wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

HSC Biology Revision

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an example of a non-infectious disease?

a)

Polio caused by a virus

b)

Cholera caused by a bacterium

c)

Wheat rust caused by a fungus

d)

Haemophilia caused by a gene mutation

2.

What does the body produce in response to a vaccine?

a)

Antigens

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Antibodies

d)

Activated toxins

3.

How does the cochlear implant assist people with severe hearing loss?

a)

It amplifies sound.

b)

It stimulates the ear drum.

c)

It stimulates the auditory nerve.

d)

It amplifies vibrations in the cochlea.

4.

Which of the following is part of the innate immune response?

a)

Antibodies

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Stomach acid

d)

B lymphocytes

5.

Which of the following is an advantage for animals using internal fertilisation rather than external fertilisation?

a)

It prevents dehydration of gametes.

b)

It involves large numbers of gametes.

c)

It relies on adaptations such as mating rituals

d)

It allows gametes to combine to form unique offspring.

6.

A group of islands are separated from each other by large stretches of water. Each island has its own policy on quarantine. A nearby country is experiencing an outbreak of an infectious disease in its cattle. An investigation is to be designed to find which of the quarantine policies operating on the islands is the most effective.

Which of the following would be a suitable design feature of the investigation?

a)

The control is the smallest island.

b)

The control is the number of infected cattle.

c)

The independent variable is quarantine policy.

d)

The independent variable is the number of infected cattle.

7.

Which of the following is always true of a mutation that produces a dominant allele?

a)

It will be lethal in a population.

b)

It will be expressed in heterozygous individuals.

c)

It will only be expressed in homozygous individuals.

d)

It will spread more quickly through the population than a recessive allele.

8.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

9.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

10.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

11.

The diagram shows the impact of birds feeding on a population of beetles over time.

Which of the following accounts for the change in the beetle population?

a)

Mutation

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Environmental pressure

12.

How many complete nucleotides are shown in the figure?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

13.

Two types of bacteria were isolated from a patient’s throat swab and grown in pure culture on separate agar plates. On each plate there were FOUR different antibiotic discs, W, X, Y and Z.

The photograph shows the plates seven days later.

Which antibiotic should be used to treat the patient?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

14.

A group of four students set out to determine the animal species diversity over an area of one hectare in each of five different habitats. Each student graphed their data as shown.

Which of the graphs produced is the most suitable to represent animal species diversity in the different habitats?

a)
b)
c)
d)
15.

The glucose tolerance test is used to investigate the control of glucose in the human body. Patients consume 75 g of glucose and their blood glucose is monitored. Type 2 diabetes is a condition where the cells of the body do not respond adequately to insulin.

Which graph could represent the results of glucose tolerance tests in a non-diabetic person and a person with untreated Type 2 diabetes?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

Genetic drift is a gradual change in

a)

the alleles of an individual due to mutation.

b)

allele frequency in a population due to chance.

c)

the genes of a population due to natural selection.

d)

gene frequency in a population due to natural selection.

17.

The following DNA base sequence is used to code for a sequence of four amino acids.

Which of the following TWO responses correctly represents the anticodons on the transfer RNA during synthesis of this string of amino acids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
18.

A germ-line mutation is known to have occurred.

How is it possible that there has been no noticeable change in the phenotype of the offspring?

a)

The mutation occurred in a stretch of RNA.

b)

The mutation occurred in a protein-coding region.

c)

The mutation occurred in a stretch of non-coding DNA.

d)

The mutation did not affect the DNA sequence of any gametes.

19.

The diagram shows the effect of the hormone oxytocin on the uterus during the birth of a mammal.


Which of the following best identifies and explains the feedback loop demonstrated in the diagram?

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

The diagram shows how CRISPR/Cas9 can be used as a new tool for genetic engineering.

This technology has dramatically improved scientists’ ability to successfully modify genomes.

What type of structure must Cas9 be?

a)

Enzyme

b)

mRNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

tRNA

21.

Scientists have been able to use biotechnology to ‘cut and paste’ DNA for decades.

Why would the new CRISPR/Cas9 technology have improved the scientists’ success in cutting DNA of specific genes?

a)

Cas9 is able to combine with specific DNA.

b)

Cas9 has an active site that cuts target DNA.

c)

gRNA has the same nucleotides as the target DNA.

d)

gRNA has nucleotides complementary to the target DNA.

22.

Which of the following correctly states the genotype probabilities for the offspring of the parents shown in this punnett square?

a)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous dominant

b)

50% heterozygous 50% homozygous recessive

c)

50% heterozygous 25% homozygous recessive 25% homozygous dominant

d)

100% heterozygous

23.

While observing a litter of guinea pigs, Jack and Jill noticed that they had a variety of brown and white coats. They knew the guinea pigs had the same parents and that they were all from the same litter. Which best explains why they had different coat colors?

a)

they received an exact copy of both parents' DNA

b)

they randomly received DNA from only one parent

c)

the coat color is random and not influenced by parents

d)

they received different combinations of DNA from both parents

24.
Who was one of the first people to study genetics?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
George Romero
c)
Gregor Mendel
d)
Johannes Brahms
25.
The organelle that uses the energy of sunlight to make food for the cell.
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Ribosome
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleus
26.
Give two examples of nucleic acids.
a)
Characters and people
b)
Polymers and macromolecules
c)
DNA and RNA
d)
Hydrogen and Oxygen
27.
What are the monomers for a protein?
a)
ABCD
b)
Nucleotide
c)
Lipids
d)
Amino acids
28.
Monosaccharides are what?
a)
Simple sugars
b)
30
c)
Amino acids 
d)
Glucose 
29.
What makes up cell membranes?
a)
Chitin 
b)
Carbon 
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
89
30.
What are the products  (what is made)  of photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose and oxygen
b)
sunlight energy
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
chlorophyll 
31.
Before mitosis begins, which happens before the nucleus starts dividing?
a)
The cytoplasm separates.
b)
The DNA replicates. 
c)
The sister chromatids separate. 
d)
The homologous chromosomes cross over. 
32.
Which process produces the most variation within a species? 
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Sexual reproduction
c)
mitosis
d)
cloning
33.
This diagram shows a plant cell. Which structure is found in a plant cell but is absent in an animal cell? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
34.
During which phase of the cell cycle is the cell growing and preparing for cellular division? 
a)
cytokinesis
b)
anaphase
c)
prophase
d)
interphase
35.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.
Under a microscope a series of cells are observed that lack internal membrane bound organelles.  Which of these is the most likely cell type?
a)
Plant cell
b)
Animal cell
c)
Prokaryotic cell
d)
Eukaryotic cell
39.
Which of these supports the cell theory as it is stated today?
a)
New cells are produced by division of existing cells
b)
All organisms are composed of more than one cell
c)
Cells must contain a nucleus
d)
Not all cells are alive
40.
1.Meiosis is the process by which gametes are produced. In which of the following human organs does meiosis occur?
a)
Testes
b)
skin
c)
liver
d)
pancreas
41.
Why does sexual reproduction result in greater diversity among offspring than does asexual reproduction?
a)
Only mitosis must occur in sexual reproduction.
b)
New combinations of genes result from sexual reproduction.
c)
Sexual reproduction may occur at a faster rate
d)
Mutations are more likely to occur in asexual reproduction.
42.
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes can exchange DNA in a process known as —
a)
replication
b)
internal fertilization
c)
cytokinesis
d)
crossing over
43.
Enzymes only work with specific substrates because each substrate —
a)
has a specific activation site for enzyme attachment
b)
can only use a specific ionic bond with the enzyme
c)
destroys its specific enzyme
d)
actively interferes with other substrates around it
44.

Which of the following cellular structures is NOT classified as an organelle because it is not membrane bound?

a)

ribosome

b)

vacuole

c)

peroxisome

d)

mitochondria

e)

chloroplast

45.

What is the smallest pathogen?

a)

micro pathogen

b)

bacteria

c)

virus

d)

spore

46.
An infectious disease is usually: 
a)
caused by genes
b)
caused by lifestyle choices
c)
caused by microbes
d)
caused by environmental factors 
47.
Which of the following is NOT a vector of a disease? 
a)
ticks
b)
mosquitos
c)
rats
d)
viruses
48.
A carrier of a disease is: 
a)
someone who has a disease and shows no sypotoms
b)
someone who has a disease
c)
someone who is immune to a disease
d)
someone who studies the spread of disease
49.
Which of the following is not a kingdom of life? 
a)
bacteria 
b)
virus
c)
fungi 
d)
protist
50.

What is thought of as the primary defenses against pathogens in the human body?

a)

Lymphocytes and phagocytes

b)

Antibodies and lymphocytes

c)

The skin and mucous membranes

d)

The circulatory system

51.

If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms to seal this cut.

What is the first step in the process of blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen turns into fibrin

b)

Platelets release clotting factors

c)

Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin

d)

Thrombin is converted into prothrombin

52.

Which type of blood cells are capable of ingesting pathogens?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Antibodies

c)

Lymphocyte cells

d)

Phagocyte cells

53.

What is thought of as the primary defenses against pathogens in the human body?

a)

Lymphocytes and phagocytes

b)

Antibodies and lymphocytes

c)

The skin and mucous membranes

d)

The circulatory system

54.

If the skin is broken then a blood clot forms to seal this cut.

What is the first step in the process of blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen turns into fibrin

b)

Platelets release clotting factors

c)

Fibrinogen is converted into thrombin

d)

Thrombin is converted into prothrombin

55.

What is the effect which thrombin has on the process of blood clotting?

a)

Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin

b)

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin

c)

Platelets are caused to release clotting factors.

d)

Clotting factors are taken up by red blood cells.

56.

Which type of blood cells are capable of ingesting pathogens?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Antibodies

c)

Lymphocyte cells

d)

Phagocyte cells

57.

Anitigens on pathogens which have got into the human body can lead to the development of specific immunity.

That is an immunity which responds only to this antigen.

Which of the following cells causes the specific immunity?

a)

Erythrocytes

b)

Macrophages

c)

Lymphocytes

d)

Phagocytes

58.

Why do antibiotics have little or no effect on human cells, yet they can cause the death of bacteria?

a)

Antibiotics block prokaryote cell processes, but not the processes in eukaryote cells.

b)

Antibiotics can only affect cells below a certain size.

c)

Human cells have a protective plasma membrane which prokaryote cells don't have.

d)

Antibiotics are made of proteins which cannot pass through the plasma membrane.

59.

There are limits to the effectiveness of antibiotics.

Why is this?

a)

Viruses are not affected because they have no metabolism, and some bacteria have evolved resistance.

b)

Bacteria are not affected by antibiotics, only viruses.

c)

Only one species of bacteria is affected by a single antibiotic.

d)

Only some types of virus and bacteria are affected by antibiotics, because of the evolution of resistance.

60.

Which of the following best describes the effect of HIV on the immune system.

a)

HIV infection causes a reduction in the number of active blood cells resulting in a high fever.

b)

HIV reduces the number of active lymphocytes limiting the body's ability to produce antibodies.

c)

HIV reduces the number of active erythrocytes limiting the production of antibodies.

d)

HIV reduces the number of phagocytes which in turn limits the production of antibodies.

61.

When activated by the presence of a pathogen some lymphocytes produce antibodies and other lymphocytes act as memory cells.


Which of the following best describes the role of memory cells in the immune system?

a)

They store antigens from the pathogen for lymphocytes to use as a template for antibodies in the future.

b)

They remember the antigen on the pathogen and tell the lymphocytes how to respond if it is re-encountered.

c)

They quickly clone to form a group of phagocytes if the pathogen is re-encountered.

d)

They quickly clone to form a group of plasma cells if the pathogen is re-encountered.

62.

Which of the following is the best explanation of the likely consequences of a blood clot forming in a coronary artery?

a)

Part of the heart receives a slower supply of blood, and contractions of the heart become irregular.

b)

The blood is prevented from getting to the cardiac muscle and it stops contraction, the heart stops beating.

c)

The blood stops flowing into the heart and this prevents the flow of blood around the body.

d)

The blood clot moves from the coronary artery to the brain causing a stroke.

63.

Florey and Chain shared a Nobel Prize with Alexander Fleming for their work on penicilin.

Which of the following statements best describes their experiment which tested penecillin on mice?

a)

Four mice injected with a bacterial disease and four injected with penicillin to test toxicity and effectiveness.

b)

Two mice injected with penicillin and a bacterial disease to test both toxicity and effectiveness against bacteria.

c)

Toxicity test on two mice, then eight mice injected with a lethal dose of disease bacteria, four of which were also given penicillin to test its effectiveness against bacteria.

d)

Hundreds of mice injected with penicillin and their lives monitored to measure how many of the mice developed infections during their lives.

64.

Which of the following lists methods of transmission of HIV?

a)

Sex without a condom, from breast milk, contaminated blood transfusions.

b)

From saliva, sharing food and mosquito bites.

c)

From bodily fluids such as sweat, semen and saliva.

d)

Sex without a condom, mosquito bites and contaminated blood transfusions.

65.

Why do antibiotics have little or no effect on human cells, yet they can cause the death of bacteria?

a)

Antibiotics block prokaryote cell processes, but not the processes in eukaryote cells.

b)

Antibiotics can only affect cells below a certain size.

c)

Human cells have a protective plasma membrane which prokaryote cells don't have.

d)

Antibiotics are made of proteins which cannot pass through the plasma membrane.

66.

There are limits to the effectiveness of antibiotics.

Why is this?

a)

Viruses are not affected because they have no metabolism, and some bacteria have evolved resistance.

b)

Bacteria are not affected by antibiotics, only viruses.

c)

Only one species of bacteria is affected by a single antibiotic.

d)

Only some types of virus and bacteria are affected by antibiotics, because of the evolution of resistance.

67.

When activated by the presence of a pathogen some lymphocytes produce antibodies and other lymphocytes act as memory cells.


Which of the following best describes the role of memory cells in the immune system?

a)

They store antigens from the pathogen for lymphocytes to use as a template for antibodies in the future.

b)

They remember the antigen on the pathogen and tell the lymphocytes how to respond if it is re-encountered.

c)

They quickly clone to form a group of phagocytes if the pathogen is re-encountered.

d)

They quickly clone to form a group of plasma cells if the pathogen is re-encountered.

68.

Which disease is due to a body part wearing out?

a)

metabolic disease

b)

genetic disorder

c)

cancer

d)

degenerative disease

e)

inflammatory disease

69.

Which disease is due to inheriting a gene that doesn't work properly?

a)

metabolic disease

b)

genetic disorders

c)

cancer

d)

degenerative diseases

e)

inflammatory diseases

70.

Which disease is due to uncontrolled cell growth?

a)

metabolic disease

b)

genetic disorders

c)

cancer

d)

degenerative diseases

e)

inflammatory diseases

71.

Which disease is due to an incorrect chemical reaction in the body?

a)

metabolic disease

b)

genetic disorders

c)

cancer

d)

degenerative diseases

e)

inflammatory diseases

72.

Non-infectious diseases are caused by a pathogen.

a)

true

b)

false

73.

What term describes "illness within a population"

a)

mortality

b)

virulent

c)

carcinogen

d)

morbidity

74.

What term describes "death within a population"

a)

mortality

b)

virulent

c)

botulism

d)

morbidity

75.

True or False: unfavorable lifestyle patterns can be a determinant for disease development

a)

True

b)

False

76.

True or False: Smoking is considered a determinant for disease development?

a)

True

b)

False

77.

the cause, set of causes, or manner of causation of a disease or condition.

a)

etiology

b)

epidemiology

c)

diagnosis

d)

prognosis

78.

A widespread occurrence of an infectious disease in a community at a particular time

a)

Health crisis

b)

Pandemic

c)

Epidemic

d)

Endemic

79.

a disease that has spread across a large region; for instance multiple continents, or even worldwide

a)

endemic

b)

pandemic

c)

health crisis

d)

epidemic

80.

___________________ discovered that diseases are caused by specific living organisms

a)

Robert Koch

b)

Edward Jenner

c)

Alexander Fleming

d)

Jonas Salk

81.

According to Koch's postulates, the pure culture must _____________ when inoculated into a susceptible animal.

a)

reproduce the disease

b)

kill the animal

c)

kill the disease

d)

weaken the animal

82.

According to Koch's postulates, the microorganism must be observed and __________ from the experimentally diseased animal.

a)

reproduced

b)

recovered

c)

killed

d)

grown

83.
The movement of water from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
active transport
c)
osmosis
d)
dialysis
84.
Type of dialysis in which a machine receives waste-filled blood from the patient's bloodstream, filters the blood, and then returns the cleansed blood to the patients body; sometimes called an artificial kidney.
a)
peritoneal dialysis
b)
dialysis
c)
hemodialysis
d)
nephro sclerosis
85.
Hypertension
a)
How hard the heart needs to pump to move blood around the body. Affected by activity, rest, temperature, diet, emotions, posture, and medicines
b)
Also known as high blood pressure, when a person's heart and arteries must work harder than normal. Over time, the added stress can damage them. Increases risk of stroke, heart attack, heart failure, kidney failure, and loss of vision. 
c)
Abnormal function of the heart or blood vessels
d)
You are hyperactive as well as your body being tense
86.
A major waste product located in urine
a)
urea
b)
urologist
c)
UTI
d)
polyuira
87.
How does the glomerulus filter blood into the Bowman's capsule? 
a)
High pressure 
b)
Concentration Gradient 
c)
Active transport 
d)
Passive transport 
88.
In the collecting duct, what is reabsorbed? 
a)
Ions like Na+ and Cl-
b)
Nutrients like glucose and amino acids 
c)
Substances like drug metabolites and waste 
d)
Water 
89.

Recall where in the kidney the glomeruli are found.

a)

Renal Medulla

b)

Renal Pelvis

c)

Renal Cortex

90.

Recall where in the nephron ultrafiltration occurs.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Collecting duct

c)

Urethra

d)

Bowman's capsule

91.

Recall where in the nephron reabsorption of water using a counter current system occurs.

a)

Collecting duct

b)

Bowman's capsule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Urethra

92.

Recall where in the nephron reabsorption of amino acids occurs.

a)

Proximal convoluted tubule

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Loop of Henle

d)

Ureter

93.

Recall what structure carries filtrate from the renal pelvis to the bladder.

a)

Loop of Henle

b)

Distal convoluted tubule

c)

Ureter

d)

Urethra

94.

Recall what structure carries urine from the bladder out of the body.

a)

Ureter

b)

Urethra

c)

Distal convoluted tubule

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

95.

Recall which hormone controls the levels of water reabsorbed from the collecting ducts.

a)

Testosterone

b)

Anti-diuretic hormone

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Progesterone

96.

What is the function of middle ear?

a)

Convert mechanical signal to electrical signal

b)

Convert air vibration to electrical signal

c)

Conduct acoustic energy

97.

Identify other function of the ear...

a)

Control balance

b)

Assist in balancing pressure

c)

Assist in speech

98.

Conductive hearing loss can be caused by damage to:

a)

tympanic membrane

b)

cochlea

c)

ossicles (ear bones)

d)

auditory canal

99.

The hearing technology that amplifies sound is:

a)

bone conduction implant

b)

hearing aid

c)

cochlear implant

100.

Which hearing technologies can help to address conductive hearing loss?

a)

bone conduction implant

b)

hearing aid

c)

cochlear implant