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WorksheetsA&P Exam 2 chapter quizzes
Total questions: 141
Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins
Which function of the skeletal system would be especially important if you were in a car accident?
storage of minerals
protection of internal organs
facilitation of movement
fat storage
Bone tissue can be described as ________.
dead calcified tissue
cartilage
the skeletal system
dense, hard connective tissue
Without red marrow, bones would not be able to ________.
store phosphate
store calcium
make blood cells
move like levers
Yellow marrow has been identified as ________.
an area of fat storage
a point of attachment for muscles
the hard portion of bone
the cause of kyphosis
Which of the following can be found in areas of movement?
hematopoiesis
cartilage
yellow marrow
red marrow
The skeletal system is made of ________.
muscles and tendons
bones and cartilage
vitreous humor
minerals and fat
Most of the bones of the arms and hands are long bones; however, the bones in the wrist are categorized as ________.
flat bones
short bones
sesamoid bones
irregular bones
Sesamoid bones are found embedded in ________.
joints
muscles
ligaments
tendons
Bones that surround the spinal cord are classified as ________ bones.
irregular
sesamoid
flat
short
Which category of bone is among the most numerous in the skeleton?
long bone
sesamoid bone
short bone
flat bone
Long bones enable body movement by acting as a ________.
counterweight
resistive force
lever
fulcrum
Which of the following occurs in the spongy bone of the epiphysis?
bone growth
bone remodeling
hematopoiesis
shock absorption
The diaphysis contains ________.
the metaphysis
fat stores
spongy bone
compact bone
The fibrous membrane covering the outer surface of the bone is the ________.
periosteum
epiphysis
endosteum
diaphysis
Which of the following are incapable of undergoing mitosis?
osteoblasts and osteoclasts
osteocytes and osteoclasts
osteoblasts and osteocytes
osteogenic cells and osteoclasts
Which cells do not originate from osteogenic cells?
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
osteocytes
osteoprogenitor cells
Which of the following are found in compact bone and cancellous bone?
Haversian systems
Haversian canals
lamellae
lacunae
Which of the following are only found in cancellous bone?
canaliculi
Volkmann’s canals
trabeculae
calcium salts
The area of a bone where the nutrient foramen passes forms what kind of bone marking?
a hole
a facet
a canal
a fissure
Why is cartilage slow to heal?
because it eventually develops into bone
because it is semi-solid and flexible
because it does not have a blood supply
because endochondral ossification replaces all cartilage with bone
Why are osteocytes spread out in bone tissue?
They develop from mesenchymal cells.
They are surrounded by osteoid.
They travel through the capillaries.
Formation of osteoid spreads out the osteoblasts that formed the ossification centers.
In endochondral ossification, what happens to the chondrocytes?
They develop into osteocytes.
They die in the calcified matrix that surrounds them and form the medullary cavity.
They grow and form the periosteum.
They group together to form the primary ossification center.
Which of the following bones is (are) formed by intramembranous ossification?
the metatarsals
the femur
the ribs
the flat bones of the cranium
Bones grow in length due to activity in the ________.
epiphyseal plate
perichondrium
periosteum
medullary cavity
Bones grow in diameter due to bone formation ________.
in the medullary cavity
beneath the periosteum
in the epiphyseal plate
within the metaphysis
Which of the following represents the correct sequence of zones in the epiphyseal plate?
proliferation, reserved, maturation, calcification
maturation, proliferation, reserved, calcification
calcification, maturation, proliferation, reserved
calcification, reserved, proliferation, maturation
A fracture can be both ________.
open and closed
open and transverse
transverse and greenstick
greenstick and comminuted
How can a fractured diaphysis release fat globules into the bloodstream?
The bone pierces fat stores in the skin.
The yellow marrow in the diaphysis is exposed and damaged.
The injury triggers the body to release fat from healthy bones.
The red marrow in the fractured bone releases fat to heal the fracture.
In a compound fracture, ________.
the break occurs at an angle to the bone
the broken bone does not tear the skin
one fragment of broken bone is compressed into the other
broken bone pierces the skin
The internal and external calli are replaced by ________.
hyaline cartilage
trabecular bone
osteogenic cells
osteoclasts
The first type of bone to form during fracture repair is ________ bone.
compact
lamellar
spongy
dense
Wolff’s law, which describes the effect of mechanical forces in bone modeling/remodeling, would predict that ________
a right-handed pitcher will have thicker bones in his right arm compared to his left.
a right-handed cyclist will have thicker bones in her right leg compared to her left.
a broken bone will heal thicker than it was before the fracture.
a bed-ridden patient will have thicker bones than an athlete.
Calcium cannot be absorbed from the small intestine if ________ is lacking.
vitamin D
vitamin K
calcitonin
fluoride
Which one of the following foods is best for bone health?
carrots
liver
leafy green vegetables
oranges
Which of the following hormones are responsible for the adolescent growth spurt?
estrogen and testosterone
calcitonin and calcitriol
growth hormone and parathyroid hormone
thyroxine and progesterone
With respect to their direct effects on osseous tissue, which pair of hormones has actions that oppose each other?
estrogen and testosterone
calcitonin and calcitriol
estrogen and progesterone
calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
When calcium levels are too high or too low, which body system is primarily affected?
skeletal system
endocrine system
digestive system
nervous system
All of the following play a role in calcium homeostasis except
thyroxine
calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
vitamin D
Which of the following is most likely to be released when blood calcium levels are elevated?
thyroxine
calcitonin
parathyroid hormone
vitamin D
Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
shoulder bones
thigh bone
foot bones
vertebral column
Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
allows for movement of the wrist and hand
protects nerves and blood vessels at the elbow
supports trunk of body
allows for movements of the ankle and foot
The axial skeleton ________.
consists of 126 bones
forms the vertical axis of the body
includes all bones of the body trunk and limbs
includes only the bones of the lower limbs
Which of the following is a bone of the brain case?
parietal bone
zygomatic bone
maxillary bone
lacrimal bone
The lambdoid suture joins the parietal bone to the ________.
frontal bone
occipital bone
other parietal bone
temporal bone
The middle cranial fossa ________.
is bounded anteriorly by the petrous ridge
is bounded posteriorly by the lesser wing of the sphenoid bone
is divided at the midline by a small area of the ethmoid bone
has the foramen rotundum, foramen ovale, and foramen spinosum
The paranasal sinuses are ________.
air-filled spaces found within the frontal, maxilla, sphenoid, and ethmoid bones only
air-filled spaces found within all bones of the skull
not connected to the nasal cavity
divided at the midline by the nasal septum
Parts of the sphenoid bone include the ________.
sella turcica
squamous portion
glabella
zygomatic process
The bony openings of the skull include the ________.
carotid canal, which is located in the anterior cranial fossa
superior orbital fissure, which is located at the superior margin of the anterior orbit
mental foramen, which is located just below the orbit
hypoglossal canal, which is located in the posterior cranial fossa
The cervical region of the vertebral column consists of ________.
seven vertebrae
12 vertebrae
five vertebrae
a single bone derived from the fusion of five vertebrae
The primary curvatures of the vertebral column ________.
include the lumbar curve
are remnants of the original fetal curvature
include the cervical curve
develop after the time of birth
A typical vertebra has ________.
a vertebral foramen that passes through the body
superior articular process that projects downward to articulate with the superior portion of the next lower vertebra
lamina that spans between the transverse process and spinous process
a pair of laterally projecting spinous processes
A typical lumbar vertebra has ________.
a short, rounded spinous process
a bifid spinous process
articulation sites for ribs
a transverse foramen
Which is found only in the cervical region of the vertebral column?
nuchal ligament
ligamentum flavum
supraspinous ligament
anterior longitudinal ligament
The sternum ________.
consists of only two parts, the manubrium and xiphoid process
has the sternal angle located between the manubrium and body
receives direct attachments from the costal cartilages of all 12 pairs of ribs
articulates directly with the thoracic vertebrae
The sternal angle is the ________.
junction between the body and xiphoid process
site for attachment of the clavicle
site for attachment of the floating ribs
junction between the manubrium and body
The tubercle of a rib ________.
is for articulation with the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra
is for articulation with the body of a thoracic vertebra
provides for passage of blood vessels and a nerve
is the area of greatest rib curvature
True ribs are ________.
ribs 8–12
attached via their costal cartilage to the next higher rib
made entirely of bone, and thus do not have a costal cartilage
attached via their costal cartilage directly to the sternum
Embryonic development of the axial skeleton involves ________.
intramembranous ossification, which forms the facial bones.
endochondral ossification, which forms the ribs and sternum
the notochord, which produces the cartilage models for the vertebrae
the formation of hyaline cartilage models, which give rise to the flat bones of the skull
A fontanelle ________.
is the cartilage model for a vertebra that later is converted into bone
gives rise to the facial bones and vertebrae
is the rod-like structure that runs the length of the early embryo
is the area of fibrous connective tissue found at birth between the brain case bones
Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manubrium?
shaft
sternal end
acromial end
coracoid process
A shoulder separation results from injury to the ________.
glenohumeral joint
costoclavicular joint
acromioclavicular joint
sternoclavicular joint
Which feature lies between the spine and superior border of the scapula?
suprascapular notch
glenoid cavity
superior angle
supraspinous fossa
What structure is an extension of the spine of the scapula?
acromion
coracoid process
supraglenoid tubercle
glenoid cavity
Name the short, hook-like bony process of the scapula that projects anteriorly.
acromial process
clavicle
coracoid process
glenoid fossa
How many bones are there in the upper limbs combined?
20
30
40
60
Which bony landmark is located on the lateral side of the proximal humerus?
greater tubercle
trochlea
lateral epicondyle
lesser tubercle
Which region of the humerus articulates with the radius as part of the elbow joint?
trochlea
styloid process
capitulum
olecranon process
Which is the lateral-most carpal bone of the proximal row?
trapezium
hamate
pisiform
scaphoid
The radius bone ________.
is found on the medial side of the forearm
has a head that articulates with the radial notch of the ulna
does not articulate with any of the carpal bones
has the radial tuberosity located near its distal end
How many bones fuse in adulthood to form the hip bone?
2
3
4
5
Which component forms the superior part of the hip bone?
ilium
pubis
ischium
sacrum
Which of the following supports body weight when sitting?
iliac crest
ischial tuberosity
ischiopubic ramus
pubic body
The ischial spine is found between which of the following structures?
inferior pubic ramus and ischial ramus
pectineal line and arcuate line
lesser sciatic notch and greater sciatic notch
anterior superior iliac spine and posterior superior iliac spine
The pelvis ________.
has a subpubic angle that is larger in females
consists of the two hip bones, but does not include the sacrum or coccyx
has an obturator foramen, an opening that is defined in part by the sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments
has a space located inferior to the pelvic brim called the greater pelvis
Which bony landmark of the femur serves as a site for muscle attachments?
fovea capitis
lesser trochanter
head
medial condyle
What structure contributes to the knee joint?
lateral malleolus of the fibula
tibial tuberosity
medial condyle of the tibia
lateral epicondyle of the femur
Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?
calcaneus
cuboid
navicular
talus
What is the total number of bones found in the foot and toes?
7
14
26
30
The tibia ________.
has an expanded distal end called the lateral malleolus
is not a weight-bearing bone
is firmly anchored to the fibula by an interosseous membrane
can be palpated (felt) under the skin only at its proximal and distal ends
Which event takes place during the seventh week of development?
appearance of the upper and lower limb buds
flattening of the distal limb bud into a paddle shape
the first appearance of hyaline cartilage models of future bones
the rotation of the limbs
During endochondral ossification of a long bone, ________.
a primary ossification center will develop within the epiphysis
mesenchyme will differentiate directly into bone tissue
growth of the epiphyseal plate will produce bone lengthening
all epiphyseal plates will disappear before birth
The clavicle ________.
develops via intramembranous ossification
develops via endochondral ossification
is the last bone of the body to begin ossification
is fully ossified at the time of birth
The joint between adjacent vertebrae that includes an invertebral disc is classified as which type of joint?
diarthrosis multiaxial amphiarthrosis synarthrosis
multiaxial
amphiarthrosis
synarthrosis
Which of these joints is classified as a synarthrosis?
the pubic symphysis
the manubriosternal joint
an invertebral disc
the shoulder joint
Which of these joints is classified as a biaxial diarthrosis?
the metacarpophalangeal joint
joint the hip joint
the elbow joint
the pubic symphysis
Synovial joints ________.
may be functionally classified as a synarthrosis
are joints where the bones are connected to each other by hyaline cartilage
may be functionally classified as a amphiarthrosis
are joints where the bones articulate with each other within a fluid-filled joint cavity
Which type of fibrous joint connects the tibia and fibula?
syndesmosis
symphysis
suture
gomphosis
An example of a wide fibrous joint is ________.
the interosseous membrane of the forearma
a gomphosis
a suture joint
a synostosis
A gomphosis ________.
is formed by an interosseous membrane
connects the tibia and fibula bones of the leg
contains a joint cavity
anchors a tooth to the jaw
A syndesmosis is ________.
a narrow fibrous joint
the type of joint that unites bones of the skull
a fibrous joint that unites parallel bones
the type of joint that anchors the teeth in the jaws
A cartilaginous joint ________.
has a joint cavity
is called a symphysis when the bones are united by fibrocartilage
anchors the teeth to the jaws
is formed by a wide sheet of fibrous connective tissue
A synchondrosis is ________.
found at the pubic symphysis
where bones are connected together with fibrocartilage
a type of fibrous joint
found at the first sternocostal joint of the thoracic cage
Which of the following are joined by a symphysis?
adjacent vertebrae
the first rib and the sternum
the end and shaft of a long bone
the radius and ulna bones
The epiphyseal plate of a growing long bone in a child is classified as a ________.
synchondrosis
synostosis
symphysis
syndesmosis
Which type of joint provides the greatest range of motion?
ball-and-socket
hinge
condyloid
plane
Which type of joint allows for only uniaxial movement?
saddle joint
hinge joint
condyloid joint
ball-and-socket joint
Which of the following is a type of synovial joint?
a synostosis
a suture
a plane joint
a synchondrosis
A bursa ________.
surrounds a tendon at the point where the tendon crosses a joint
secretes the lubricating fluid for a synovial joint
prevents friction between skin and bone, or a muscle tendon and bone
is the strong band of connective tissue that holds bones together at a synovial joint
At synovial joints, ________.
the articulating ends of the bones are directly connected by fibrous connective tissue
the ends of the bones are enclosed within a space called a subcutaneous bursa
intrinsic ligaments are located entirely inside of the articular capsule
the joint cavity is filled with a thick, lubricating fluid
At a synovial joint, the synovial membrane ________.
forms the fibrous connective walls of the joint cavity
is the layer of cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces of the bones
forms the intracapsular ligaments
secretes the lubricating synovial fluid
Condyloid joints ________.
are a type of ball-and-socket joint
include the radiocarpal joint
are a uniaxial diarthrosis joint
are found at the proximal radioulnar joint
A meniscus is ________.
a fibrocartilage pad that provides padding between bones
a fluid-filled space that prevents friction between a muscle tendon and underlying bone
the articular cartilage that covers the ends of a bone at a synovial joint
the lubricating fluid within a synovial joint
The joints between the articular processes of adjacent vertebrae can contribute to which movement?
lateral flexion
circumduction
dorsiflexion
abduction
Which motion moves the bottom of the foot away from the midline of the body?
elevation
dorsiflexion
eversion
plantar flexion
Movement of a body region in a circular movement at a condyloid joint is what type of motion?
rotation
elevation
abduction
circumduction
Supination is the motion that moves the ________.
hand from the palm backward position to the palm forward position
foot so that the bottom of the foot faces the midline of the body
hand from the palm forward position to the palm backward position
scapula in an upward direction
Movement at the shoulder joint that moves the upper limb laterally away from the body is called ________.
elevation
eversion
abduction
lateral rotation
The primary support for the glenohumeral joint is provided by the ________.
coracohumeral ligament
glenoid labrum
rotator cuff muscles
subacromial bursa
The proximal radioulnar joint ________.
is supported by the annular ligament
contains an articular disc that strongly unites the bones
is supported by the ulnar collateral ligament
is a hinge joint that allows for flexion/extension of the forearm
Which statement is true concerning the knee joint?
The lateral meniscus is an intrinsic ligament located on the lateral side of the knee joint.
Hyperextension is resisted by the posterior cruciate ligament.
The anterior cruciate ligament supports the knee when it is flexed and weight bearing.
The medial meniscus is attached to the tibial collateral ligament.
The ankle joint ________.
is also called the subtalar joint
allows for gliding movements that produce inversion/eversion of the foot
is a uniaxial hinge joint
is supported by the tibial collateral ligament on the lateral side
Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation?
cervical
thoriac
lumbar
sacral
Intramembranous ossification ________.
gives rise to the bones of the limbs
produces the bones of the top and sides of the skull
produces the bones of the face and base of the skull
involves the conversion of a hyaline cartilage model into bone
Synovial joints ________.
are derived from fontanelles
are produced by intramembranous ossification
develop at an interzone site
are produced by endochondral ossification
Endochondral ossification is ________.
the process that replaces hyaline cartilage with bone tissue
the process by which mesenchyme differentiates directly into bone tissue
completed before birth
the process that gives rise to the joint interzone and future joint cavity
Muscle that has a striped appearance is described as being ________.
elastic
nonstriated
excitable
striated
Which element is important in directly triggering contraction?
sodium (Na+)
calcium (Ca++)
potassium (K+)
chloride (Cl-)
Which of the following properties is not common to all three muscle tissues?
excitability
the need for ATP
at rest, uses shielding proteins to cover actin-binding sites
elasticity
The correct order for the smallest to the largest unit of organization in muscle tissue is ________.
fascicle, filament, muscle fiber, myofibril
filament, myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle
muscle fiber, fascicle, filament, myofibril
myofibril, muscle fiber, filament, fascicle
Depolarization of the sarcolemma means ________.
the inside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate
the outside of the membrane has become less negative as sodium ions accumulate
the inside of the membrane has become more negative as sodium ions accumulate
the sarcolemma has completely lost any electrical charge
In relaxed muscle, the myosin-binding site on actin is blocked by ________.
titin
troponin
myoglobin
tropomyosin
According to the sliding filament model, binding sites on actin open when ________.
creatine phosphate levels rise
ATP levels rise
acetylcholine levels rise
calcium ion levels rise
The cell membrane of a muscle fiber is called ________.
myofibril
sarcolemma
sarcoplasm
myofilament
Muscle relaxation occurs when ________.
calcium ions are actively transported out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium ions diffuse out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium ions are actively transported into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
calcium ions diffuse into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
During muscle contraction, the cross-bridge detaches when ________.
the myosin head binds to an ADP molecule
the myosin head binds to an ATP molecule
calcium ions bind to troponin
calcium ions bind to actin
Thin and thick filaments are organized into functional units called ________.
myofibrils
myofilaments
T-tubules
sarcomeres
During which phase of a twitch in a muscle fiber is tension the greatest?
resting phase
repolarization phase
contraction phase
relaxation phase
Muscle fatigue is caused by ________.
buildup of ATP and lactic acid levels
exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of lactic acid levels
buildup of ATP and pyruvic acid levels
exhaustion of energy reserves and buildup of pyruvic acid levels
A sprinter would experience muscle fatigue sooner than a marathon runner due to ________.
anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter
anaerobic metabolism in the muscles of the marathon runner
aerobic metabolism in the muscles of the sprinter
glycolysis in the muscles of the marathon runner
What aspect of creatine phosphate allows it to supply energy to muscles?
ATPase activity
phosphate bonds
carbon bonds
hydrogen bonds
Drug X blocks ATP regeneration from ADP and phosphate. How will muscle cells respond to this drug?
by absorbing ATP from the bloodstream
by using ADP as an energy source
by using glycogen as an energy source
none of the above
The muscles of a professional sprinter are most likely to have ________.
80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
The muscles of a professional marathon runner are most likely to have ________.
80 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 20 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
20 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 80 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
50 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 50 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
40 percent fast-twitch muscle fibers and 60 percent slow-twitch muscle fibers
Which of the following statements is true?
Fast fibers have a small diameter.
Fast fibers contain loosely packed myofibrils.
Fast fibers have large glycogen reserves.
Fast fibers have many mitochondria.
Which of the following statements is false?
Slow fibers have a small network of capillaries.
Slow fibers contain the pigment myoglobin.
Slow fibers contain a large number of mitochondria.
Slow fibers contract for extended periods.
Cardiac muscles differ from skeletal muscles in that they ________.
are striated
utilize aerobic metabolism
contain myofibrils
contain intercalated discs
If cardiac muscle cells were prevented from undergoing aerobic metabolism, they ultimately would ________.
undergo glycolysis
synthesize ATP
stop contracting
start contracting
Smooth muscles differ from skeletal and cardiac muscles in that they ________.
lack myofibrils
are under voluntary control
lack myosin
lack actin
Which of the following statements describes smooth muscle cells?
They are resistant to fatigue.
They have a rapid onset of contractions.
They cannot exhibit tetanus.
They primarily use anaerobic metabolism.
From which embryonic cell type does muscle tissue develop?
ganglion cells
myotube cells
myoblast cells
satellite cells
Which cell type helps to repair injured muscle fibers?
ganglion cells
myotube cells
myoblast cells
satellite cells
