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Abdomen Midterm Review (Keiser DMS)

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The fibroelastic covering of the liver is known as _____.

a)

Morrison's Pouch

b)

Glisson's Capsule

c)

Murphy's Capsule

d)

Hartmann's Pouch

2.

The Ligamentum Teres separates the left lobe into ______ segments.

a)

anterior and posterior

b)

medial and lateral

c)

superior and inferior

d)

anterior and superior

3.

_______ separates the caudate lobe from the left lobe of the liver.

a)

Ligamentum venosum

b)

Ligamentum teres

c)

Main Lobar fissure

d)

round ligament

4.

Reidel's lobe is a(n) _____ projection of the liver

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

medial

5.

The directional flow of the portal vein is ____, hepatic artery is ____, and hepatic veins are ____.

a)

hepatofugal, hepatofugal, hepatopetal

b)

hepatopetal, hepatofugal, hepatopetal

c)

hepatopetal, hepatopetal, hepatofugal

d)

hepatofugal, hepatopetal, hepatofugal

6.

The portal vein should measure _____ in a normal patient.

a)

<12mm

b)

<13mm

c)

<14mm

d)

<11mm

7.

The GDA is a branch of the _____.

a)

splenic artery

b)

celiac axis

c)

left gastric artery

d)

hepatic artery

8.

____ is increased in cases of liver malignancies.

a)

direct bilirubin

b)

indirect bilirubin

c)

alkaline phosphate

d)

Alpha-fetoprotein

9.

The number one cause of fatty infiltration of the liver in the US is _____.

a)

ETOH abuse

b)

obesity

c)

diabetes

d)

pregnancy

10.

The most likely place to see focal sparing is _____.

a)

dome of liver

b)

left lobe of liver

c)

porta hepatis

d)

caudate lobe

11.

The most common type of Glycogen Storage Disease is ____.

a)

Pompe's

b)

Von Gierke's

c)

Wilson's

d)

Neimann Pick's

12.

You are scanning a pt whos liver is enlarge, with a decrease in echogenicity, and ^ PV echogenicity. What is diagnosis?

a)

acute hepatitis

b)

chronic hepatitis

c)

cirrhosis

d)

fatty liver

13.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of cirrhosis?

a)

Increased echogenicity

b)

decreased size

c)

Decreased echogenicity

d)

lobular border/parenchyma

14.

____ may recanalize during severe cases of portal hypertension.

a)

Ligamentum venosum

b)

MLF

c)

Ligamentum Teres

d)

Round ligament

15.

_____ is increased in areas where sheep and cattle herding are prevalent.

a)

Echinococcal Cyst

b)

Hydatid Cyst

c)

Schistosomiasis

d)

Both Echinococcal and Hydatid

16.

The "water lily" sign is associated with _____.

a)

Schistosomiasis

b)

Echinococcal cyst

c)

Hemangioma

d)

FNH

17.

The most common origin for a pyogenic abscess is from _____.

a)

listeria

b)

e. coli

c)

parasite

d)

hepatitis

18.

The most common parasitic infection in humans is ______.

a)

Echinococcal cyst

b)

Schistosomiasis

c)

Pyogenic Abscess

d)

Hemangioma

19.

The most common cancer in AIDS patients is ____.

a)

Kaposi's sarcoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Hepatoma

d)

Metastatic liver disease

20.

The sonographic term "wheels within wheels" is associated with ______.

a)

Hepatic Candidiasis

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Hepatoma

d)

FNH

21.

A patient presents to the ER with RUQ pain, ^ WBC, and jaundice. The patient likely has _____.

a)

Schistosomiasis

b)

Echinococcal cyst

c)

Hemangioma

d)

Pyogenic abscess

22.

The most common benign liver neoplasm is ____.

a)

Echinococcal cyst

b)

Cavernous hemangioma

c)

FNH

d)

LCA

23.

A Doppler "spokes-wheel" pattern is associated with:

a)

Hemangioma

b)

LCA

c)

FNH

d)

Lipoma

24.

What two neoplasms are associated with oral contraceptive use?

a)

Hemangioma & LCA

b)

LCA & FNH

c)

FNH & Cystadenoma

d)

FNH & Hemangioma

25.

Which of the following tumors may display prop. speed artifact

a)

LCA

b)

FNH

c)

Lipoma

d)

Gaucher's disease

26.

_____ is associated with irregular copper accumulation.

a)

Neimann Pick's

b)

Wilson's Disease

c)

FNH

d)

LCA

27.

What is the most common primary liver cancer?

a)

HCC

b)

LCA

c)

Metastatic Liver Cancer

d)

Hemangiosarcoma

28.

Most common vascular tumor in infants is:

a)

HCC

b)

Benign Infantile Hemangioendothelioma

c)

Mesenchymal Hamartoma

d)

Hepatoblastoma

29.

The most common pediatric liver cancer is:

a)

Hepatoblastoma

b)

Metastatic liver disease

c)

Benign Infantile Hemangioendothelioma

d)

Mesenchymal Hamartoma

30.

The most common liver neoplasm is:

a)

Hemangioma

b)

Hepatoma

c)

Metastatic Liver disease

d)

FNH

31.

A patient presents to the ER with RUQ pain, ^ AFP, jaundice, and weight loss. What is likely your sonographic finding?

a)

Hepatoma

b)

Metastatic Liver Cancer

c)

Hemangioma

d)

Hemangiosarcoma

32.

The following liver cancer is associated w/exposure to arsenic and polyvinyl chloride:

a)

Hepatoma

b)

Hemangiosarcoma

c)

Metastatic Liver Cancer

d)

HCC

33.

A male infant is seen for palpable abdominal mass. You see a "lace-like" structure in the liver. What is your diagnosis?

a)

Mesenchymal Hamartoma

b)

Hepatoblastoma

c)

Hepatoma

d)

Hemangioendothelioma

34.

A T.I.P.S Shunt is a connection between the ___ and ____.

a)

LPV & RHV

b)

LPV & LHV

c)

RPV & RHV

d)

LPV & RHV

35.

_____ suspends the liver from the diaphragm.

a)

Ligamentum venosum

b)

Falciform Ligament

c)

MLF

d)

Ligamentum Teres

36.

The RPV separates the liver into ____ & ____ segments.

a)

left and right

b)

medial and lateral

c)

anterior and posterior

d)

superior and inferior

37.

The liver is intraperitoneal.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

All of the following are findings of Portal HTN except:

a)

PV of 12 mm

b)

Ascites

c)

Hepatofugal PV flow

d)

recanalized umbilical vein

39.

After a recent MVA, a pt is seen in the ER for pain, ^LFTs, & ^WBC. The following image is taken. Your diagnosis is?

a)

Budd-Chiari Syndrom

b)

PV thrombosis

c)

Umbilical vein recanalization

d)

Metastatic Liver disease

40.

Diagnosis of hepatomegaly is given when the liver measures ____ in craniocaudal.

a)

>14 cm

b)

>15 cm

c)

> 16 cm

d)

>17 cm

41.

The liver stores all of the following except:

a)

Fats

b)

Iron & Copper

c)

Calcitonin

d)

Carbohydrates

42.

Which of the following should a sonographer do following a liver biopsy?

a)

Identify the patient using two identifiers

b)

Have the patient sign the consent form

c)

Take the specimen to the Radiologist

d)

Ensure that the specimen is properly labeled

43.

Transducer selection with a frequency of ______ is best for most adults.

a)

2MHz-5MHz

b)

3MHz-5MHz

c)

2.5-5MHz

d)

3-6MHz

44.

The ____ and ____ merge together at the ampulla of Vater at the section portion of the duodenum

a)

CHD & CBD

b)

Duct of wirsung & duct of santorini

c)

CBD & duct of wirsung

d)

CHD & Duct of santorini

45.

The ____ lies in the posterior lateral portion of the pancreas head

a)

CBD

b)

GDA

c)

CHA

d)

PSC

46.

The maximum diameter of the aorta should be no more than ____ and the IVC ____

a)

3cm, 4cm

b)

4cm, 3cm

c)

3cm, 2.5cm

d)

2.5cm, 3cm

47.

The aorta originates from the:

a)

right atrium

b)

right ventricle

c)

left atrium

d)

left ventricle

48.

The first branch off of the aortic arch is:

a)

celiac axis

b)

innominate artery

c)

brachiocephalic artery

d)

both innominate and brachiocephalic artery

49.

The aorta is intraperitoneal

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The abdominal aorta should measure no more than:

a)

2 cms

b)

2.5 cms

c)

3 cms

d)

3.5 cms

51.

The branch of the celiac axis that is not typically visualized is the:

a)

CHA

b)

SA

c)

LGA

d)

RGA

52.

The SMA comes off of the _____ aspect of the aorta.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

left

d)

right

53.

Which of the following is not typically visualized sonographically?

a)

CA

b)

SMA

c)

Renal arteries

d)

IMA

54.

The _____ artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach.

a)

LGA

b)

RGA

c)

MCA

d)

IMA

55.

______ forms the superior border of the pancreas.

a)

HA

b)

SA

c)

LGA

d)

SMA

56.

_____ can be seen superior to the left cruise of the diaphragm.

a)

SMA

b)

right cruise of the diaphragm

c)

GEJ

d)

right renal artery

57.

What structure courses posterior to the IVC?

a)

RRA

b)

LRA

c)

RRV

d)

LRV

58.

The number one cause of an abdominal aortic aneurysm is:

a)

atherosclerosis

b)

arteriosclerosis

c)

cholesterol-lipid-calciumdeposits

d)

all of the above

59.

Atherosclerosis affects the _____ layer(s):

a)

intima

b)

media

c)

adventitia

d)

both intima and media

60.

An AAA is defined as the width being increased ______ times of normal size.

a)

1.25

b)

1.5

c)

1.75

d)

2

61.

The most proximal portion of the common iliac arteries should not measure more than ____.

a)

0.5 cm

b)

1 cm

c)

1.5 cm

d)

2 cm

62.

The proximal aorta should measure ____ or less.

a)

2 cm

b)

2.5 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

3.25 cm

63.

An aneurysm caused by infection is termed:

a)

mycotic

b)

ectatic aorta

c)

true aneurysm

d)

dissecting

64.

The most common type of aneurysm is a :

a)

saccular

b)

fusiform

c)

dissecting

d)

pseudoaneurysm

65.

The most common location for a AAA is:

a)

ascending aorta

b)

sub renal

c)

supra renal

d)

common iliac arteries

66.

Which is not a risk factor for an AAA?

a)

greater than 75yrs old

b)

hypotension

c)

family history

d)

hypercholesterolemia

67.

A diffuse enlargement of the aorta is termed:

a)

saccular

b)

fusiform

c)

ectatic

d)

mycotic

68.

A location that has increased incidence of aneurysm especially in pancreatitis patients

a)

SA

b)

CA

c)

LGA

d)

GDA

69.

____ is often seen posterior to the sagittal IVC

a)

RRA

b)

LRA

c)

LRV

d)

LRA

70.

Left gonadal vein empties into ________

a)

IVC

b)

LRV

c)

RRV

d)

LRA

71.

The right crus can be mistaken for the _____.

a)

RRV

b)

LRA

c)

LRV

d)

RRA

72.

Right-sided heart failure may result in dilated ______.

a)

LPV

b)

RPV

c)

hepatic veins

d)

MPV

73.

The male body is organized so that blood flow on that side of the scrotum is greater, so varicoceles happen more often in the ______ testicle

a)

Left

b)

Right

74.

The gastroduodenal artery is a branch of the (a)  

75.

A dilated IVC, hepatic veins, and lower extremity edema is a sign of (a)   .

76.

Parts of the stomach, the duodenum, and the head of the pancreas are supplied by the:

a)

splenic artery

b)

superior mesenteric artery

c)

gastroduodenal artery

d)

hepatic artery

77.

An aortic aneurysm has a large increase risk of rupture when it reaches ______ cms.

a)

7

b)

5

c)

6

d)

4

78.

IVC blood filters are typically placed just superior to the renal veins as treatment of thrombus.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

The inferior mesenteric artery distributes blood to the:

a)

descending colon only

b)

ascending colon, rectum

c)

right transverse colon, ascending colon, sigmoid, rectum

d)

left transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid, rectum

80.

The most common tumor to fill the IVC is:

a)

Renal Cell Carcinoma

b)

Wilm’s tumor

c)

Transitional Cell Carcinoma

d)

All of the above

81.

The portal veins carry blood from the ____________ to the liver.

a)

portal splenic confluence

b)

Intestines

c)

SMA

d)

RRA

82.

The most common site for a dissecting aneurysm to occur is in the:

a)

Descending aorta

b)

Aortic arch

c)

Ascending aorta

d)

Abdominal aorta

83.

The sonographic sign associated with lymphadenopathy is known as:

a)

Double bubble sign

b)

Dumbell sign

c)

Mickey Mouse sign

d)

Sandwich sign

84.

To be considered a true aneurysm, the aortic diameter must measure:

a)

7 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

5 cm

85.

The clinical signs of leg edema, lower back pain, pelvic pain, gastrointestinal complaints, and renal and liver problems may represent (a)  

86.

An aneurysm that spreads to the entire aorta is known as _________.

a)

mycotic

b)

saccular

c)

ectatic

d)

fusiform

87.

What vessel passes anterior to the third part of the duodenum and posterior to the neck of the pancreas?

a)

splenic vein

b)

superior mesenteric vein

c)

superior mesenteric artery

d)

inferior mesenteric artery

88.

The arterial supply to the gallbladder is via the gastroduodenal artery.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The IVC courses anteriorly to enter the:

a)

left atrium

b)

right ventricle

c)

right coronary sinus

d)

right atrium

90.

Which of the following vessels arise from the anterior aortic wall and takes a parallel course to the aorta?

a)

splenic artery

b)

superior mesenteric artery

c)

hepatic artery

d)

renal artery

91.

An aneurysm caused by an infection is known as

a)

ectatic

b)

mycotic

c)

saccular

d)

fusiform

92.

A pseudoaneurysm is caused by weakened walls in an artery.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Collagen in the aorta walls increases as it descends inferiorly.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

A dilated IVC, hepatic veins, and lower extremity edema is a sign of ______.

a)

right-sided heart failure

b)

abdominal aortic rupture

c)

superior mesenteric thrombus

d)

IVC thrombosis

95.

The right gonadal vein drains into the ______, and the left gonadal vein drains into the _____.

a)

IVC, left renal vein

b)

right renal vein, IVC

c)

IVC

d)

right renal vein, left renal vein

96.

Tumor invasion of the IVC mostly occur with tumors of the right kidney.

a)

True

b)

False

97.

A 50-year-old male patient is seen in the ER for abdominal pain, hypotension, and central back pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

(a)  

98.

When a dissecting aneurysm occurs, the ______________ layer is seperated from the aortic wall.

a)

Media

b)

Collagen

c)

Intima

d)

Adventitia

99.

A pseudoaneurysm is:

a)

a result of a vessel wall where blood accumulates outside and is retained in a pocket

b)

a widening of the aorta, but not really a true aneurysm

c)

a widening at the level of the distal iliac bifurcation

d)

any aneurysm that does not exhibit blood clot

100.

_______ lies anterior to uncinate process.

a)

IMV

b)

SMV

c)

IMA

d)

SMA

101.

Which of the following is not a branch of the celiac axis

a)

LGA

b)

SA

c)

RGA

d)

CHA

102.

The most common gallbladder disease is:

a)

cholecystitis

b)

cholelithiasis

c)

gallbladder sludge

d)

choledochal cyst

103.

Which is not an "f" of cholelithiasis?

a)

female

b)

fifty

c)

fair

d)

obesity

104.

Which is not a sonographic feature of cholelithiasis?

a)

echogenic

b)

mobile

c)

enhancement

d)

shadow

105.

Which of the following is not a form of acute cholecystitis?

a)

calculous

b)

acalculous

c)

empyema

d)

gangranous

106.

The most common form of acute cholecystitis?

a)

acalculous cholecystitis

b)

calculous cholecystitis

c)

gangrenous cholecystitis

d)

emphysematous cholecystitis

107.

Edema surrounding the gallbladder infiltrating into the liver is known as:

a)

double barrel sign

b)

Mickey Mouse sign

c)

WES

d)

Halo sign

108.

Acalculous cholecystitis is typically due to:

a)

Trauma

b)

Compression of the cystic duct

c)

IV nutrition

d)

Inadequate blood supply

109.

A 47-year-old diabetic male was seen in the ER after a sudden onset of RUQ pain. What's the likely diagnosis?

a)

Calculous cholecystitis

b)

Acalculous cholecystitis

c)

Gangrenous Cholecystitis

d)

Emphysematous cholecystitis

110.

What is the term used for when the gallbladder becomes filled with sludge and matches liver parenchyma.

a)

isoezation

b)

hepatization

c)

tumefactive

d)

choleization

111.

You notice a polypoid mass in the gallbladder of your patient. When rolled, it appears the mass is mobile. What is dx?

a)

Sludge

b)

Cholelithiasis

c)

Tumefactive sludge

d)

Gallbladder carcinoma

112.

Which is not a composition of cholelithiasis?

a)

cholesterol

b)

bilirubin

c)

calcium

d)

cholecystokinin

113.

A gallbladder wall is considered thickened when measured over ____.

a)

2 mm

b)

3 mm

c)

4 mm

d)

5 mm

114.

Liquification and necrosis of the gallbladder is termed:

a)

Emphysematous

b)

Gallbladder rupture

c)

Gangrenous

d)

Empyema

115.

You have a patient with RUQ pain and ^WBC. While scanning the GB, you notice low-level echoes filling the lumen. Dx?

a)

Empyema

b)

Gallbladder carcinoma

c)

Emphysematous

d)

Sludge

116.

Which of the following would dilate in a patient with a Klatskin tumor?

a)

Extrahepatic ducts only

b)

Intrahepatic ducts only

c)

Both extra and intrahepatic ducts

d)

No dilation with this tumor

117.

Mirizzi's syndrome causes compression of the ___ duct by a stone logged in the ___.

a)

CD, CHD

b)

CD, CBD

c)

CHD, CD

d)

CHD, CBD

118.

Which of the following is NOT a finding with cholangiocarcinoma?

a)

Patency of duct

b)

Ductal dilation

c)

Focal ductal stricture

d)

Soft tissue mass within the duct

119.

A choledochal cyst is a true cyst.

a)

True

b)

False

120.

A choledochal cyst is a cystic dilation of the ______.

a)

CHD

b)

CD

c)

RHD & LHD

d)

CBD

121.

A CBD in a post-cholecystectomy patient is considered normal if it measures _____ or less.

a)

1 cm

b)

5 mm

c)

10 mm

d)

Both 1 cm and 10 mm

122.

The most common primary location for metastatic cancer to the gallbladder is from:

a)

colon

b)

prostate

c)

melanoma

d)

pancreas

123.

Metastatic cancer to the gallbladder is rarely accompanied by liver Mets.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

The most common gallbladder carcinoma is?

a)

adenocarcinoma

b)

cholangiocarcinoma

c)

Mucinous cell

d)

Squamous Cell

125.

A painless enlargement of the gallbladder is known as:

a)

Hydrops

b)

Courvoisier's sign

c)

Mirrizzi's sign

d)

Bouvert's sign

126.

Courvoisier's gallbladder is typically caused by:

a)

A stone logged in the CD

b)

A pancreatic head mass

c)

Klatskin's tumor

d)

Mirrizzi's syndrome

127.

When the walls of the gallbladder become completely calcified, it is known as:

a)

Porcelain gallbladder

b)

Courvoisier's gallbladder

c)

WES sign

d)

Hydropic gallbladder

128.

You are scanning a patient with RUQ pain & notice their GB appears distended, & the wall is thin. Your diagnosis is:

a)

Courvoisier's gallbladder

b)

Hydropic gallbladder

c)

Mirrizzi's gallbladder

d)

Adenomyometosis

129.

Enlarged RAS containing diverticula is termed:

a)

Cholesterolosis

b)

Adenomyomatosis

c)

Polyp

d)

Adenoma

130.

The sonographic artifact you would visualize with adenomyomatosis is

a)

Reverberation artifact

b)

Ringdown artifact

c)

Comet-tail artifact

d)

Both reverberation and comet-tail artifact

131.

Another name for cholesterolosis is:

a)

WES sign

b)

Strawberry gallbladder

c)

Rokitansky-Aschoff

d)

Couvoisier's gallbladder

132.

Cholesterolosis in the gallbladder is directly linked to elevated cholesterol in the blood.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

An adenoma of the gallbladder has concern for malignancy potential if it measures more than ____.

a)

5 mm

b)

1 cm

c)

2 cm

d)

1.5 cm

134.

Gallbladder carcinoma is associated with all of the following except:

a)

Gallstones

b)

Chronic cholecystitis

c)

Acute cholecystitis

d)

Porcelain gallbladder

135.

You are performing a RUQ on a child & notice multiple "bead-like" cystic masses near porta-hepatitis. The diagnosis is:

a)

Caroli's disease

b)

Mirrizi's disease

c)

Bouvet's disease

d)

Klatskin's tumor

136.

A Klatskin tumor is located where?

a)

CBD bifurcation

b)

CHD bifurcation

c)

Cystic Duct

d)

Ampulla of Vater

137.

Bouvet's syndrome is obstruction of the:

a)

CBD

b)

CD

c)

Bowel

d)

Both CD and CHD

138.

Choledochalithiasis typically becomes impacted at:

a)

The duct of wirsung

b)

CD

c)

Ampulla of Vater

d)

CBD

139.

Inflammation of the bile duct is known as:

a)

Cholecytitis

b)

Cholangitis

c)

Cholelitiasis

d)

Choledochallithiasis

140.

You're scanning a PT with recent gastric surgery. You see an echogenic linear structure in the ducts. This is likely?

a)

Cholangitis

b)

Emphysematous cholecystitis

c)

Pneumobilia

d)

Empyema

141.

All of the findings are consistent with pneumobilia except:

a)

Echogenic linear structure in ductal systm

b)

Dirty shadowing

c)

Posterior enhancement

d)

Reverberation