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2009PHM Championship Quiz

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the target systolic/diastolic blood pressure goal in treating hypertension?

a)

130/80

b)

140/90

c)

120/80

d)

150/70

e)

100/70

2.

Which diuretic treatment is recommended for hypertension?

a)

high-dose thiazide

b)

high-dose loop

c)

low-dose thiazide

d)

low-dose loop

e)

drinking more water

3.

In treating hypertension, the added bonus outcome of using β-blockers is

a)

increased angiotensin II levels

b)

simultaneous blocking of AT1 receptors

c)

inhibition of renin secretion

d)

causing aldosterone release

e)

stimulating AT2 receptors

4.

Treating HTN: Drug A is a α1 antagonist while Drug B is an α2 agonist. What are Drugs A and B?

a)

A = clonidine; B = prazosin

b)

A = prazosin; B = methyldopa

c)

A = prazosin; B = sotalol

d)

A = methyldopa; B = clonidine

5.

Which of the following is an UNLIKELY adverse affect of ACE inhibitors and ARBs?

a)

hypotension

b)

hyperkalemia

c)

foetal and neonatal morbidity in pregnancy

d)

cough

e)

immunological effects

6.

Which of the following would be relatively contraindicated in heart failure patients?

a)

amlodipine

b)

captopril

c)

nifedipine

d)

diltiazem

e)

chloroquine

7.

Which vasodilator drug can be used in hypertension, but only in emergencies?

a)

hydralazine

b)

glyceryl trinitrate

c)

glyceryl dinitrate

d)

nicorandil

e)

telmisartan

8.

Which of the following is NOT caused by thiazide diuretics?

a)

blocking the Na+/Cl- symporter

b)

excretion of Na+

c)

increased uric acid in the blood

d)

excretion of Ca2+

9.

Which diuretic drug directly blocks the ENaCs (epithelial sodium channels) in the nephron?

a)

frusemide

b)

amiloride

c)

indapamide

d)

eplerenone

e)

artemisinin

10.

Which is NOT a role of the osmotic diuretic mannitol?

a)

blocking receptors/transporters in the nephron

b)

improving renal function and reduce renal toxicity

c)

causing water to be retained in the lumen

d)

removing toxic substances in cases of poisoning

11.

Which drug class can "mask" the effects of hypoglycemia in diabetic patients?

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

aldosterone antagonists

c)

angiotensin receptor blockers

d)

glucose transporters

e)

β-blockers

12.

Which drug WILL NOT potentiate antithrombin?

a)

rivaroxiban

b)

unfractionated heparin

c)

enoxaparin

d)

danaparoid

13.

Which of the following is NOT an indication for the use of warfarin?

a)

Prevention and treatment of VTE

b)

Preventing thromboembolism (with prosthetic heart valves)

c)

Prevention of stroke

d)

Preventing a STEMI

14.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding warfarin's effects?

a)

It has a wide therapeutic index

b)

It has a short half-life

c)

Genetic polymorphisms can affect the dose required

d)

It is metabolised by hepatic CYP3A4

e)

It binds to the ADP receptor

15.

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause severe thrombocytopenia?

a)

unfractionated heparin

b)

enoxaparin

c)

dalteparin

d)

danaparoid

16.

Which of the following has the lowest risk of bleeding?

a)

dalteparin

b)

danaparoid

c)

unfractionated heparins

d)

enoxaparin

17.

Which of the following is a univalent direct thrombin inhibitor?

a)

fondaparinux

b)

bivalirudin

c)

dabigatran

d)

rivaroxiban

18.

Tenecteplase is an enzyme. What conversion does it carry out?

a)

factor IX →\rightarrow   factor Xa

b)

fibrinogen →\rightarrow   degradation products

c)

Fibrin →\rightarrow   fibrin products

d)

plasminogen →\rightarrow  plasmin

19.

Which drug acts as an antifibrinolytic?

a)

heparin

b)

tranexamic acid

c)

warfarin

d)

ticagrelor

20.

ADP binds to the P2Y12 receptor on platelets. What is an outcome of this?

a)

Blocking of platelet GPIIb/IIIa receptors

b)

Anti-thrombosis

c)

Breakdown of fibrinogen

d)

Expression of platelet GPIIb/IIIa receptors

21.

Which drug binds reversibly to the P2Y12 receptor?

a)

ticagrelor

b)

clopidogrel

c)

prasugrel

d)

dipyridamole

22.

Which of the following is an antibody drug prep that binds to platelet GP IIb/IIIa receptors?

a)

eptifibatide

b)

tirofiban

c)

acetylsalicyclic acid

d)

abciximab

23.

Which drug binds to bile acids (e.g. cholic acid) and prevents them from being absorbed?

a)

colestipol

b)

niacin

c)

atorvastatin

d)

gemfibrizol

24.

Which drug must first be glucuronidated, and can then block absorption of biliary & dietary cholesterol?

a)

cholestyramine

b)

fenofibrate

c)

ezetimibe

d)

lovastatin

25.

Which drug is NOT used as a preventative VTE measure?

a)

enoxaparin

b)

unfractionated heparins

c)

danaparoid

d)

aspirin

26.

In the treatment of arrhythmias, which IA drug may have anticholinergic activity?

a)

flecainide

b)

disopyramide

c)

mexilitine

d)

magnesium sulfate

27.

Which anti-arrhythmia drug increases K+ efflux from cardiac cells to keep them hyperpolarised?

a)

adenosine

b)

amiodarone

c)

digoxin

d)

verapamil

28.

Which is a suitable first-line drug for atrial fibrillation?

a)

verapamil

b)

amiodarone

c)

digoxin

d)

urokinase

29.

Foscarnet is different from ganciclovir in treating CMV because it

a)

blocks DNA polymerase directly without phosphorylation

b)

is a prodrug that requires activation by the viral kinase

c)

is administered orally

d)

raises blood levels of calcium, potassium and magnesium

30.

What is the drug target of ribavirin in the hepatitis C virus?

a)

cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

b)

RNA

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

adenosine kinase

31.

Which of the following is NOT a common adverse effect of ribavirin with peginterferon alfa?

a)

Heamolysis

b)

Psychiatric effects

c)

Tendonitis

d)

Chronic fatigue and dyspnoea

32.

Which of the following is a HIV fusion protein inhibitor?

a)

enfuvirtide

b)

raltegravir

c)

maraviroc

d)

etravirine

33.

Which of these is an acceptable HAART therapy for a newly diagnosed HIV patient?

a)

Two N(t)RTIs + an NNRTI + PI

b)

One NNRTI + two PIs

c)

One N(t)RTI + an NNRTI or PI

d)

Two N(t)RTIs + an NNRTI or PI

34.

Clinical presentation with a productive cough (with blood) and chest pain is what form of TB?

a)

Disseminated

b)

Pulmonary

c)

Latent

d)

Miliary

35.

Which of the following is NOT a pre-therapy screening test done prior to TB treatment?

a)

INR monitoring

b)

weight measurement

c)

visual acuity and colour vision

d)

liver and renal tests

36.

Which broad-spectrum TB drug inhibits the Mycobacterium RNA polymerase enzyme?

a)

Ethambutol

b)

Rifampicin

c)

Pyrazinamide

d)

Isoniazid

37.

What is the Mycobacterium drug target for pyrazinamide?

a)

pyrazinoic acid

b)

pyrazinamidase

c)

fatty acid synthase

d)

fatty acid desaturase

38.

Miliary or CNS TB must be treated for how long?

a)

6 months

b)

2 months

c)

At least 12 months

d)

Until symptoms disappear

39.

Which fungal enzyme activates the prodrug flucytosine?

a)

Cytosine permease

b)

Cytosine deaminase

c)

Cytosine transcriptase

d)

Cytosine hydroxylase

40.

Which bacterial enzyme is inhibited by β-lactam drugs?

a)

heam polymerase

b)

β-lactamase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

transpeptidase

41.

Which penicillin drug may be fatal if administered intravenously?

a)

oxacillin

b)

benzylpenicillin

c)

procaine penicillin

d)

ticarcillin

42.

What is the major potential adverse drug effect for dicloxacillin and flucloxacillin?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Vomiting and diarrhoea

c)

Hypokalemia

d)

Risk of bleeding

43.

Which generation of cephalosporins are able to easily penetrate the blood brain barrier?

a)

Third

b)

First

c)

Second

d)

Fourth

44.

Which penicillin is an anti-Staphylococcus drug?

a)

dicloxacillin

b)

phenoxymethylpenicillin

c)

ampicillin

d)

piperacillin

45.

What is the allergy cross-reactivity percentage between penicillins and cephalosporins?

a)

1-2%

b)

0.1-1%

c)

10-20%

d)

5-10%

46.

Which β-lactam drug has a very low immunological potential compared to other β-lactams?

a)

meropenam

b)

aztreonam

c)

flucloxacillin

d)

cefazolin

47.

What is the major means by which bacterial resistance has arisen to vancomycin?

a)

Mutation of D-Ala-D-Ala pentapeptide

b)

Development of bacterial efflux pumps

c)

Extended spectrum β-lactamases

d)

The red neck syndrome pathway

48.

Which protein synthesis inhibitor can bind the bacterial 30S subunit AND create membrane holes?

a)

chloramphenicol

b)

tetracyclines

c)

gentamicin

d)

erythromycin

49.

Which drug can cause hemolytic and aplastic anemia, and grey baby syndrome?

a)

clindamycin

b)

chloramphenicol

c)

amikacin

d)

demeclocycline

50.

Phototoxicity and disruption of growth of bone and teeth is an ADE of which antibiotic?

a)

quinupristin/dalfopristin

b)

streptomycin

c)

clarithromycin

d)

doxycycline

51.

Which drug blocks bacterial dihydrofolate reductase?

a)

pyrimethamine

b)

trimethoprim

c)

methotrexate

d)

sulfamethoxazole

52.

Which adverse effect is NOT caused by co-trimoxazole?

a)

crystalluria if not enough water is consumed

b)

hypersensitivity from the sulfa drug component

c)

kernicterus in newborn babies

d)

metallic taste sensation

53.

Which of the following is a urinary tract antiseptic?

a)

nitrofurantoin

b)

metronidazole

c)

linezolid

d)

clindamycin

54.

Which antimalarial drug(s) produces free radicals that inhibit malarial proteins?

a)

mefloquine

b)

artemether

c)

atovaquone with proguanil

d)

primaquine

55.

What is the drug target for albendazole in a nematode worm?

a)

cholinergic receptors

b)

α receptors

c)

β-tubulin

d)

voltage-gated Cl- channels

56.

Which drug makes the worm parasite permeable to Ca2+ and also induces the host immune reponse?

a)

praziquantel

b)

albendazole

c)

pyrantel pamoate

d)

ivermectin

57.

Which of the following antihelminthics must be completely avoided in all pregnancy trimesters?

a)

albendazole

b)

praziquantel

c)

pyrantel pamoate

d)

mebendazole

58.

A patient's Archilles tendon has snapped. Which medications below are the most likely cause?

a)

mupirocin

b)

roxithromycin

c)

streptogramins

d)

ciprofloxacin

59.

Which bacterial species grow on Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA)?

a)

Streptococcus

b)

Streptomyces

c)

E. coli

d)

Staphylococcus

60.

Which type of haemolysis occurs on blood agar when bacterial colonies are green?

a)

full

b)

none

c)

partial

d)

epsilon

61.

Why does S. aureus turn MSA plates to a yellow colour?

a)

mannitol reducing

b)

mannitol fermentation

c)

lactose fermentation

d)

non-mannitol fermentation

62.

Which type of bacteria grow on MacConkey plates?

a)

Gram-negative bacilli

b)

Gram-positive cocci

c)

All colonic bacteria

d)

Staphylococcus only

63.

What colour are bacterial colonies when they ferment lactose on MacConkey plates?

a)

white

b)

clear

c)

pink

d)

yellow

64.

What is the aim of using a 16-streak method on agar plates?

a)

to get single colonies

b)

to get zones of clearance (inhibition)

c)

to get an even lawn of bacteria

d)

to sterilise the plate

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