after 18 months

c)

subq in abdomen or thigh

d)

can be taken indefinitely

39.

Which drugs are taken by SQ?

a)

Denosumab (Prolia)

b)

Abaloparatide (Tymlos)

c)

Teriparatide (Forteo®)

d)

Romosozumab (Evenity)

40.

Which disease and definition are correct

a)

Osteomalacia: soft bones

b)

Paget's Disease : chronic, slowly progressive skeletal condition of abnormally rapid bone destruction (osteolytic) and reformation (osteoblastic).

c)

Osteomalacia: characterized by osteoclastic resorption of bone with new bone laid down in a disorganized fashion

d)

Paget's Disease: inadequate or delayed mineralization of bone