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Cell, Tissues, Integ

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Daughter nuclei begin forming. A cleavage furrow begins to form.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

2.

It is a mode of cell division in which cells that are created contain only one member of each pair of chromosomes.

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

all of the above

3.

Division of the nucleus, results in the formation of two daughter cells.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

all of the above

4.

Rod-shaped bodies made of microtubules.

a)

microvilli

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

cristae

d)

centrioles

5.

Structural framework of the cell.

a)

centrioles

b)

centrosome

c)

cristae

d)

cystoskeleton

6.

Made of protein and RNA and sites of protein synthesis.

a)

nuclear membrane

b)

nucleoli

c)

chromatin

d)

ribosomes

7.

Contains enzymes that digest unusable material within the cell.

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

peroxisome

c)

ribosomes

d)

lysosome

8.

No cell division occurs. The cell carries out metabolic activity and growth.

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

interphase

9.

First part of cell division.

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

interphase

d)

telophase

10.

Division of cytoplasm and results in the formation of 2 daughter cells.

a)

telophase

b)

anaphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

interphase

11.

Spindle from the centromeres are attached to chromosomes that are aligned in the center of the cell.

a)

prophase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

anaphase

d)

metaphase

12.

In the plasm membrane, lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through _____, while the small water soluble molecules diffuse through the _____.

a)

membrane channels, membrane channels

b)

membrane channels, lipid bilayer

c)

lipid bilayer, membrane channels

d)

lipid bilayer, carrier proteins

13.

Proteins destined to be secreted or targeted out of the plasma membrane are processed in

a)

Rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

floating ribosomes

c)

mitochondria

d)

carrier proteins

14.

At equilibrium, the following is/are true of diffusion:

a)

The net movement of solute stops.

b)

The random motion of particles contiues.

c)

There is equal movement of solute in different directions.

d)

The concentration of solute is equal throughout the solution

e)

All of the above

15.

When is the rate of diffusion higher?

a)

larger molecules

b)

lower concentration gradient

c)

higher concentration gradient

d)

greater medium viscosity

16.

Regarding primary active transport, which of the following is true?

a)

A. Na+- K+-ATPase pumps 2 Na+ out of the cell with uptake of 3K+

b)

B. Ca++ pump in sarcoplasmic reticulum extrudes Ca++ out of the cell

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A and B

17.

Receptor-mediated endocytosis is used for the uptake of

a)

glucose

b)

cholesterol

c)

bacteria

d)

none of the aboce

18.

A form of bulk-transport by which a hormone is secreted when the appropriate signal is received by the cell is:

a)

constitutive exocytosis

b)

regulated exocytosis

c)

phagocytosis

d)

pinocytosis

19.

The spike potential determines/measures what physiologic property of the neuron?

a)

excitability

b)

contractility

c)

conductivity

d)

none of the above

20.

voltage-gated Na+ channel is most dense at the

a)

axon hillock

b)

initial segment

c)

Nodes of Ranvier

d)

Terminal bouton

21.

Entry of action potential into the muscle fiber is possible through this structure

a)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

sarcolemma

c)

myofibrils

d)

T-tubules

22.

The three major parts of the cell

a)

cell membrane

b)

DNA

c)

nucleus

d)

mitochondria

e)

cytoplasm

23.

Cell death that is genetically programmed is known as

a)

differentiation

b)

specialization

c)

apoptosis

d)

necrosis

24.

Cell death due to tissue injury

a)

apoptosis

b)

differentiation

c)

necrosis

25.

If the concentration of solutes in ECF and ICFs are equal, the cell is a(n) _____ solution.

a)

hydrophobic

b)

hypertonic

c)

isotonic

d)

hypotonic

26.

cytoplasmic division

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

telophase

27.

somatic cell division resulting in the formation of two identical cells

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

telophase

28.

reproductive cell division that reduces the number of chromosome by half

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

29.

stage of cell division when replication of DNA occurs

a)

metaphase

b)

meiosis

c)

prophase

d)

interphase

30.

stage when chromatin fibers condense and shorten to form chromosomes

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

telophase

31.

stage when centromere split and chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell

a)

telophase

b)

cytokinesis

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

32.

stage when centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at the center of the mitotic spindle

a)

interphase

b)

telophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

33.

stage when chromosomes uncoil and revert to chromatin

a)

metaphase

b)

prophase

c)

telophase

d)

anaphase

34.

Types of Active transport

I. diffusion

II. exocytosis

III. facilitated diffusion

IV. osmosis

a)

I

b)

II

c)

II, IV

d)

IV

35.

Force required to prevent the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane.

a)

hydrostatic pressure

b)

osmotic pressure

c)

action potential

d)

resting membrane potential

36.

cell shrinkage

a)

lysis

b)

hydrolysis

c)

crenation

d)

cremation

37.

when submerged in a hypotonic solution, the cell will

a)

stay the same

b)

shrink

c)

swell

38.

When placed in hypertonic solution, the cell will

a)

stay the same

b)

shrink

c)

swell

39.

genetic disorder that affect the active transport of Cl- into cells

a)

sickle cell anemia

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Down syndrome

d)

cystic fibrosis

40.

breaks down fatty acids, amino acids, and their by-product

a)

lysosome

b)

peroxisome

c)

centrosome

d)

mesosome

41.

Sequence of nucleotides that provide a chemical set of instructions for making a specific protein.

a)

amino acid

b)

DNA

c)

gene

d)

chromosome

42.

directs protein synthesis

a)

ribosomes

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

DNA

43.

Specialized molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosome

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

44.

First step in gene expression that happens inside the nucleus.

a)

transcription

b)

translation

45.

Sheets that cover the external surface of the body, protect the underlying structure acting as a barrier and nonvascular.

a)

Epithelial tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Muscle tissue

d)

Nervous tissue

46.

A special surface modification that are motile structures found on certain cells: uterine tubes, uterus, and efferent ducts.

a)

Microvilli

b)

Stereocilia

c)

Cilia

d)

All of the above

47.

A long non-motile branched microvilli that line the cell surface.

a)

cilia

b)

microvilli

c)

stereocilia

d)

All of the above

48.

Tight junctions that form a seal that prevents the entrance of material between the cells.

a)

Zonula Occludens

b)

Zonula adherens

c)

desmosomes

d)

hemidesmosomes

49.

adhering junctions that provide firm adhesion between cells

a)

Zonula Occludens

b)

Zonula Adherens

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Hemidesmosomes

50.

Provides stability to cells subject to shearing stresses

a)

Zonula Occludens

b)

Zonula Adherens

c)

Desmosomes

d)

Hemidesmosomes

51.

Epithelium that provides protection against abrasion, bacterial invasion, and dessication.

a)

Keratinized epithelium

b)

Nonkeratinized epithelium

c)

transitional epithelium

d)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

52.

Epithelium that forms moist and protective layer.

a)

Keratinized stratified

b)

Nonkeratinized stratified

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

transitional

53.

Skin, lips, palm, soles

a)

keratinized stratified

b)

nonkeratinized stratified

c)

transitional

d)

simple cuboidal

54.

sweat glands, developing ovarian follicles

a)

keratinized stratified

b)

nonkeratinized stratified

c)

transitional

d)

stratified cuboidal

55.

substitution of viable cells for dead cells by regeneration or fibrosis

a)

tissue repair

b)

tissue damage and inflammation

c)

tissue membranes

d)

tissue chronic inflammation

56.

skeletal muscle tissue

a)

branching, single nucleus at the center, striated, involuntary

b)

fusiform, single nucleus at the center, nonstriated, involuntary

c)

elongated, multiple nuclei at the periphery, striated, voluntary

57.

cardiac muscle tissue

a)

elongated, multiple nuclei at the periphery, striated, voluntary

b)

fusiform, single nucleus at the center, nonstriated, involuntary

c)

branching, single nucleus at the center, striated, involuntary

58.

smooth muscle tissue

a)

elongated, multiple nuclei at the periphery, striated, voluntary

b)

branching, single nucleus at the center, striated, involuntary

c)

fusiform, single nucleus at the center, nonstriated, involuntary

59.

Hard connective tissue consists of living cells and a mineralized matrix.

a)

bone

b)

cartilage

c)

skin

d)

blood

60.

most abundant type of cartilage

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

d)

all of the above

61.

fills the spaces that forms the framework of lymphatic tissue: spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, liver

a)

loose connective tissue

b)

dense connective tissue

c)

transitional epithelium

d)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

62.

Semi-fluid gel with high water content which binds, supports, surrounds cells and fibers

a)

ground substance

b)

fibroblasts

c)

plasma cells

d)

lymphocytes

63.

Most common cells in connective tissue.

a)

ground substance

b)

fibroblasts

c)

plasma cells

d)

lymphocytes

64.

tissue macrophage in the liver

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

dust cells

c)

microglia

d)

monocyte

65.

tissue macrophage in the lungs

a)

kupffer cells

b)

dust cells

c)

microglia

d)

monocyte

66.

tissue macrophage in the skin

a)

Kupffer cells

b)

dust cells

c)

Langerhans cells

d)

Microglia

67.

tissue macrophage in the brain

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

Monocyte

c)

Microglia

d)

Osteoclasts

68.

tissue macrophage in the blood

a)

microglia

b)

Langerhans cells

c)

monocytes

d)

dust cells

69.

tissue macrophage in the bone

a)

osteocyte

b)

monocyte

c)

microglia

d)

dust cells

70.

What type of cell junctions would be required for cells to communicate with one another?

a)

adherens junction

b)

tight junction

c)

gap junction

d)

desmosome

71.

contains single layer of flat cells; found in the body where filtration or diffusion are priority processes

a)

ciliated simple columnar epithelium

b)

transitional epithelium

c)

simple squamous epithelium

d)

simple cuboidal epithelium

72.

found in the superficial part of the skin; provides protection from heat, microbes, and chemicals

a)

nonciliated simple columnar epithelium

b)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

73.

contains cube-shaped cells functioning in secretion and absorption

a)

simple cuboidal epithelium

b)

simple columnar epithelium

c)

simple squamous epithelium

74.

Lines the upper respiratory tract and uterine tubes

a)

transitional epithelium

b)

ciliated simple columnar epithelium

c)

simple squamous epithelium

d)

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

75.

contains cells with microvilli and goblet cells; found in linings of the digestive reproductive, and urinary tracts

a)

transitional epithelium

b)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

nonciliated simple columnar epithelium

76.

found in the urinary bladder; contains cells that can change shape

a)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b)

stratified squamous epithelium

c)

transitional epithelium

77.

contains cells that are all attached to the basement membrane, althoutgh some do not reach the surface

a)

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

b)

stratified columnar epithelium

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

simple columnar epithelium

78.

A fairly rare type of epithelium that has a mainly protective function

a)

stratified columnar epithelium

b)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

c)

transitional epithelium

d)

simple columnar epithelium

79.

a tissue from which all other connective tissues eventually arise

a)

blood

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

mesenchyme

d)

lymph

80.

connective tissues with a clear, liquid matrix that flows in lymphatic vessels

a)

hyaline

b)

areolar

c)

lymph

d)

elastic

81.

connective tissue consisting of several kinds of cells, containing all three fiber types randomly arranged, and found in the subcutaneous layer deep to the skin

a)

areolar connective tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

reticular tissue

82.

loose connective tissue specialized for triglyceride storage

a)

areolar tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

reticular tissue

83.

tissue that contains reticular fiber and reticular cells and forms the stroma of certain organs such as the spleen

a)

areolar tissue

b)

adipose tissue

c)

reticular tissue

84.

tissue with irregularly arranged collagen fibers found in the dermis of the skin

a)

dense regular collagenous

b)

dense irregular collagenous

c)

dense irregular elastic

85.

tissue found in the lungs that is strong and can recoil back to its original shape after being stretched

a)

adipose tissue

b)

reticular tissue

c)

elastic connective tissue

86.

tissue that affords flexibility at joint and reduces joint friction

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

fibrocartilage

87.

strongest among the three types of cartilage

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

fibrocartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

88.

bundles of collagen arranged in parallel patterns; composed tendons and ligaments

a)

dense regular connective tissue

b)

dense irregular connective tissue

c)

reticular connective tissue

89.

tissue that contains network of elastic fibers, providing strength, elasticity, and maintenance of shape; located in the external ear

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

elastic cartilage

90.

Origin of keratinocytes

a)

stratum spinosum

b)

stratum basale

c)

stratum granulosum

d)

stratum lucidum

91.

Most common type of skin cancer that begins in stratum basale and extends into the dermis to produce open ulcer.

a)

Malignant melanoma

b)

malignant carcinoma

c)

basal cell carcinoma

d)

squamous cell carcinoma

92.

I. Squamous cell carcinoma can metastasize and cause death.

II. Malignant melanoma metastisizes but can be surgically removed or treated with radiation therapy

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

Statement I is true, Statement II is false

d)

Statement I is false, Statement II is true

93.

Injury to epidermis and upper dermis caused by heat, cold, friction, chemicals, electricity, or radiation.

a)

First degree burn

b)

second degree burn

c)

third degree burn

d)

full thickness burn

94.

Yellow skin color, when the liver is damaged by a disease, such as viral hepatitis.

a)

scarlet fever

b)

dermatitis

c)

cyanosis

d)

jaundice

95.

Subcutaneous tissue is composed by what type of tissue

a)

dense regular connective

b)

dense irregular connective

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

loose connective

96.

Deficiency of ____ causes fair skin, white hair and unpigmented irises in the eyes.

a)

carotene

b)

melanin

c)

cyanine

97.

Hallmark characteristic: presence of 80-nm dense-cored neurosecretory granules.

a)

keratinocytes

b)

langerhan's cells

c)

merkel's cells

d)

melanocytes

98.

enzyme needed for melanin synthesis

a)

tyrosinase

b)

trypsin

c)

amilase

d)

lipase

99.

aggregation of keratin filament to tonofiber, conversion of granular cells into cornified cells

a)

keratinization

b)

desquamation

c)

differentiation

100.

layers of epidermis from outermost to innermost:

a)

s. corneum, s. lucidum, s. granulosum, s. spinous, s. basale

b)

s. basale, s. lucidum, s. granulosum, s. spinosum, s. corneum

c)

s. corneum, s. granulosum, s. lucidum, s. spinosum, s. basale

d)

s. basale, s. spinosum, s. granulosum, s. lucidum, s. corneum

101.

Excessive sloughing of stratum corneum cells from the surface of the scalp.

a)

callus

b)

dandruff

c)

corn

d)

dermatitis

102.

Epidermis is composed of what type of tissue?

a)

dense irregular connective

b)

dense regular connective

c)

stratified squamous epithelium

d)

loose connective tissue

103.

Increases melanin production

a)

exposure to UV light

b)

estrogen

c)

MSH

d)

all of the above

104.

overstretch of the skin

a)

cleavage lines

b)

tension lines

c)

mees lines

d)

stretch marks

105.

Inserting a long needle at a 90 degree to the skin into a muscle deep to subcutaneous tissue.

a)

intramuscular injection

b)

intradermal injection

c)

subcutaneous injection

d)

intravenous injection

106.

prickle cell year, multi-layer of distorted cells

a)

s. spinosum

b)

s. granulosum

c)

s. corneum

d)

s. lucidum

107.

consists of flattened cells with intense basophilic layer when stained.

a)

s. corneum

b)

s. lucidum

c)

s. granulosum

d)

s. spinosum

108.

insulin administration

a)

subcutaneous injection

b)

intradermal injection

c)

intramuscular injection

109.

Injury to epidermis and healing without scarring in about a week.

a)

first degree

b)

second degree

c)

third degree

d)

full thickness burn

110.

plates of keratinized cells containing hard keratin

a)

hair

b)

nail

c)

skin

d)

sweat glands

111.

Oily substance and product of holocrine secretion

a)

sebum

b)

sweat

c)

lunula

d)

cuticle

112.

largest organ of the body

a)

skin

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

stomach

113.

duration of eyelashes resting stage

a)

104 days

b)

105 days

c)

106 days

d)

107 days

114.

duration of scalp hair growing stage

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

1 year

d)

4 years

115.

layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells undergoing mitosis

a)

s. basale

b)

s. spinosum

c)

s. granulosum

d)

s. corneum

116.

which of the following is not a function of the skin?

a)

vitamin D production

b)

calcium production

c)

protection

d)

temperature regulation

e)

none of the above

117.

Aging of the skin can result in _____.

a)

increase in collagen and elastic fibers

b)

decrease in activity of sebaceous glands

c)

increase blood flow to the skin

d)

increase toenail growth

118.

produce protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from light, heat, microbes, and many chemicals

a)

Merkel cells

b)

callus

c)

keratinocytes

d)

Langerhans cells

119.

produce a pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs UV light

a)

keratinocytes

b)

free nerve endings

c)

melanocytes

d)

Langerhans cell

120.

cell that arise from red bone marrow, migrate to the epidermis, participate in immune responses

a)

Merkel cells

b)

Langerhans cells

c)

pacinian corpuscle

d)

arrector pili

121.

cells thought to function in the sensation of touch

a)

pacinian corpuscle

b)

Merkel cell

c)

Langerhans cell

d)

vernix caseosa

122.

located in the dermis, they function in the sensations of warmth, coolness, pain, itching, and tickling

a)

free nerve endings

b)

Langerhans cells

c)

Merkel cells

d)

vernix caseosa

123.

smooth muscle associated with hair follicles

a)

pacinian corpuscle

b)

arrector pili

c)

free nerve ending

d)

vernix caseosa

124.

abnormal thickening of the epidermis

a)

vernix caseosa

b)

lamellar granules

c)

callus

d)

melanocytes

125.

release a lipid-rich secretion that functions as a water repellant scalant in the stratum granulosum

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

keratinocytes

c)

lamellar granules

d)

vernix caseosa

126.

pressure-sensitive cells found mostly in the subcutaneous layer

a)

lamellar granules

b)

vernix caseosa

c)

Merkel cell

d)

pacinian corpuscle

127.

fatty substance that covers and protects the skin of the fetus from the constant exposure to amniotic fluid

a)

lamellar granules

b)

pacinian corpuscle

c)

vernix caseosa

d)

melanocytes

128.

prevents evaporation of water from the skin's surface, and inhibits growth of certain bacteria

a)

arrector pili

b)

lamellar granules

c)

sweat glands

d)

sebaceous glands

129.

deep region of the dermis composed primarily of dense irregular connective tissue

a)

reticular region

b)

papillary region

c)

hypodermis

130.

composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

a)

hypodermis

b)

papillary region

c)

reticular region

d)

epidermis

131.

contains areolar and adipose tissue and attaches the skin to the underlying tissues

a)

hypodermis

b)

reticular layer

c)

papillary layer

d)

epidermis

132.

superficial region of the dermis; composed of areolar connective tissue

a)

papillary layer

b)

reticular layer

c)

hypodermis

133.

A genetic condition which results from the inability to maintain and form elastic fibers

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Marfan syndrome

134.

external tissue membrane

a)

skin

b)

mucous membrane

c)

serous membrane

d)

synovial membrane

135.

accumulation of dead neutrophils, cells, and fluid

a)

neutrophil

b)

pus

c)

fibrin

d)

histamin

136.

seals the wound and help prevent friction

a)

clot

b)

scab

c)

wound contracture

137.

reduces the size of wound and speeds healing

a)

scab

b)

clot

c)

wound contracture

138.

Daughter chromosomes are pulled toward the poles. The cell begins to elongate.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase