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PODA III Exam 2 QA

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be transmitted by the Lone Star tick?

a)

Anthrax

b)

Seborrhea sicca

c)

Granuloma inguinale

d)

Lyme disease

e)

Human granulocytic ehrlichiosis

2.

Which of the following is contained in each dose of Helidac? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY )

a)

Bismuth subsalicylate 524 mg

b)

Metronidazole 125 mg

c)

Biskalcitrate 140 mg

d)

Tetracycline 500 mg

e)

Metronidazole 500 mg

3.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be indicated in seborrheic dermatitis ?

a)

Meclan

b)

Topicycline

c)

Tygacil

d)

Achromycin

e)

Aureomycin

4.

At a dosage of 40 mg PO QD, which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be used to treat rosacea?

a)

Periostat

b)

Dynacin

c)

Oracea

d)

Doryx

e)

Vibratab

5.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following ?

a)

Clindet

b)

Clindamycin palmitate

c)

Clindamycin pledgets

d)

Clindamycin pledgets

e)

Clindamycin hydrochloride

6.

Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following was MOST LIKELY the causative agent of Mr. Zud’s condition?

a)

Entamoeba histolytica

b)

Fusobacterium necrophorum

c)

Bacteroides melaninogenicus

d)

Propionibacterium acnes

e)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

7.

Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following should be used to treat Mr. Zud’s infection?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Netilmicin

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Tedlizolid

e)

Lefamulin

8.

Mr. Zud presents with a severe oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by a septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. A biological sample from Mr. Zud revealed the presence of a gram-negative anaerobic bacillus. Which of the following is the MOST APPROPRIATE diagnosis of Mr. Zud’ infection?

a)

Donovanosis

b)

Bacterial pneumonitis

c)

Community-acquired pneumonia

d)

Lemierre disease

e)

Community-acquired pneumonia

9.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a pleuromutilin antibiotic? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

Altabax

b)

Xenleta

c)

Zemdri

d)

Gantanol

e)

Renoquid

10.

Mr. Duz’s community-acquired pneumonia is being treated with _________ at a dosage of 800 mg PO QD; which of the following is Mr. Duz MOST LIKELY receiving?

a)

Omeclamox

b)

Ketek

c)

Cleocin

d)

Cleocin

e)

Flagyl

11.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting Isoleucyl-tRNA synthase?

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

Sisomicin

d)

Bactroban

e)

Xtoro

12.

Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody that iis used to treat Clostridium difficileinduced infections?

a)

Dificid

b)

Zinplaza

c)

Zemdri

d)

Tobi

e)

Baxdela

13.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a common property of the Aminoglycosides?

a)

Poor oral absorption

b)

Good activity against gram-negative bacteria

c)

Inactivity against anaerobic bacterial

d)

Residual bactericidal activity

e)

Primary excretion through the feces

14.

Which of the following statements about Gentamicin is FALSE ? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY )

a)

It can be administered through impregnated polymethylmethacrytic microspheres on a surgical wire

b)

It is available as a liposomal preparation for injection

c)

It has a half-life of 8 hr

d)

It penetrates the placenta barrier since it is highly lipid soluble

e)

It has ahigh albumin-binding capability

15.

Ms. Doe has recurrent uncomplicated UTI. She is severely allergic to Nitrofurans. Her physician wants to use a Methenamine-containing urinary antiseptic to manage Ms. Dae’s condition; which of the following is LEAST APPROPRIATE for a Pharmacist to recommend?

a)

Urispas

b)

Uribel

c)

Urised

d)

Urelle

e)

Uroquid

16.

Which of the following statements is CORRECT ? Hemolytic anemia is LIKELY to result : ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY )

a)

During therapy with Sulfonamides

b)

From the administration of Nitrofurantoin to a patient who is deficient in Glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase

c)

When an individual contracts Babesiosis

d)

During therapy with Streptomycin

e)

From the administration of Sulfadiazine to a patient who is deficient in Glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase

17.

A few hours after ingesting some Cilantro, Mr. Cru presented with diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, anorexia, fatigue and weight loss. A diagnosis of a parasitic infection caused by Cyclospora cayetanensis was made. Which of the following should the Pharmacist recommend for treating Mr. Cru’s infection?

a)

Septra

b)

Macrobid

c)

Biaxin

d)

Levaquin

e)

Septopal

18.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Bush typhus? Rickettsia _______:

a)

rickettsii

b)

tsutsugamushi

c)

prowazekii

d)

prowazekii

e)

quitana

19.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting DNA gyrase? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY )

a)

Xepi

b)

Xepi

c)

Xepi

d)

Zymaxid

e)

Iquix

20.

Which of the following would be appropriate for a Pharmacist to suggest for the management of the dysuria

a)

Flavoxate

b)

Flavoxate

c)

Macrobid

d)

Macrobid

e)

Hiprex

21.

Which of the following is involved in the mechanism of action of Bctrim DS

a)

Transpeptidase

b)

14C-deaminase

c)

DNA gyrase

d)

Dihydropteroate synthase

e)

Tetrahydrofolate reductase

22.

Which of the following will result from a concurrent administration of Glyburide and Bactrim DS

a)

Death of more E. coli

b)

Death of less E. coli

c)

Increased albumin binding

d)

Decreased albumin binding

e)

Increased Hypoglycmeia

23.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Bactrim DS?

a)

Photosensitivity

b)

Aplastic anemia

c)

Peripheral neuropathy

d)

Thrombocytosis

e)

Thrombocytosis

24.

Which of the following will result from a concurrent administration of Indomethacin and Bactrim DS?

a)

Competitive antagonism of Bactrim DS

b)

Non-competitive antagonism of Bactrim DS

c)

Displacement of Bactrim DS from PPB site

d)

Increased binding of Bactrim DS

e)

Decreased effect of Bactrim DS

25.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating it?

a)

Toxoplasmosis; Sulfadoxine

b)

Candida albicans-induced vaginitis; Sulfanilamide

c)

Ulcerative colitis; Sulfasalazine

d)

Psoriasis; Sulfacetamide

26.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

a)

Linezolid is bacteriostatic against Enterococcus faecium

b)

Synercid is bacteriostatic against Enterococcus faecalis

c)

Linezolid is bactericidal against Streptococcus pneumoniae

d)

Synercid is bactericidal against MRSA

e)

Synercid is bacteriostatic against Streptococcus pyogenes

27.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be a mechanism by which a bacterium becomes resistant to Synercid ?

a)

Production of a membrane-bound Adenylase that inactivates Dalfopristin

b)

Elaboration of a ribosomal Methylase that prevents the binding of Quinupristin to its target site within the bacterium

c)

Development of an active efflux mechanism for Dalfopristin

d)

Production of a Lactonase which inactivates Quinupristin

e)

Elaboration of an Acetyltransferase which inactivates Dalfopristin

28.

. Which of the following antibacterial preparations is matched with its CORRECT indication? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Xtoro; Acute otitis externa

b)

Besivance; Conjunctivitis

c)

Baxdela; MRSA-induced acute bacterial SSSI

d)

Xepi; Impetigo

e)

Gracevit; Buruli ulcer

29.

Cipro is effective in treating infectious diarrhea caused by which of the following? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Yersinia enterocolitica

b)

Campylobacter jejuni

c)

Vibrio cholerae

d)

Salmonella typhimurium

e)

Shigella dysenteriae

30.

which of the following falls within the antibacterial spectrum of Tetracycline? (SATA)

a)

Coxiella burnetiid

b)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

c)

Balantidium coli

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Chlamydia trachomatis

31.

Which of the following statements about Erythromycin is False? When given concomitantly with ___________, the result may be __________:

a)

Atorvastatin; rhabdomyolysis

b)

Orap; a sudden death

c)

Alcohol; a temporary liver damage

d)

Lanoxin; a decreased plasma level of Lanoxin

e)

Norpace; an increased risk of arrhythmia

32.

Which of the following is the primary indication of Finafloxacin?

a)

Sinusitis

b)

Impetigo

c)

UTI

d)

Acute otitis externa

e)

Gonorrhea

33.

Which of the following is the causative agent of Q-fever?

a)

Rickettsia quitana

b)

Chlamydia psittaci

c)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

d)

Staphylococcus aureaus

e)

Coxiella burnetti

34.

Which of the following does NOT inhibit the 30s ribosomal subunit?

a)

Tobramycin

b)

Streptomycin

c)

Clarithromycin

d)

Kanamycin

e)

Amikacin

35.

Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody that is used to treat recurrent Clostridium difficile infections?

a)

Anthim

b)

Abthrax

c)

Zinplaza

d)

Dificid

e)

Biaxin

36.

The antibacterial spectrum of Tetracycline HCL includes all of the following EXECPT:

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Neisseria gonorrhea

c)

Lymphogranuloma venereum

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

e)

Hemophilus ducreyi

37.

Which of the following is a Tetracycline-containing product that is used to manage peptic ulcer disease? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Meclan

b)

Pylera

c)

Dynacin

d)

Helidac

e)

Periostat

38.

Which of the following Tetracycline preparations is NOT matched with its correct indication?

a)

Periostat (periodontitis )

b)

Topicycline (seborrhea )

c)

Oracea ( rosacea )

d)

Declomycin (SIADH)

e)

Meclan (amebiasis )

39.

Which of the following is included in the antibacterial spectrum of Doxycycline? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Balantidium coli

b)

Ehrlichia canis

c)

Ureaplasma urealyticum

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Vibrio cholera

40.

The pharmacological actions of Chloramphenicol include the inhibition of which of the following ribosomal subunits ? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

23s

b)

30s

c)

40s

d)

50s

e)

70s

41.

Which of the following is the primary indication of Solosec?

a)

Granuloma inguinale

b)

Bacterial vaginosis

c)

Babesiosis

d)

Balantidiasis

e)

Brucellosis

42.

When dispensing Furoxone, the Pharmacist should advise the patient:(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

To avoid driving or operating a dangerous machine

b)

To take the drug with plenty of water

c)

To avoid concurrent ingestion of sauerkraut and fermented, dried meats

d)

To avoid concurrent ingestion of alcoho

e)

To take the drug on an empty stomach

43.

. Which of the following is the causative agent of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever? Rickettsia _____________: ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY )

a)

prowazekii

b)

conorii

c)

rickettsia

d)

mooseri

e)

tsutsugamushi

44.

Which of the following is a Sisomicin derivative that is employed in the treatment of UTI caused by Enterobacteriacea ?

a)

Zemdri

b)

Zemdri

c)

Mycifradin

d)

Septopal

e)

Maitec

45.

Which of the following should the Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of Buruli ulcer?

a)

Gemifloxacin

b)

Sitafloxacin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Pfloxacin

e)

Prulifloxacin

46.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting DNA gyrase? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Baxdela

b)

Cinobac

c)

Vibramycin

d)

Zyvox

e)

Flagyl

47.

Which of the following products contains a combination of Clindamycin and Benzoyl peroxide and is used to manage acne? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Benzamycin

b)

Acanya

c)

BenzaClin

d)

Veltin

e)

Onexton

48.

Which of the following statements about Linezolid is TRUE? ( SELECT ALL THAT APLLY ):

a)

Its oral suspension should be avoided in a PKU patient

b)

A complete blood count should be done weekly while the patient is taking this drug

c)

It should be avoided in a patient with high blood glucose levels

d)

It should not be taken concomitantly with sauerkraut or fermented, dried meats

e)

It can be administered both orally and intravenously

49.

Which of the following statements about Doxycycline is FALSE?

a)

It is primarily excreted through the kidneys

b)

Its half-life is about 15-25 hours

c)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 80-95%

d)

It can be taken with food or milk

e)

It penetrates the CSF

50.

Which of the following preparations is a monohydrate salt of Doxycycline? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Doryx

b)

Vibramycin capsules

c)

Oracea

d)

Monodox

e)

Vibramycin oral suspension

51.

. The mechanism of action of Mupirocin involves the inhibition of which of the following?

a)

Folic acid synthase

b)

DNA gyrase

c)

Isoleucyl-Trna SYNTHASE

d)

Topoisomerase

e)

Glucuronyl transferase

52.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect after it has been converted to Formaldehyde?

a)

Macrodantin

b)

Methenamine

c)

Nitrofurantoin

d)

Phenazopyridine

e)

Utibid

53.

The mechanism of action of Bactrim involves the inhibition of which of the following? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Folic acid synthase

b)

DNA gyrase

c)

Dihydrofolate reductase

d)

Topoisomerase

e)

Tetrahydrofolate reductase

54.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which a bacterium can become resistant to Aminoglycosides?

a)

One-step mutation of the 30s ribosomal subunit

b)

Alteration of the permeability of the bacterial cell wall

c)

Growth in an anaerobic medium

d)

Elaboration of a membrane-bound Acetylase

e)

Elaboration of a membrane-bound Lactonase

55.

Select the INCORRECT statement: A concurrent administration of Cipro and ___________ will result in a decreased absorption of Cipro:

a)

Aluminum hydroxide

b)

Magnesium hydroxide

c)

Calcium carbonate

d)

Zinc tablet

e)

Probenecid tablet

56.

Severe peripheral vasospasm is LIKELY to result from a concurrent administration of Erythromycin and which of the following ?

a)

Valium

b)

Valium

c)

Ergot alkaloids

d)

Tegretol

e)

Tegretol

57.

Select the CORRECT statement: ___________ is less likely than _______ to cause ototoxicity: ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Neomycin; Amikacin

b)

Tobramycin; Streptomycin

c)

Gentamicin; Amikacin

d)

Tobramycin; Gentamicin

e)

Amikacin;Streptomycin

58.

Which of the following manifestations of the adverse effects of Aminoglycosides can be reversed by giving Neostigmine?

a)

Apnea

b)

Impaired hearing

c)

Impaired balance

d)

Impaired balance

e)

Impaired balance

59.

Which of the following statements about Clindamycin is FALSE?

a)

Its phosphate salt can be administered IM or IV

b)

Its vaginally administered formulations are commercially available in ovules and cream

c)

Its phosphate salt is contained in Clindet and Clindagel

d)

Its half-life is 2-4 hours and it is highly plasma protein bound

e)

Its palmitate salt is contained in Clindamycin pledgets

60.

Mr. Sud presents with an oropharyngeal infection that is characterized by thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and pulmonary embolism. The culture of a biological sample from Mr. Sud revealed the presence of an anaerobic rod. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY the causative agent of Mr Sud's condition?

a)

Clostridium difficle

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Fusobacterium necrophorum

d)

Pneumocystis jiroveci

e)

Bacteroides melaninogenicus

61.

WOTF should a pharmacist recommend for the treatment of fusobacterium necrophorum

a)

Tobi

b)

Clindamycin

c)

Plazomicin

d)

Clarithromycin

e)

Dificid

62.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating it?

a)

Psoriasis (Sulfacetamide )

b)

Candida albicans-induced vaginitis (Sulfanilamide )

c)

Chlamydia trachomatis-induced Inclusion conjunctivitis (Sulfamethoxazole )

d)

Malaria (Sulfadoxine )

e)

Toxoplasmosis (Sulfadiazine )

63.

Bactrim DS is used to treat which of the following conditions? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Cyclosporiasis

b)

Typhoid fever

c)

Meningitis caused by Flavobacterium meningosepticum

d)

Tourista caused by Escherichia coli

e)

Cholera

64.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Sulfonamides?

a)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

b)

Granulocytosis

c)

Positive Coombs test

d)

Positive Coombs test

e)

Lupus flare

65.

Which of the following is administered both orally and intravenously and is primarily used for the treatment of MRSA-induced acute bacterial skin and skin structure infection?

a)

Xepi

b)

Besivance

c)

Baxdela

d)

Zemdri

e)

Xerava

66.

Erythromycin is recommended in the management of which of the following situations? ( SELECT ALL THAT APPLY ):

a)

Donovanosis

b)

Intestinal amebiasis

c)

Whooping cough

d)

Syphilis

e)

Legionnaires disease

67.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following tetracycline is more lipophilic and have very high oral bioavailability?

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Oxytetracycline

c)

Minocycline

d)

Tetracycline and Oxytetracycline

e)

A, B and C

68.

Which sides (face) of the tetracycline interact with the 16S rRNA? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

A. Southern side of tetracycline

b)

Eastern side of tetracycline

c)

Northern side of tetracycline

d)

Western side of tetracycline

e)

No interaction with 16S rRNA

69.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following Erythromycin analogues is water soluble and used for parenteral administration (IV)?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Erythromycin lactobionate

c)

Erythromycin stearate

d)

Erythromycin palmitate

e)

All the above

70.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about azithromycin is correct?

a)

Azithromycin is very unstable because of rapid acid catalyzed internal cyclic ketal formation

b)

Azithromycin is a Beta lactam Antibiotic

c)

Azithromycin is a Sulfonamide Analog

d)

In azithromycin the carbonyl moiety is absent and does not form a cyclic ketal

e)

Azithromycin is a Fluoroquinolone Antibiotic

71.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Alkyl substitution on the piperazine nitrogen (Ofloxacin) is reported to -

a)

Increase binding to GABA

b)

Increase binding to CYP450

c)

Decrease binding to GABA

d)

Decrease binding to CYP450

e)

All the above

72.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following Fluoroquinolones has the lowest oral bioavailability?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Ofloxacin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Moxifloxacin

e)

Norfloxacin

73.

Which of the following Fluoroquinolone preparations is LEAST LIKELY to be employed in the treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis?

a)

Vigamox

b)

Tequin

c)

Quixin

d)

Besivance

e)

Ocuflox

74.

Which of the following is NOT matched with the PRIMARY reason for its withdrawal from the market?

a)

Lomefloxacin ( CNS toxicity )

b)

Temafloxacin ( Hemolytic-uremic syndrome )

c)

Trovafloxacin (Liver fatigue )

d)

Greparfloxacin (Phototoxicity )

e)

Sparfloxacin ( QT interval prolongation )

75.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its PRIMARY indication?

a)

Xtoro ( Acute otitis externa )

b)

Baxdela ( MRSA-induced ABSSSI )

c)

Xepi ( Impetigo )

d)

Moxeza (Bacterial conjunctivitis )

e)

Avelox (Swimmer’s ear )

76.

Which of the following products is a combination of Ciprofloxacin and a Glucocorticoid? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Teq-Paq

b)

Ciloxan

c)

CiproDex

d)

Otovel

77.

Which of the following statements about Cipro is FALSE?

a)

It is distributed into the CSF and the prostatic fluid

b)

It is mostly excreted unchanged through the renal system

c)

Its half-life is 4-6 hours

d)

It has a plasma protein-binding capability of 20-40 %

e)

It stimulates cytochrome P450 1A2

78.

Which of the following statements about Ciprofloxacin is TRUE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

It can worsen muscle weakness in patients with myasthenia gravis and it can elevate plasma glucose

b)

It should be avoided in a patient with a pre-existing angina pectoris

c)

It should be avoided in patients who are younger than 12 years old because it can cause cataracts in that population

d)

It should be taken with plenty of water in order to prevent the arthropathy that it can cause

e)

It must be taken on an empty stomach because food decreases its overall GI absorption

79.

Which of the following is NOT matched with its CORRECT mechanism of action? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Cinobac ( conversion to bacteriocidal Formaldehyde )

b)

Sulfisoxazole ( inhibition of Dihydropteroate synthase )

c)

Levaquin ( inhibition of DNA gyrase )

d)

Pyrimethamine ( inhibition of Dihydrofolate reductase )

e)

Sulfamethoxazole ) inhibition of Folic acid synthase )

80.

A Sulfonamide is effective against which of the following organisms? (SELECT AL THAT APPLY):

a)

Toxoplasma gondii

b)

Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare

c)

Plasmodium vivax

d)

Flavobaqcterium meningosepticum

e)

Cyclospora cayetanensis

81.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with the Sulfonamide of first choice for treating it ?

a)

Legionnaire’s disease (Sulfamethoxazole )

b)

Inclusion conjunctivitis (Sulfacetamide )

c)

Candida albicans-induced vaginitis (Sulfanilamide )

d)

Otitis media (Sulfisoxazole )

e)

Nocardiosis (Sulfadiazine )

82.

A Sulfonamide is LEAST LIKELY to be used to treat which of the following STDs ?

a)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae-induced urethritis

b)

Haemophilus vaginalis-induced vaginitis

c)

Haemophilus decreyi-induced chancroid

d)

Klebsiella granulomatis-induced granuloma inguinale

e)

Chlamydia trachomatis-induced lymphogranuloma venereum

83.

Which of the following statements about Sulfamethoxazole is FALSE?

a)

It can be displaced from plasma protein binding sites by Aspirin and Indomethacin

b)

It can potentiate the effects of Sulfonylureas

c)

It should be avoided in a patient who has hyperbilirubinemia in order to avoid kernicterus

d)

It should be avoided in a patient who has glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency in order to prevent crystalluria

e)

It can be synergized by Trimethoprim

84.

The adverse effects of Sulfonamides include which of the following? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Positive Coombs test

b)

Peripheral and optic neuritis

c)

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

d)

Aplastic anemia

e)

Photosensitivity

85.

ONE BEST ANSWER: To which class of compounds does this structure belong?

a)

Macrolide

b)

Fluoroquinolone

c)

Aminoglycoside

d)

Betalactam

e)

Tetracycline

86.

ONE BEST ANSWER: Which of the following statements about clarithromycin is correct?

a)

Clarithromycin binds with bacterial 50s ribosomes and interacts with the 23s ribosomal RNA

b)

In clarithromycin C-6 hydroxy group has been converted to a methyl ether

c)

Clarithromycin has 14 membered lactone ring

d)

A and B

e)

A, B and C

87.

Adverse effects of this drug are: Neurotoxicity: auditory and vestibular ototoxicity; nephrotoxicity; and neuromuscular blockade?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

88.

This drug can bind both free ribosomes and those involved in protein biosynthesis?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

89.

Prevents formation of the larger ribosomal-fMet-tRNA 70S initiation complex?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

90.

It is a weak, nonspecific inhibitor of monoamine oxidase?

a)

Isoniazid

b)

Pyrazinamide

c)

Dalfopristin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Tobramycin

91.

Which of the following mechanisms of resistance is/are CORRECTLY matched with its/their appropriate drug(s) SELECT ALL THAT APPLY?

a)

Acetyltransferases that inactivate the drug(s)…………Synercid and Chloramphenicol.

b)

Ribosomal protection by inducible or constitutive production of methylase enzymes…Clindamycin, Erythromycin, and Streptogramin B

c)

Lactonases that degrade the drug ……. Streptogramin B

d)

Drug efflux by active pump mechanism(s)…..Erythromycin and Synercid

e)

Ribosomal protection by inducible or constitutive production of methylase enzyme(s)…Linezolid.

92.

A nosocomial infection caused by two pathogens: macrolide-resistant Staphylococcus aureusthat constitutively expresses the methylase-mediated resistance gene and vancomycin resistant Enterococcus faecalis. Which of the following agents would be recommended or effective in treating this nosocomial infection?

a)

Linezolid

b)

Zithromax

c)

Telithromycin

d)

Telithromycin

e)

Clindamycin

93.

s. Infective endocarditis caused by macrolide-resistant Staphylococcus aureus that expresses the methylase-mediated resistance gene upon induction. Which of the following agents would be recommended or effective in treating this infective endocarditis?

a)

Erythromycin

b)

Tedizolid

c)

Synercid

d)

Ketek

e)

Biaxin

94.

Which of the following agent(s) is/are NOT recommended for use in a patient with myasthenia gravis due to reports of disease exacerbation (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)?

a)

Zyvox

b)

Synercid

c)

Telithromycin

d)

Aminoglycosides

e)

Clindamycin

95.

Which of the following drugs could lead to these adverse effects if used during pregnancy: Poor tooth development of the fetus and discoloration, retardation of skeletal development; reduced bone growth?

a)

Tigecycline

b)

Zithromax

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Synercid

e)

Clindamycin

96.

Potential cause of pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile superinfection, which binds to a similar site as Biaxin on the 50S ribosomal subunit?

a)

Chloramphenicol

b)

RTS,S

c)

Chloroquine

d)

Clindamycin

e)

Isoniazid

97.

Which of the following pharmacological drug classes binds to the 50S ribosomal subunit of bacteria (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)?

a)

Macrolides

b)

Ketolides

c)

Oxazolidinones

d)

Aminoglycosides

e)

Lincosamides

98.

The cochlear Select the INCORRECT statement

a)

Tobramycin affects both cochlear and vestibular functions

b)

Tobramycin is less likely than Amikacin to cause nephrotoxicity

c)

Neomycin is more likely than Gentamicin to cause apnea

d)

Streptomycin is less likely than Gentamicin to cause ototoxicity

e)

Amikacin is more likely that Neomycin to cause hearing impairment

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