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General Science

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Two bird species regularly visit feeders for sunflower seeds during the winter. For a month, several students take turns watching the feeding location from 6:30 to 7:30 every morning and record their observations. They find that whenever individuals of one species arrive at the feeder, individuals of the other species leave. They conclude their is competition between the species. What would strengthen the students' conclusion?

a)

including more than one type of food resource at the feeding station

b)

observing the feeding behaviors of both species under natural conditions

c)

recording feeding behaviors at different times of the day

d)

having the students work in pairs while making observations

2.

Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins's analysis of DNA molecule with X-ray crystallography contributed to which of the following breakthroughs in DNA research?

a)

determining the number of chromosomes in human DNA

b)

characterizing the structure of the DNA molecule

c)

determining the process of DNA replication

d)

characterizing the nucleotides that comprise the DNA molecule

3.

Which of the following discoveries about light was made in the early part of the 1900's by the scientists Max Planck and Albert Einstein?

a)

The speed of light is different in different optical materials

b)

Light behaves as both a wave and a particle.

c)

The color of light is related to its frequency.`

d)

Light is just a small segment of the electromagnetic spectrum.

4.

Moving a bar magnet through the center of an insulated copper wire coil will:

a)

reverse the polarity of the bar magnet

b)

induce an electric current

c)

temporarily magnetize the copper

d)

reduce the copper atoms in the wire

5.

In a closed system, an input of energy is required to increase the orderliness of the system. This relationship is most closely related to which of the following concepts?

a)

conservation of energy

b)

entropy

c)

kinetic theory

d)

power

6.

Many endocrine systems are regulated by a process in which the final product inhibits production of more product. A decline in concentration of the product results in an increase in production of the product. This system is an example of which of the following general concepts?

a)

cataysis

b)

emergent properties

c)

feedback control

d)

conservation of energy

7.

Most enzymes in biology are examples of which of the following in chemistry?

a)

bases

b)

isotopes

c)

acids

d)

catalysts

8.

In 1965, scientists Arno Penzias and Robert Wilson discovered microwave radiation emanating uniformly from all directions in the sky. This discovery provided important evidence supporting:

a)

the steady-state theory of the universe

b)

the cosmological principle

c)

the big bang theory of the origin of the universe

d)

the law of universal gravitation

9.

Which of the following is a common objection to genetically modified foods but not a common objection to the cloning of animals?

a)

possible introduction of novel genes into wild populations

b)

ethical concerns related to modification of populations

c)

reduction of the gene pool in wild populations

d)

introduction of political considerations into science

10.

The following headline appears in a local paper.


More CO2 will be Captured by Earth's Oceans as Global Temperatures Increase


A high school science teacher reads the headline and decides to use it as a teaching tool. Four different classes read the headline and each class comes up with an analysis of what is wrong with it. Which of the following explanations correctly identifies the scientific error in the newspaper headline?

a)

Earth's oceans do not have the capacity to serve as a significant reservoir for atmospheric CO2

b)

The solubility of atmospheric CO2 decreases as the temperature of the dissolving liquid increases.

c)

The CO2-induced temperature increase will be offset by the moderating effect of the oceans.

d)

The scientific community is not in agreement about the effect of CO2 on global temperatures.

11.

The cost of desalinating seawater has been greatly reduced by advances in the development of:

a)

`carbon nanotubes

b)

superconducting materials

c)

reverse osmosis technology

d)

thermosenstive plastics

12.

Amy Smith, an engineering professor, has developed the phase-change incubator for growing and identifying bacterial pathogens in drinking water in regions of the world with no electricity. Her invention consists of a sealed aluminum tube containing a substance that changes phase and an insulated box that holds both the tube and the bacterial sample to be grown for identification. The change in phase of the substance in the tube maintains a constant temperature in the insulated box. Which of the following describes the phase change that most likely is occurring in this device in order for it to maintain a sufficiently high temperature?

a)

As a liquid changes to a solid, the temperature of the substance stays constant while it gives off heat.

b)

As a solid changes to liquid, heat is given off until all the substance has become entirely liquid.

c)

As a liquid changes to gas, heat is given off at a constant rate until all the substance has evaporated.

d)

As gas changes to solid, the temperature of the substance rises until it has completely solidified.

13.

In the early 1900's, Ernest Rutherford performed experiments that allowed science to move beyond J.J. Thomson's "plum pudding model" of atomic structure, which desribed the atom as electrons embedded in a uniform positive charge. Rutherford's improvement on this model was his hypothesis that:

a)

the positive charge of an atom is carried by protons

b)

the atomic positive charge is concentrated at the atom's center

c)

all electrons carry a net negative charge

d)

atoms of different elements differ in their number of protons

14.

Which of the following can be classified as a colloid?

a)

fog

b)

brass

c)

lemonade

d)

sand

15.

Which of the following statements correctly compares the properties of an aqueous potassium sulfate solution with those of pure water?

a)

The boiling point of the solution will be higher than that of water, and the freezing point of the solution will be lower than that of water

b)

The boiling point of the solution will be lower than that of water, and the freezing point of the solution will be higher than that of water

c)

The boiling point and freezing point of the solution will both be higher than that of water

d)

The boiling point and freezing point of the solution will be both be lower than that of water

16.

According to the kinetic-molecular theory of gases, the volume of individual gas particles:

a)

is different for each type of gas.

b)

expands and contracts based on temperature changes.

c)

is inversely related to particle speed.

d)

is negligible compared to the total volume separating gas particles.

17.

Which type of bond is present between the O and H atoms in OH-?

a)

ionic

b)

metallic

c)

covalent

d)

hydrogen

18.

C2H5OH(l) + 02 (g) ------> CO2(g) + H2O(g)


The above reaction is not balenced. How many molecules of water are produced when 2 molecules of ethanol (C2H5OH) are burned?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

19.

AB2(aq) + C2D4(aq) ---------> AD4(s) + 2CB(aq)


Which of the following changes could potentially increase the rate of the hypothetical chemical reaction shown above?

a)

adding a catalyst to the reaction mixture

b)

decreasing the temperature of the reaction mixture

c)

using AB2 and C2D4 in their solid forms in the reaction miture

d)

removing products from the reaction mixture as they formed

20.

An inventor has designed a car that has an electric generator attached to the front wheels. The car initially powered by a gasoline engine, but as the car moves forward, the generator charges a battery pack that can also power the car. The inventor claims that this design makes the car 100% efficient--- that all of the gasoline used by the car is converted directly into the kinetic energy of the car. Which of he following laws of physics could be used to disprove the inventor's claim?

a)

Newton's first law of motion (inertia)

b)

Newton's second law of motion (acceleration)

c)

the first law of thermodynamics (conservation of energy)

d)

the second law of thermodynamics (increase in entropy)

21.

When 1.50g of CH4 are combusted in a constant-volume calorimeter, the temperature of the water in the calorimeter increases from 20.0C to 34.5C. If the heat of the calorimeter plus water is 5.76kJ/C, what is the heat of combustion per gram of CH4?

a)

-55.7kJ

b)

-83.5kJ

c)

-132 kJ

d)

-314 kJ

22.

Every 10 seconds, 2.0 crests of a water wave pass a stationary point. The distance between the crests is 4.0m. What is the wave velocity?

a)

0.8 m/s

b)

1.3 m/s

c)

2.5 m/s

d)

5.0 m/s

23.

Two waves have the same frequency. Which of the following characteristics must also be the same for the two waves?

a)

period

b)

amplitude

c)

intensity

d)

wavelength

24.

In a transverse wave, the particles in the medium through which the wave travels are displaced in a:

a)

direction perpendicular to the wave velocity

b)

circular pattern about an equilibrium position

c)

directional parallel to the wave velocity

d)

redial direction from the source and through the wave medium

25.

A reflecting telescope produces an inverted image when viewed through the eyepiece. Which of the following modifications to the telescope would be most effective in producing an image that is upright?

a)

Move the objective lens closer to the eyepiece

b)

Insert a plane mirror at the focal point of the reflecting mirror

c)

Make a shape of the mirror parabolic instead of sperical

d)

Place a convex lens between the objective lens and the eyepiece

26.

Which of the following is an application of the Doppler effect?

a)

locating an object by measuring the time it takes for a wave to be reflected from the object

b)

analyzing the patterns produced by waves traveling through one or more slits of a diffraction grating

c)

determining the speed of a moving object by measuring the change in frequency of reflected waves

d)

discovering the structure of an object by analyzing the pattern of waves scattered from the object

27.

Two parents are both carriers of the recessive allele for sickle-cell anemia, but do not express the disorder because they are heterozygous for the trait. The offspring of these parents has what probability of being homozygous for the sickle-cell trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

28.

In Precambrian time, the emergence of cyanobacteria had the greatest effect on the concentration of:

a)

oxygen in the atmosphere

b)

sodium and chloride ions in the oceans

c)

water vapor in the atmosphere

d)

nitrogen in the oceans

29.

Which of the following is an exception to the law of independent assortment?

a)

gene linkage

b)

genetic drift

c)

random mutation

d)

meiotic division

30.

Which of the following steps of transgenic crop engineering would require the use of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

producing multiple copies of the gene

b)

inserting a new DNA region into the gene

c)

inserting the new transgene into the target cell

d)

separating the target cell from the rest of the plant

31.

The existence of 13 different species of finches that evolved from a common ancestor in the Galapagos Islands is most accurately described as an example of:

a)

directional selection

b)

genetic drift

c)

sympatric speciation

d)

adaptive radiation

32.

Which of the following is the best example of convergent evolution?

a)

the wings of a bird and the arms of a human

b)

the lungs of lungfish and the lungs of a turtle

c)

the flippers of a sea lion and the legs of a cow

d)

the eyes of a squid and the eyes of a cat

33.

Caribou, permafrost, a dry climate, and low biodiversity typify which of the following biomes?

a)

savannah

b)

desert

c)

taiga

d)

tundra

34.

Chemical weathering by carbonic acid is most likely to affect which of the following rocks?

a)

basalt

b)

sandstone

c)

granite

d)

limestone

35.

The currently accepted scientific theory of Earth's origin suggests that Earth formed:

a)

through collisions with other small protoplanets

b)

from gases and material ejected from the sun

c)

when an iterstellar body was pulled in by the sun's gravitational field

d)

from the accretion of particles of gas and dust in the early solar system

36.

In the 1980's, scientists discovered an iridium-rich clay layer at the boundary between the Cretaceous and Tertiary periods. This layer is now believed to have been produced by which of the following major events in Earth's history?

a)

the outpouring of volcanic ash during the formation of massive flood basalts

b)

a major meteor impact that caused a worldwide mass extinction

c)

a period of intense weathering caused by changes in atmospheric chemistry

d)

the flooding of low areas of the continents by shallow inland seas

37.

The explosiveness of an eruption from an active composite volcano is primarily related to which of the following?

a)

the size and depth below the surface of the magma chamber

b)

the iron and carbon dioxide content of the magma

c)

the depth and width of the main vent that releases the magma

d)

the silica and water content of the magma

38.

The geologic character of large sections of the crust of westernmost North America indicates that these sections of crust had different geologic histories even though they are now adjacent to each other. The distinct character and history of these different sections, know as terranes, results primarily from which of the following?

a)

the accretion of geologic regions to the growing continent during tectonic plate subduction

b)

continental rifting that allowed mantle plumes to rise to the surface, separating related geologic regions

c)

the formation of the geologic regions during periods of dramatically different climate

d)

mountain building that caused intense metamorphism of some geologic regions and not others

39.

Oil deposits are believed to form primarily from which of the following?

a)

the decay of vegetation that grew in ancient swamps

b)

plankton and other organisms that accumulated on the ocean floor

c)

the chemical breakdown of carbon-rich rock buried deep underground

d)

limestone and the organisms associated with coral reefs

40.

During the last twenty thousand years, the environment of the Basin and Range Province of the interior western United States has become significantly drier. Scientists believe this change was primarily caused by the:

a)

northward migration of the North American tectonic plate

b)

uplift of the Sierra Nevada mountain range and the rain shadow it created

c)

mass extinction of drought-adapted forest species

d)

melting of continental glaciers and its effect on atmospheric circulation

41.

Dissolving table salt in water elevates the boiling point of the salt of the salt solution. This colligative property of the salt solution is most directly affected by which of the following factors?

a)

the reactivity of sodium and chloride ions

b)

the concentration of the solute dissolved in the solution

c)

the specific heat capacity of the solution

d)

the reduced hydrogen bonding between water molecules

42.

Calcium chloride (CaCl2) is a strong electrolyte. If 1.00 mol of CaCl2 is dissolved in water to make 1.00 L of solution, what is the concentration of chloride (Cl⁻) ions in the solution?

a)

0.500 M

b)

1.00 M

c)

1.50 M

d)

2.00 M

43.

A student performing the calorimetry experiment described above determines that the temperature of the final reaction mixture is 18°C. Which of the following conclusions is supported by the data generated in this experiment?

a)

The specific heat of reactant A is greater than that of reactant B.

b)

The reaction between reactant A and reactant B is endothermic.

c)

The calorimeter has too low of a heat capacity.

d)

The reaction between reactant A and reactant B is exothermic.

44.

During the late nineteenth century, Thomas Edison developed a direct current system for generating and delivering electricity to homes and businesses. With the ideas of Nikola Tesla, George Westinghouse developed an alternating current system that had many advantages over Edison's direct current system. The advantages of an alternating current system ultimately led to its widespread adoption, and it is the system in use today. A major advantage of the alternating current system over the direct current system was that electricity could be:

a)

distributed more efficiently over power lines at very high voltages and then stepped down with a transformer for use in homes and businesses.

b)

generated from a single source for use in electrical systems that were wired either in series or in parallel.

c)

produced using hydroelectric generators, the dominant source of energy for electric power plants in the nineteenth century.

d)

used in homes and businesses safely without having to undergo a step-down in voltage at a transformer station.

45.

The ribosome shown in the diagram above is engaged in which of the following activities?

a)

assembling a protein from amino acids that are bound to tRNA

b)

breaking down proteins by hydrolysis to recycle their constituents within the cell

c)

transcribing DNA from a chromosome during mitosis

d)

transferring proteins to a transport vesicle for transport through the outer membrane

46.

The cladogram above depicts the evolution of vertebrate animals. Which point on the cladogram corresponds to the appearance of the amniote egg?

a)

point A

b)

point B

c)

point C

d)

point D

47.

Which of the following statements best explains why mass extinctions, such as those that occurred at the end of the Permian and the end of the Cretaceous, are often followed by major adaptive radiations of the lineages that remain?

a)

Events thought to cause mass extinctions, such as asteroid or comet strikes or large-scale volcanic eruptions, can lead to higher mutation rates and rapid evolutionary change in surviving lineages.

b)

Surviving lineages are usually well adapted to occupy the changed environments and ecological conditions that have been brought about by the events causing the extinctions.

c)

Populations of surviving lineages are generally small and isolated and are more affected by genetic drift, natural selection, and other forces that cause rapid speciation and diversification.

d)

The life-forms filling most ecological niches have disappeared and the surviving lineages adapt and diversify to occupy these unoccupied niches with minimal competition.

48.

The ecosystem around deep-ocean hydrothermal vents includes giant tube worms, several species of crustaceans, and a variety of other organisms. The primary source of nutrients and energy supporting this ecosystem is:

a)

bodies of dead phytoplankton and other organisms that continuously rain down from surface.

b)

mats of blue-green algae that colonize rocks surrounding the vents.

c)

zooplankton that move to the surface at night and back down to the vents during the day.

d)

bacteria that oxidize sulfur present in the outflow from the vents.

49.

The diagram above shows one oceanic tectonic plate being subducted beneath another. Over time, a volcanic island arc forms east of the of the subduction zone. Which of the following is the underlying process primarily responsible for the formation of the volcanic island arc?

a)

Water released from the subducting plate lowers the melting temperature of some of the mantle, forming plumes of magma that rise toward the surface.

b)

Plumes of molten material from the core-mantle boundary are forced upward by convection currents produced by the descending plate.

c)

Intense pressure generates heat that melts the subducting plate and the sediments it carries, producing molten material that flows upward into magma chambers.

d)

Frictional heating completely melts the descending plate by the time it reaches the lower mantle producing buoyant magma plumes.

50.

At a certain height in the atmosphere, a rising parcel of air reaches its dew point and becomes saturated, leading to cloud formation. Which of the following best describes what occurs at the molecular level during this process?

a)

The rising parcel of air carries dust and other condensation nuclei into the upper troposphere, where the high concentration of water vapor supports cloud formation.

b)

The rising parcel of air mixes with its surroundings, increasing turbulence and the speed at which individual water molecules collide, causing them to merge into water droplets that attract condensation nuclei.

c)

The rising parcel of air cools and contracts in the upper troposphere, forcing water molecules into closer and closer contact until they collide and form clouds.

d)

The rising parcel of air cools, slowing the motion of water molecules and increasing the likelihood that individual water molecules that collide will stick together on condensation nuclei and form water droplets.

51.

A researcher wants to experimentally evaluate the effectiveness of three different types of insulation. The researcher completely wraps three identical glass containers in 1-cm-thick pieces of each type of insulation. The researcher fills the containers with water at 100°C and then quickly seals them. After 15 minutes, the containers are opened and the temperature of the water in each container is measured. The same experiment is then repeated two more times with the same apparatus. The results of the three separate trials are then averaged. Which of the following changes to the experimental design would make this a better experiment?

a)

carrying out an additional trial that uses ice cubes to measure how long it takes the ice cubes to fully melt in the three different types of insulated containers

b)

measuring the temperature of the water in the three containers at several different time intervals to create a heat-loss curve for each material

c)

increasing the thickness of the insulation used in order to more clearly distinguish the insulating properties of each of the materials

d)

setting up a control in each trial to measure the change in temperature in a matching glass container without any added insulation

52.

Lynn Margulis is a U.S. biologist whose contribution to the understanding of the evolution of the eukaryotic cell was groundbreaking. Although originally rejected repeatedly by mainstream biologists, her theory on the evolution of the eukaryotic cell is now widely accepted. Margulis's work has helped establish that chloroplasts and mitochondria in eukaryotic cells originally developed as a result of:

a)

the incorporation of free-living prokaryotes into other prokaryotic cells.

b)

the merging of two varieties of eukaryotic cell into a single-celled organism.

c)

the incorporation of nonpathogenic viral DNA into a primitive eukaryotic cell.

d)

the mutation of RNA in ancient prokaryotes that led to more efficient energy use.

53.

In a number of well-publicized cases, some of the most important and reputable scientific journals have had to retract published research papers because the research proved to be fraudulent. Which of the following strategies would most improve the system used by these journals for identifying fraudulent research papers before they are published?

a)

verifying that the data and methodologies described in research papers are legitimate

b)

giving priority to scientists who have previously submitted legitimate research papers

c)

releasing data and findings presented in research papers directly to the general public

d)

having scientists from outside the field review research papers when they are submitted

54.

At approximately which time of day will the moon rise when it is at position X in the diagram above?

a)

sunrise

b)

noon

c)

sunset

d)

midnight

55.

A person gives a quick push to a box. While the box is no longer in contact with the person, it slides across a rough, horizontal floor and comes to a stop. What are the forces on the box just before it comes to a stops?

a)

friction, normal force, and gravity

b)

impulse from the push, normal force, and gravity

c)

friction, inertial force, and gravity

d)

inertia from the push, force opposite to the push, and gravity

56.

Which of the following is the best estimate of the velocity of the particle at t = 2.0s

a)

-2.0 m/s

b)

0.0 m/s

c)

2.0 m/s

d)

4.0 m/s

57.

A car with a mass of 1050.0 kg accelerates at a constant rate from 0.00 m/s to 28.0 m/s in 12.00 s. The net drag force on the car is 600.0 N. What force must the engine apply to achieve this performance?

a)

1850 N

b)

2450 N

c)

3050 N

d)

3850 N

58.

Two objects of identical mass are separated by a distance of 20 m. Each object exerts a gravitational force of x newtons on the other. If the distance between the two objects is increased to 40 m, what is the new gravitational force between the masses?

a)

x/4 N

b)

x/2 N

c)

2x N

d)

4x N

59.

What is the minimum force necessary to lift the 500 N load using the pulley system in the diagram?

a)

50 N

b)

125 N

c)

250 N

d)

500 N

60.

In which of the following situations is heat transferred primarily by convection?

a)

The energy of an electric current causes a to become hot.

b)

The handle of a pan on the burner of a stove slowly becomes warmer.

c)

The sun's energy travels through space and warms the earth

d)

Air above a candle flame is heated and then rises toward the ceiling.

61.

A researcher has hypothesized that the chemical tributyltin (an additive in boat paint) seeps out of the paint into the water and causes reproductive defects in developing marine snails. Which of the following would be a good control in a test of tributyltin-induced defects on these snails?

a)

Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to boat paint that does not contain tributyltin.

b)

Developing snails are kept in a dry tank to avoid exposure to contaminated water.

c)

Adult snails are kept in a dry tank to avoid exposure to contaminated water.

d)

Developing snails are kept in a tank of water and exposed to below-expected levels of tributyltin.

e)

Developing snails are kept in a tank of water that has never been exposed to boat paint.

62.

If experimental findings are not reproducible, then:

a)

the results are considered valid, but not usable.

b)

the results are not considered valid.

c)

it is an indication that the scientific method was not followed.

d)

it is an indication of scientific fraud.

63.

Which one of the following samples and experimental measurements would provide the most information about Earth's climate over the last 100,000 years or so?

a)

Sediment cores from a terminal moraine in Ohio; sand to clay ratio.

b)

Cores from sea ice in the Arctic Ocean; NaCl content.

c)

Cores from the Greenland ice sheet; ratios of the oxygen isotopes 18O and 16O.

d)

Sediment cores from a Pleistocene loess deposit in the state of Mississippi; SiO2 content.

64.

Which of the following situations has the greatest potential for observer bias in an experimental process?

a)

Dr. Postgate is analyzing biopsy samples from rats that have been given either a placebo or an experimental drug believed to reduce inflammation. Each sample is identified by a code number so that Dr. Postgate cannot tell which treatment the rats received.

b)

Mr. Bromley is conducting a survey of weight loss for his professor. He asks each student in the study the same questions.

c)

Dr. Jones is evaluating cancer patients for their responses to a new therapeutic drug. She knows which patients are receiving the placebo and which are receiving the drug.

d)

Mrs. Wilmert is a research technician who surveys a study group on their response to a new cold remedy. She knows only the e-mail address of each subject and asks them identical questions by computer.

e)

Ms. Bradley is an outside consultant who is conducting a health and wellness survey for a pharmaceutical company. She does not know the name of the company nor does she know the name of the drug being tested during the survey.

65.

The ancient Greek philosophers were probably the first to consider the behavior of matter in an organized way. What is the major distinction between the "Greek philosophers" and "modern scientists"?

a)

Observation

b)

Logic

c)

Experimentation

d)

Hypotheses

66.

Why were Darwin's ideas ultimately accepted by scientists of his day?

a)

Darwin was from a rich and powerful family.

b)

Darwin's ideas fit well with what most people already believed about evolution.

c)

Scientists had not been previously aware that small islands in the Pacific had so many life-forms.

d)

He published his book soon after he returned to England and all his recollections were fresh in his mind.

e)

Darwin presented extensive evidence from many areas of biology to support his ideas.

67.

Galileo's interpretation of motion differed from Aristotle's in that Aristotle did NOT recognize:

a)

the role of time in describing motion.

b)

the changing velocity of a moving object.

c)

the importance of direction in describing motion.

d)

the acceleration of objects in free fall.

68.

In chemistry, the pressure of a gas can be explained by the mass and motion of the gas molecules. The work of which of the following physicists forms the basis of this explanation?

a)

Galileo

b)

Einstein

c)

Newton

d)

Bohr

69.

Some politicians take pride in maintaining a particular point of view. They think that a change of mind would be seen as a sign of weakness. How is a change of mind viewed differently in science?

a)

A scientist who changes his or her mind is often perceived as less honest, while a politician who changes his or her mind is often perceived as less trustworthy.

b)

A scientist tries to understand many different points of view and so is apt to change his or her mind frequently.

c)

Science deals with facts that are confirmed by experiments. A change of mind in science, therefore, is usually the result of new experimental evidence obtained from experiments.

d)

A change of mind is not viewed differently in science and is still subject to much criticism.

70.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between technology and science?

a)

Developing a collection of tools to enhance classroom learning.

b)

Using Web-based and non-Web-based computer applications in research.

c)

Using scientific knowledge to develop solutions to societal needs or problems.

d)

Developing computers and related software and hardware.

71.

A geologist sees a lava flow at the top of a vertical cliff on the far side of a river. The geologist knows the distance to the base of the cliff and what his elevation is. The geologist would be able to most easily determine the elevation of the cliff using a Brunton compass and:

a)

trigonometric ratios.

b)

integral calculus.

c)

the quadratic formula.

d)

the Pythagorean theorem.

72.

Which of the following problems presents the most serious ethical issue associated with mining operations in developing countries?

a)

Inflation in the communities that surround and support mining operations.

b)

Limited regulation of pollutants produced as a result of mining activities.

c)

Development of mine infrastructure that is of limited value to the local community.

d)

Limited employment opportunities for the local population to work in the mines.

73.

The evaluation of societal risk includes all of the components of individual risk plus:

a)

the probability that an incident will occur.

b)

the benefit associated with the incident.

c)

the number of people affected by the incident.

d)

the degree of severity of the incident.

74.

A positive ion has more:

a)

electrons than neutrons.

b)

protons than neutrons.

c)

protons than electrons.

d)

electrons than protons.

e)

neutrons than protons.

75.

When a nucleus emits a beta particle, its atomic number:

a)

remains constant, and so does its mass number.

b)

changes, and so does its mass number.

c)

remains constant, but its mass number changes.

d)

changes, but its mass number remains constant.

76.

An element will decay to an element with a higher atomic number in the periodic table if it emits:

a)

an alpha particle.

b)

a beta particle.

c)

a proton.

d)

a gamma ray.

77.

The strongest interparticle attractions exist between particles of a __________ and the weakest interparticle attractions exist between particles of a __________.

a)

solid, liquid

b)

liquid, gas

c)

liquid, solid

d)

solid, gas

e)

gas, solid

78.

Generally speaking, where are metals found in the periodic table?

a)

on the left side

b)

in the top three rows

c)

on the left side and through the central portion

d)

on the right side

79.

When two different elements combine to form a compound, the resulting properties of the compound are:

a)

not necessarily anything like those of the elements.

b)

about the average of the properties of the two elements.

c)

predictable based upon the nature of the combining elements.

d)

most like the element given in the greatest amount.

80.

Which set of coefficients balances the following chemical equation?

___ MgO + ___ Fe → ___ Fe2O3 + ___ Mg

a)

1, 2, 3, 3

b)

3, 4, 1, 3

c)

1, 2, 1, 3

d)

3, 2, 1, 3

81.

The yeast in bread dough feeds on sugar to produce carbon dioxide. Why does the dough rise more quickly in a warmer area?

a)

Atmospheric pressure decreases with increasing temperature.

b)

The rate of evaporation increases with increasing temperature.

c)

There is a greater number of effective collisions among reacting molecules.

d)

The yeast tends to "wake up" with warmer temperatures, which is why baker's yeast is best stored in the refrigerator.

82.

Which of the following contains as many atoms as 18 g of water, H2O?

a)

three moles of sodium, Na

b)

two moles of sodium chloride, NaCl

c)

two moles of oxygen, O2

d)

one mole of hydrogen, H2

83.

Cells contain macromolecules that function as identification tags, marking cells as a particular type (e.g., liver cell, nerve cell). Where are these identification tags found?

a)

lysosome

b)

plasma membrane

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondrion

e)

Golgi apparatus

84.

Which part of the cell is composed of microtubules and helps move chromosomes around during cell division?

a)

centriole

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleolus

d)

chromatin

e)

microfilament

85.

In what unit of a eukaryotic cell are ribosomes made?

a)

central vacuole

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleolus

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

lysosome

86.

The reactions of cellular respiration occur in the:

a)

outer mitochondrial membranes.

b)

ribosomes of the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

c)

hydrophobic core of the outermost cell plasma membrane.

d)

nucleolus of the nucleus.

e)

matrix of the mitochondria.

87.

During the process of cellular respiration, what is the final acceptor for electrons at the end of the electron chain?

a)

water

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

carbon

88.

Which feature is found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

DNA

b)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

c)

centrioles

d)

Golgi body

e)

mitochondria

89.

A stand of aspen trees on a mountainside in Colorado is composed of genetic clones of a parent tree. Each new tree buds from a root stock of the parent tree. This type of reproduction is referred to as:

a)

budding.

b)

sexual reproduction.

c)

fission.

d)

vegetative reproduction.

90.

Most fish use ________ as a means of reproduction.

a)

copulation

b)

binary fission

c)

external fertilization

d)

internal fertilization

91.

The oldest group of plants possessing true xylem and phloem is the:

a)

mosses.

b)

conifers.

c)

flowering plants.

d)

ferns.

e)

liverworts

92.

Which if the following is the correct sequence of how an animal is "built"?

a)

meiosis → fertilization → zygote → embryo

b)

meiosis → fertilization → embryo → zygote

c)

fertilization → zygote → meiosis → embryo

d)

fertilization → meiosis → zygote → embryo

93.

The cells that allow the immune system to respond more quickly to an antigen when it is encountered again later in life are called:

a)

innate immune cells.

b)

killer T cells.

c)

memory cells.

d)

helper T cells.

94.

Immediately after eating a meal, a person's blood sugar rises. Which of the following is most likely responsible for a drop in blood sugar back to the pre-eating level approximately two hours after eating?

a)

a homeostatic mechanism based on negative feedback

b)

the use of the sugar for energy by cells

c)

a homeostatic mechanism based on positive feedback

d)

type 2 diabetes

95.

The main trunk at the bottom of a phylogenetic tree represents:

a)

the extinct members of the lineage.

b)

the organisms for which most fossils have been discovered.

c)

the most successful members of the lineage.

d)

the earliest common ancestors of all the organisms in the tree.

96.

Which of the following shows the steps of speciation in the correct order?

a)

genetic incompatibility, geographic isolation, evolutionary changes

b)

temporal isolation, evolutionary changes, geographic isolation

c)

reproductive isolation, genetic incompatibility, geographic isolation

d)

evolutionary changes, geographic isolation, reproductive isolation

e)

geographic isolation, evolutionary changes, reproductive isolation

97.

Half of the gametes produced by an organism with the genotype Aa will receive the A allele, while half will receive the a allele. This is a demonstration of:

a)

random fertilization.

b)

crossing over.

c)

independent assortment.

d)

segregation.

e)

mutation.

98.

If the DNA contained in the chromosomes of an organism are similar to an instruction manual, then what are the genes "instructing" the cell to do?

a)

grow in size until a certain point is reached, then reproduce itself

b)

change shape and structure to meet the demands of the local environment

c)

convert carbohydrates into enzymes

d)

synthesize specific proteins from amino acids

99.

The standard classification system used by biologists today groups and classifies organisms on the basis of similar physical traits. This system was first developed by Carl Linnaeus. At the time of his work, there were other methods for grouping organisms that were based on similar habitats, similar diets, or similar behaviors. Why was Linnaeus's system the most useful for the development of modern biology?

a)

Linnaeus was a famous scientist, and his powerful influence still affects us today.

b)

Linnaeus's system is the simplest; the others are too complicated.

c)

Classifying on the basis of shared traits points out the underlying evolutionary relationships among organisms.

d)

Linnaeus's system included all organisms found on Earth.

100.

After a rapid change in climate, one species of bird quickly adapts to the change, but others in the area do not. What could you conclude about the quickly adapting species?

a)

They have a higher rate of mutation than the other species.

b)

They pass more of their DNA to their offspring than the slowly adapting species.

c)

They had a greater need to evolve than the other species.

d)

They reproduced more slowly than the non-adapting species.

e)

They already had some alleles in their genome that were adaptive in the new environment.

101.

The layered appearance of foliated metamorphic rocks is due to the:

a)

laying down of minerals, layer upon layer.

b)

realignment of minerals so that they are perpendicular to compressive forces.

c)

mechanics of weathering minerals.

d)

recrystallization of minerals.

102.

The three most common cementing agents in a sedimentary rock are:

a)

silica, iron oxide, and sandstone.

b)

silica, calcite, and hematite.

c)

calcite, silica, and iron oxide.

d)

silica, carbonate, and feldspar.

103.

he fossil record is the record of former life forms as preserved in Earth's rocks. Which of the following statements about the fossil record is incorrect?

a)

The Paleozoic era is credited with the emergence of life.

b)

The fossil record spans 3 billion years of Earth's 4.6 billion year age.

c)

The most common fossils are those organisms that had hard parts like shells and bones.

d)

The first fossils were simple, anaerobic algal plants; these fossil plants are similar to present day stromatolites.

104.

Lava flows are typically finer grained than intrusive igneous rocks. Why?

a)

The extrusive magma, because it is deep below the surface, cools very slowly, producing very small mineral grains.

b)

Intrusive magma flows onto Earth's surface and cools very slowly, allowing many small mineral grains to grow.

c)

The extrusive magma cools quickly, so crystals do not have time to grow.

d)

Intrusive magma is cooler because it is well insulated by the surrounding rock.

105.

Which of the following is an important fundamental assumption underlying the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

Molten rock is generated in the outer core.

b)

The rotational motion of Earth drives the motion of tectonic plates.

c)

Earth's ocean basins are very ancient and stable features of the lithosphere.

d)

The rigid lithosphere is underlain by a deformable layer capable of plastic flow.

106.

In the Rocky Mountain region of the United States, north-facing slopes (downhill direction is toward the north) are typically more moist and heavily forested than south-facing slopes. Why?

a)

South-facing slopes receive more moisture and sunlight; rock weathering is slower.

b)

North-facing slopes receive more sunlight in the summer; snow melts more quickly and more soil moisture is available for the trees.

c)

South-facing slopes receive less moisture, yet rock weathering is faster.

d)

North-facing slopes receive about the same amount of precipitation as south-facing slopes; less moisture evaporates from north-facing slopes.

107.

A well is drilled into a confined aquifer. Water flows freely from the top of the well casing without being pumped. This artesian well flows freely because:

a)

the water table in the recharge area is at a higher elevation than the top of the well casing.

b)

the pressure at any point in the aquifer is considerably less than the weight of the water column between the point and the top of the aquifer.

c)

the narrow diameter of the well allows the water to move up by capillary action.

d)

upward flow from a permeable aquitard is prevented by a confining aquifer.

108.

Because of the Coriolis effect, wind currents are deflected to the ________ of their path of motion in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

right

b)

west

c)

left

d)

east

109.

Fog forms when the temperature:

a)

falls to a point where water vapor molecules condense.

b)

rises to a point where water vapor molecules evaporate.

c)

rises to a point where water vapor molecules condense.

d)

falls to a point where water vapor molecules evaporate.

110.

The magnitude of a temperature increase due to global climate change will probably be greatest in which of the following regions?

a)

subtropics

b)

equator

c)

higher middle-latitudes

d)

lower middle-latitudes

e)

poles

111.

Which of the following best describes the climatic factors that cause low-latitude deserts like the northern Sahara in Africa?

a)

cool, dry air aloft is descending

b)

warm, humid air is rising

c)

cool, dry air at the surface is rising

d)

warm, humid air aloft is descending

112.

When we see a half-moon, the position of the sun is:

a)

at right angles to a line from Earth to the moon.

b)

almost directly behind the moon

c)

about 45° from a line from Earth to the moon.

d)

almost directly behind Earth.

113.

Summer and winter constellations are different because of the change in:

a)

the position of the constellations within the Milky Way.

b)

the distance between Earth and the sun during its elliptical orbit.

c)

the tilt of Earth's rotational axis relative to its orbital plane.

d)

the solar system's position in the Milky Way.

e)

Earth's orbital position.

114.

Most of the moon's craters were produced by:

a)

faulting.

b)

the impact of meteoroids

c)

volcanic eruptions.

d)

radial implosions.

115.

Which of the following hypotheses concerning the moon's origin is now most widely accepted by astronomers?

a)

The moon and Earth were originally double planets that formed as twins from the same cloud of dust and gas.

b)

Earth's rotational speed during its formation was so great that large areas of the semi-molten surface were spun off to form the moon.

c)

Earth's gravity captured a small planet that was originally orbiting the sun with an orbit just inside of Earth's orbit.

d)

The moon formed from debris ejected from Earth as the result of the impact of a Mars-sized object that struck Earth early in its history.

116.

The nebular hypothesis describes the formation of which of the following parts of the universe?

a)

interstellar dust and gas

b)

the Milky Way galaxy

c)

the solar system

d)

supernovae

117.

The point in stellar evolution when a star has used up all its fuel and is radiating away its remaining thermal energy as light is the ________ stage.

a)

red giant

b)

white dwarf

c)

main-sequence star

d)

black hole

118.

If you rub a balloon on your sweater and then press it to a wall, it will often stick there. Why does this happen?

a)

Rubbing removes a surface layer of grease, allowing the rubber to come in sufficiently close contact with the wall so that air pressure holds it there.

b)

Rubbing the balloon causes moisture to condense on it, and surface tension causes the balloon to stick to the wall.

c)

Rubbing the balloon's surface causes it to become slightly conductive. When the balloon is touched to the wall, electrons flow from the balloon to the wall. This sets up an electric field that bonds the balloon weakly to the wall.

d)

Rubbing the balloon charges it electrostatically, and this charge on the balloon induces an opposite charge on the wall. The attraction between the induced charge and the charge on the balloon holds the balloon to the wall.

e)

A wall typically has a net electric charge on it, and rubbing the balloon charges it electrostatically. If the wall happens to have an opposite charge to that on the balloon, the balloon will stick.

119.

Each of the resistors in the circuit shown have a resistance of 160.0 Ω. What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?

a)

400.0 Ω

b)

640.0 Ω

c)

160.0 Ω

d)

480.0 Ω

120.

A current flowing through a copper wire (which is connected to a battery) is due to:

a)

electrons being bumped by positively charged particles.

b)

positively charged particles being pushed off the battery terminal.

c)

electrons being accelerated by an electric field.

d)

positively charged particles being attracted to the negative terminal of a battery.

121.

Identical light bulbs are attached to identical batteries, as shown in the figure. The ranking (from lowest to highest) of the total power emitted from the light bulb(s) is:

a)

z, y, x

b)

x, y, z

c)

y, x, z

d)

z, x, y

e)

x, z, y

122.

To say that electric charge is conserved is to say that electric charge:

a)

is a whole-number multiple of the charge of one electron.

b)

may occur in an infinite variety of quantities

c)

can neither be created nor destroyed.

d)

will interact with neighboring electric charges.

123.

An iron rod becomes magnetic when:

a)

its atoms are aligned having plus charges on one side and negative charges on the other.

b)

its electrons stop moving and point in the same direction.

c)

positive ions accumulate at one end and negative ions accumulate at the other end.

d)

the net spins of its electrons are in the same direction.

124.

Crests of an ocean wave pass a pier every 12.0 s. If the waves are moving at 5.6 m/s, what is the wavelength of the ocean waves?

a)

77 m

b)

67 m

c)

57 m

d)

34 m

125.

The source of all wave motion is a:

a)

region of variable high and low pressure.

b)

vibrating object.

c)

harmonic object.

d)

wave pattern.

126.

A floating leaf oscillates up and down two complete cycles in 1 s as a water wave passes by. The wave's wavelength is 10 m. What is the wave's speed?

a)

10 m/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

40 m/s

d)

20 m/s

127.

What color light is transmitted by a piece of blue glass?

a)

yellow

b)

red

c)

orange

d)

blue

e)

white

128.

Light refracts when traveling from air into glass because light:

a)

intensity is greater in air than in glass.

b)

travels more slowly in glass than in air.

c)

frequency is greater in glass than in air.

d)

intensity is greater in glass than in air.

e)

frequency is greater in air than in glass.

129.

A laboratory exercise requires students to use a 0.1 M hydrochloric acid solution. However, only a 10 M solution of HCl is available in the science department's chemical stockroom. Which of the following is an important precaution for the students to take when diluting the HCl in a beaker?

a)

using only distilled water when diluting the acid in the beaker

b)

neutralizing the acid with a base before adding it to the beaker

c)

adding most of the water to the beaker before adding the acid

d)

placing the beaker in which the dilution will occur in an ice bath

130.

Charles Lyell's principle of uniformitarianism is fundamentally important to biologists because it led to the recognition that:

a)

living organisms are all composed of the same basic structures.

b)

human origins can be traced to a single lineage in Africa.

c)

Earth is old enough to have allowed sufficient time for evolution by natural selection to have occurred.

d)

Pangaea's breakup into different continents resulted in an explosion in the diversity of life forms.

131.

A group concerned with fairness in the way media report science issues has asked a news station to disclose the funding source for a recent story on a new pharmaceutical product. The group is most likely concerned that:

a)

accepting funding from a government agency could be seen as a conflict of interest for a media outlet.

b)

funding of stories by pharmaceutical companies could lead to costs being passed on to consumers.

c)

reporting could be biased if the funder has a stake in how the story is presented.

d)

underfunding could lead to inadequate coverage of all viewpoints.

132.

What is the pressure exerted by 160.0 g of O2 in a sealed 50.0 L container at 25.0°C?

a)

6.57 atm

b)

0.490 atm

c)

0.205 atm

d)

2.45 atm

133.

Which of the following hydrocarbon samples contains the greatest number of molecules?

a)

52 g of C8H18

b)

23 g of C3H8

c)

44 g of C6H14

d)

11 g of CH4

134.

Based on the information shown above, what is the best estimate of the enthalpy change associated with the decomposition of 1 mol of CH3OH?

a)

830 kJ

b)

389 kJ

c)

557 kJ

d)

116 kJ

135.

A gas in a cylinder connected to a movable piston is supplied with 2000 J of heat energy. The gas expands and lifts a 12 kg mass a vertical distance of 5 m. What is the approximate change in the internal energy of the gas?

a)

1400 J

b)

60 J

c)

600 J

d)

1940 J

136.

A rope is attached to a wall at one end. A person holds the unattached end of the rope and creates the wave indicated in the diagram. Which of the following best represents the shape of the wave after it reaches the wall and is reflected back toward the person?

a)
b)
c)
d)
137.

A circuit consists of a 12 V battery and three light bulbs connected in series. When the current flows and all three bulbs are on, which of the following must be true?

a)

The resistance of each of the three bulbs is unequal.

b)

The resistance of each of the three bulbs is equal.

c)

The current through each of the three bulbs is equal.

d)

The current through each of the three bulbs is unequal.

138.

During cellular respiration, ATP provides energy to the cell by:

a)

transferring a phosphate group to other molecules.

b)

acting as an enzyme to catalyze cell reactions.

c)

generating heat during the hydrolysis of a phosphate.

d)

emitting radiation as electrons drop in energy level.

139.

Negative feedback loops are especially characteristic of which of the following types of animal processes?

a)

control of embryonic development

b)

homeostatic pathways

c)

inflammatory responses

d)

regeneration of damaged tissue

140.

Two pea plants with round seeds are crossed. One-quarter of the offspring of these two plants have wrinkled seeds, a common genetic variety. The outcome from the crossing of the two pea plants is most likely due to which of the following?

a)

Both parent plants carry a recessive allele for round seed shape.

b)

One of the plants experienced crossing over during meiosis.

c)

Both parent plants have heterozygous genes for seed shape.

d)

One of the plants has genetic traits that are sex-linked.

141.

Density-dependent factors that regulate population size are likely to be most important in ecosystems in which:

a)

both intraspecific and interspecific competition is low.

b)

abiotic factors are relatively stable over both the short and long term.

c)

the growth of most species is limited by a single important biotic factor.

d)

the overall diversity of species present in the ecosystem is low.

142.

Which of the following provides important evidence about the position of continental tectonic plates in the geologic past?

a)

the magnetic alignment of iron-rich minerals in lava flows

b)

the composition of the cratons that make up the interior of continents

c)

the orientation of sedimentary beds covering continental shelves

d)

the thickness of deep-sea sediments in subduction trenches

143.

Which of the following is a major factor in the persistence of the high-pressure belts associated with land areas that lie at latitudes 30 degrees north and south of the equator?

a)

diverging air aloft

b)

converging air at the surface

c)

sinking air

d)

rising air

144.

A main-sequence star with a mass close to that of the sun will become a red giant:

a)

early in its life cycle just before it loses its outer shell of gas and expands into a planetary nebula.

b)

late in its life cycle just before its iron core collapses and the star becomes a supernova.

c)

early in its life cycle when hydrogen burning is at its maximum and the star is most luminous.

d)

late in its life cycle when it runs low on hydrogen and begins burning helium.