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Nervous System Review

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 7hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the TWO (2) main functions of the Nervous system?

a)

Electrical Control Center for All the body's activities

b)

Responds to Motor Outputs with Sensory Inputs

c)

Chemical Control Center for all the body's activities

d)

Responds to Sensory Inputs with Motor Outputs in response to stimuli

2.

 What are the two major divisions of the nervous system?

a)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

b)

Motor Nervous System

c)

Central Nervous System

d)

Peripheral Nervous System

e)

Autonomic Nervous System

3.

The Central Nervous System (CNS) consists of what?

a)

12 Pairs of Cranial Nerves

b)

Brain

c)

31 Pairs of Spinal Nerves

d)

Spinal Cord

e)

Nerves of the Body

4.

The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of what?

a)

12 Pairs of Cranial Nerves

b)

Brain

c)

31 Pairs of Spinal Nerves

d)

Spinal Cord

e)

Nerves of the Body

5.

The Peripheral Nervous System PNS divides into what 2 nervous systems?

a)

Autonomic Nervous System

b)

Somatic Nervous System

c)

Sensory Nervous System

d)

Motor Nervous System

6.

What is the function of the sensory nervous system?

a)

Carries output from the brain to control muscles and glands

b)

Carries input from receptors of the body to the brain

c)

Controls fight or flight responses

d)

Controls the automatic reflexes

7.

What is the function of the motor nervous system?

a)

Carries output from the brain to control muscles and glands

b)

Carries input from receptors of the body to the brain with information on pain, touch, temperature and pressure

c)

Controls fight or flight responses

d)

Controls the automatic reflexes

8.

The motor nervous system divides into what two nervous systems?

a)

Autonomic Nervous System

b)

Somatic Nervous System

c)

Sensory Nervous System

d)

Motor Nervous System

9.

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

a)

Receiving sensation from and sending motor output to the skeletal muscle

b)

Controlling all muscles and glands

c)

Controlling rest and digest responses

d)

Receiving sensation from and sending motor output to the cardiac and smooth muscle

10.

What is the function of the somatic nervous system?

a)

Receiving sensation from and sending motor output to the skeletal muscle

b)

Controlling all muscles and glands

c)

Controlling rest and digest responses

d)

Receiving sensation from and sending motor output to the cardiac and smooth muscle

11.

The Autonomic nervous system divides into what two nervous systems?

a)

Motor Nervous System

b)

Central Nervous System

c)

Sympathetic Nervous System

d)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

12.

What is the function of the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Rest and Digest responses to Cardiac Muscle, Smooth Muscle and Glands

b)

Fight or Flight Responses to Cardiac Muscle, Muscle and Glands

c)

Fight or Flight Responses to Skeletal Muscle

d)

Rest and Digest Responses to Skeletal Muscle

13.

What is the function of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Rest and Digest responses to Cardiac Muscle, Smooth Muscle and Glands

b)

Fight or Flight Responses to Cardiac Muscle, Muscle and Glands

c)

Fight or Flight Responses to Skeletal Muscle

d)

Rest and Digest Responses to Skeletal Muscle

14.

Which of the following would NOT be a response from the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Lowering of the Heart Rate

b)

Peristalsis (Movement of food through the GI Tract)

c)

Lowering of the breathing rate

d)

Constricting the pupil of the eye

e)

Rerouting blood flow to skeletal muscle

15.

Which of the following would NOT be a response from the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Raising the Heart Rate

b)

Peristalsis (Movement of food through the GI Tract)

c)

Raising the Breathing Rate

d)

Dilating the pupil of the eye

e)

Rerouting blood flow to skeletal muscle

16.

What is the major neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system?

a)

Epinephrine (Adrenaline) and Norepinephrine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetylcholine

17.

What is the major neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system?

a)

Epinephrine (Adrenaline) and Norepinephrine

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetylcholine

18.

Identify number 1

a)

Axon

b)

Myelin

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Axon Sheath

e)

Axon Terminal

19.

Identify number 2

a)

Axon

b)

Myelin

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Axon Sheath

e)

Axon Terminal

20.

Identify number 3

a)

Axon

b)

Myelin

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Axon Sheath

e)

Axon Terminal

21.

Identify number 4

a)

Axon

b)

Myelin

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Axon Sheath

e)

Axon Terminal

22.

Identify number 5

a)

Nucleus

b)

Axon Hillock

c)

Dendrite

d)

Cell Body/Soma

23.

Identify number 6

a)

Nucleus

b)

Axon Hillock

c)

Dendrite

d)

Cell Body/Soma

24.

Identify number 7

a)

Nucleus

b)

Axon Hillock

c)

Dendrite

d)

Cell Body/Soma

25.

What is the function of number 6?

a)

Sending electrical signals to neighboring neurons

b)

Receive signals from neighboring neurons

c)

Site where action potentials occur

d)

Storage and release of neurotransmitter

e)

Insulates the axon from lost of charge and reduces the amount of membrane that needs to be depolarized

26.

What is the function of number 3?

a)

Sending electrical signals to neighboring neurons

b)

Receive signals from neighboring neurons

c)

Site where action potentials occur

d)

Storage and release of neurotransmitter

e)

Insulates the axon from lost of charge and reduces the amount of membrane that needs to be depolarized

27.

What is the function of number 1?

a)

Sending electrical signals to neighboring neurons

b)

Receive signals from neighboring neurons

c)

Site where action potentials occur

d)

Storage and release of neurotransmitter

e)

Insulates the axon from lost of charge and reduces the amount of membrane that needs to be depolarized

28.

What is the function of number 4?

a)

Sending electrical signals to neighboring neurons

b)

Receive signals from neighboring neurons

c)

Site where action potentials occur

d)

Storage and release of neurotransmitter

e)

Insulates the axon from lost of charge and reduces the amount of membrane that needs to be depolarized

29.

What is the function of number 2?

a)

Sending electrical signals to neighboring neurons

b)

Receive signals from neighboring neurons

c)

Site where action potentials occur

d)

Storage and release of neurotransmitter

e)

Insulates the axon from lost of charge and reduces the amount of membrane that needs to be depolarized

30.

What are glia cells?

a)

Cells that conduct impulses

b)

Cells that support and protect the conduction of impulses

31.

What 4 glia cells are in the CNS?

a)

Oligodendrocytes

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Microglia

d)

Schwann Cells

e)

Ependymal Cells

32.

What is the function of ependymal cells?

a)

Phagocytize bacteria and viruses and debris in the CNS

b)

Line the cavities of the CNS and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c)

Wrap axons of the CNS with Myelin Sheaths

d)

Form the blood barrier, K+ Mop, regulate what enters and exits the CNS and anchors Neurons

33.

What is the function of Astrocytes?

a)

Phagocytize bacteria and viruses and debris in the CNS

b)

Line the cavities of the CNS and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c)

Wrap axons of the CNS with Myelin Sheaths

d)

Form the blood barrier, K+ Mop, regulate what enters and exits the CNS and anchors Neurons

34.

What is the function of Microglia?

a)

Phagocytize bacteria and viruses and debris in the CNS

b)

Line the cavities of the CNS and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c)

Wrap axons of the CNS with Myelin Sheaths

d)

Form the blood barrier, K+ Mop, regulate what enters and exits the CNS and anchors Neurons

35.

What is the function of Oligodendrocytes?

a)

Phagocytize bacteria and viruses and debris in the CNS

b)

Line the cavities of the CNS and produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c)

Wrap axons of the CNS with Myelin Sheaths

d)

Form the blood barrier, K+ Mop, regulate what enters and exits the CNS and anchors Neurons

36.

What 2 glia cells are in the PNS?

a)

Microglia

b)

Satellite Cells

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Schwann Cells

37.

What is the function of Schwann cells?

a)

Wraps axons in myelin to increase action potential speed

b)

Supports and protects neurons of the PNS

38.

What is the function of satellite cells?

a)

Wraps axons in myelin to increase action potential speed

b)

Supports and protects neurons of the PNS

39.

An inactive neuron is polarized. What does that mean?

a)

A resting neuron is electrically neutral

b)

A resting neuron is electrically negative

c)

A resting neuron is electrically positive

d)

A resting neuron alternates between being electrically negative and positive

40.

Which Ion is most responsible for the net negative charge inside of the neuron?

a)

Na+

b)

Ca2+

c)

K+

d)

Cl-

e)

Anions or A-

41.

Which of the following biomolecules would NOT be responsible for forming the negative charge of the Anions [A-] in the cell?

a)

Lipids

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

Proteins

42.

Which Ions have high concentrations inside of the neuron?

a)

Na+

b)

Ca2+

c)

K+

d)

Cl-

e)

Anions or A-

43.

Which Ions have high concentrations outside of the neuron?

a)

Na+

b)

Ca2+

c)

K+

d)

Cl-

e)

Anions or A-

44.

What is the resting membrane potential on a neuron?

a)

+30 mV

b)

-55 mV

c)

0 mV

d)

-70 mV

e)

-80 mV

45.

What is threshold, and what is its value?

a)

0 mV; triggers an action potential

b)

-70 mV; triggers an action potential

c)

-55 mV; triggers an action potential

d)

-55 mV; prevents the firing of an action potential

46.

If a neuron is depolarized, but it does not reach threshold, will an action potential occur?

a)

Yes

b)

No

47.

An excitatory signal would open what kind of channel?

a)

Na+

b)

K+

c)

Cl-

d)

Ca2+

48.

What would an excitatory signal do the neuron?

a)

Make it more positive

b)

Make it more negative

49.

What would an inhibitory signal do the neuron?

a)

Make it more positive

b)

Make it more negative

50.

An inhibitory signal would open what kind of channel?

a)

Na+

b)

K+

c)

Cl-

d)

Ca2+

51.

Consider the image attached. Which phase of the action potential is number 5?

a)

Threshold

b)

Hyperpolarization/Overshoot

c)

Resting Membrane Potential

d)

Depolarization

e)

Repolarization

52.

Consider the image attached. Which phase of the action potential is number 6?

a)

Threshold

b)

Hyperpolarization/Overshoot

c)

Resting Membrane Potential

d)

Depolarization

e)

Repolarization

53.

Consider the image attached. Which phase of the action potential is number 7?

a)

Threshold

b)

Hyperpolarization/Overshoot

c)

Resting Membrane Potential

d)

Depolarization

e)

Repolarization

54.

Consider the image attached. Which phase of the action potential is number 8?

a)

Threshold

b)

Hyperpolarization/Overshoot

c)

Resting Membrane Potential

d)

Depolarization

e)

Repolarization

55.

Consider the image attached. Which phase of the action potential is number 10?

a)

Threshold

b)

Hyperpolarization/Overshoot

c)

Resting Membrane Potential

d)

Depolarization

e)

Repolarization

56.

What channels are open during depolarization and what does it do to the cell?

a)

Voltage gated K+ channels. Makes the cell more positive

b)

Voltage gated K+ channels. Makes the cell more negative

c)

Voltage gated Na+ channels. Makes the cell more positive

d)

Voltage gated Na+ channels. Makes the cell more negative

57.

What channels are open during repolarization and what does it do to the cell?

a)

Voltage gated K+ channels. Makes the cell more positive

b)

Voltage gated K+ channels. Makes the cell more negative

c)

Voltage gated Na+ channels. Makes the cell more positive

d)

Voltage gated Na+ channels. Makes the cell more negative

58.

Why does hyperpolarization occur?

a)

Voltage gated K+ channels remain open the same amount of time Voltage gated Na+ are open

b)

Voltage gated K+ channels remain open a shorter amount of time Voltage gated Na+ are open

c)

Voltage gated K+ channels remain open a longer amount of time Voltage gated Na+ are open

59.

What is the function of the Na+/K+ pump?

a)

Preventing the restoration of the resting membrane potential

b)

Restoring the resting membrane potential

c)

Keeping the neuron at hyperpolarization

d)

Keeping the neuron depolarized

60.

After an action potential, the neuron cannot generate another action potential because _____ channels are inactivated. This period is called the ________________________________ period.

a)

K+ , Refractory period

b)

K+, Firing Period

c)

Na+, Refractory Period

d)

Na+, Firing Period

61.

The Refractory period insures that the action potential always flows from the ___________________ to the _____________________ and not back up the axon.

a)

Axon Terminal; Axon Hillock

b)

Axon Hillock; Axon Terminal

c)

Axon Hillock; Dendrite

d)

Axon Terminal; Next Neuron

62.

This portion of the neuron is where the action potential is fired from?

a)

Axon Terminal

b)

Cell Body

c)

Axon Hillock

d)

Synaptic Cleft

63.

What causes the release of neurotransmitter?

a)

The influx of Na+

b)

The Outflow of K+

c)

The Inflow of Ca2+

d)

The Movement of A-

64.

Neurotransmitters are stored in what structure?

a)

Axons

b)

Vesicles

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Nucleus

65.

What is Dale’s Principle?

a)

Neurons make and release as many neurotransmitters as possible

b)

Neurons make and release only two types of neurotransmitters

c)

Neurons make and release only one type of neurotransmitter

d)

Neurons make and release no neurotransmitters. Astrocytes make neurotransmitters

66.

Which neurotransmitter is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Glutamate

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA)

e)

Dopamine

67.

Which neurotransmitter is the most common excitatory neurotransmitter?

a)

Serotonin

b)

Glutamate

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Gamma Amino Butyric Acid (GABA)

e)

Dopamine

68.

Is Serotonin excitatory or inhibitory?

a)

Excitatory

b)

Inhibitory

69.

What happens when serotonin is too low?

a)

Schizophrenia

b)

Parkinson's Disease

c)

Depression, Anxiety, Eating Disorders, OCD

d)

Dangerously high body temperatures, tremors, sweating and death

70.

Is Dopamine excitatory or inhibitory?

a)

Excitatory

b)

Inhibitory

71.

What happens when dopamine is too high?

a)

ALS (Lou Gerhig's Disease), Excitotoxicity

b)

Hallucinations and Schizophrenia

c)

Depression, Tremors, Lost of Pleasure, Parkinson's Disease

d)

Flaccid paralysis, Alzheimer's Disease and can not form long term memories

72.

What happens when dopamine is too low?

a)

ALS (Lou Gerhig's Disease), Excitotoxicity

b)

Hallucinations and Schizophrenia

c)

Depression, Tremors, Lost of Pleasure, Parkinson's Disease

d)

Flaccid paralysis, Alzheimer's Disease and can not form long term memories

73.

Is acetylcholine excitatory or inhibitory?

a)

Excitatory

b)

Inhibitory

74.

What happens when acetylcholine is too low?

a)

ALS (Lou Gerhig's Disease), Excitotoxicity

b)

Hallucinations and Schizophrenia

c)

Depression, Tremors, Lost of Pleasure, Parkinson's Disease

d)

Flaccid paralysis, Alzheimer's Disease and can not form long term memories

75.

What disease occurs when glutamate is too high?

a)

ALS (Lou Gerhig's Disease), Excitotoxicity

b)

Hallucinations and Schizophrenia

c)

Depression, Tremors, Lost of Pleasure, Parkinson's Disease

d)

Flaccid paralysis, Alzheimer's Disease and can not form long term memories

76.

What diseases can occur if GABA is too low?

a)

Seizures, Epilepsy and Anxiety Disorders,

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Hyper-sleepiness, Reduced Consciousness, Headaches, Coma and possibly death.

d)

Huntington's Chorea

77.

What diseases can occur if GABA is too high?

a)

Seizures, Epilepsy and Anxiety Disorders,

b)

Alzheimer's Disease

c)

Hyper-sleepiness, Reduced Consciousness, Headaches, Coma and possibly death.

d)

Huntington's Chorea

78.

What are the three major parts of the brain?

a)

Telencephalon

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Spinal Cord

d)

Rhombencephalon

79.

What is grey matter?

a)

Collection of myelinated axons

b)

Collections of cell bodies outside the CNS

c)

Collections of Neurotransmitters

d)

Collection of Dendrites, Cell Bodies, and unmyelinated axons

80.

Where is grey matter located in the brain?

a)

Superficial

b)

Deep

81.

What is white matter?

a)

Collection of myelinated axons

b)

Collections of cell bodies outside the CNS

c)

Collections of Neurotransmitters

d)

Collection of Dendrites, Cell Bodies, and unmyelinated axons

82.

Where is white matter located in the brain?

a)

Superficial

b)

Deep

83.

Which area of the brain is letter A?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Occipital Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

84.

Which area of the brain is letter B?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Occipital Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

85.

Which area of the brain is letter C?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Occipital Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

86.

Which area of the brain is letter D?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Occipital Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

87.

What is a gyrus?

a)

A raised area of the cerebral cortex where cell bodies are located

b)

A lowered area of the cerebral cortex that separates portions of the brain

c)

Large gaps in the brain surface that separates the lobes of the brain

d)

Storage location where cerebrospinal fluid is produced and moved

88.

What is a sulcus?

a)

A raised area of the cerebral cortex where cell bodies are located

b)

A lowered area of the cerebral cortex that separates portions of the brain

c)

Large gaps in the brain surface that separates the lobes of the brain

d)

Storage location where cerebrospinal fluid is produced and moved

89.

What are the functions of the frontal lobe?

a)

Visual Processing

b)

Executive Functioning, Planning and Organizational skills

c)

Mood, Behavior and Emotions

d)

Controlling Voluntary Movement

90.

The frontal and parietal lobes are separated by what structure?

a)

Longitudinal Fissure

b)

Central Sulcus

c)

Sylvian Fissure (Lateral Fissure)

d)

Transverse Fissure

91.

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

a)

Sensation (Sensing pain, touch, temperature, pressure, and Vibration)

b)

Processing visual information

c)

Voluntary movement

d)

Hearing and Balance

92.

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

a)

Sensation (Sensing pain, touch, temperature, pressure, and Vibration)

b)

Processing visual information

c)

Voluntary movement

d)

Hearing and Balance

93.

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

a)

Sensation (Sensing pain, touch, temperature, pressure, and Vibration)

b)

Processing visual information

c)

Voluntary movement

d)

Hearing and Balance

94.

The two parietal lobes are separated by what structure?

a)

Longitudinal Fissure

b)

Central Sulcus

c)

Sylvian Fissure (Lateral Fissure)

d)

Transverse Fissure

95.

The parietal and temporal lobes are separated by what structure?

a)

Longitudinal Fissure

b)

Central Sulcus

c)

Sylvian Fissure (Lateral Fissure)

d)

Transverse Fissure

96.

What is Broca’s area?

a)

Controls the Organization of Speech

b)

Controls the hearing aspect of speech

c)

Controls Motor Speech and the muscles that move

d)

Controls the Visual Aspect of Speech

97.

Which lobe is Broca's Area located?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

98.

What is Wernicke’s area?

a)

Controls the Organization of Speech

b)

Controls the hearing aspect of speech

c)

Controls Motor Speech and the muscles that move

d)

Controls the Visual Aspect of Speech

99.

Which lobe is Wernicke's Area located?

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

100.

What three structures form the Diencephalon region of the brain?

a)

Epithalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

101.

What area of the brain serves as the major sensory relay station?

a)

Epithalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

102.

What area of the brain secretes hormones to control the pituitary gland, regulates appetite and thirst and autonomic functions?

a)

Epithalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

103.

What area of the brain secretes melatonin to regulate sleep/wake cycles?

a)

Epithalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Hypothalamus

104.

What three structures form the hindbrain?

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Pons

105.

What structure of the brain serves as a relay station the cerebrum and cerebellum and helps with head and eye reflexes?

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Pons

106.

What structure of the brain regulates muscle tone, posture and coordinates voluntary movement?

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Pons

107.

What structure of the brain regulates heart rate, swallowing, vomiting, coughing and other reflexes?

a)

Cerebral Cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Pons

108.

What structure of the brain allows the two hemispheres to talk to each other?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Reticular Activation System

109.

What structure converts short term into long term memories?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Reticular Activation System

110.

What structure controls moods such as jealousy, rage, love, hate and fear?

a)

Amygdala

b)

Hippocampus

c)

Corpus Callosum

d)

Reticular Activation System

111.

The Tough and inflexible covering of the brain and spinal cord is called the:

a)

Pia mater

b)

Arachnoid Mater

c)

Crystal mater

d)

Dura mater

112.

The thin and delicate covering of the brain is called the:

a)

Pia mater

b)

Arachnoid Mater

c)

Crystal mater

d)

Dura mater

113.

The Spiderweb like covering of the brain is called the:

a)

Pia mater

b)

Arachnoid Mater

c)

Crystal mater

d)

Dura mater

114.

How many PAIRS of cervical spinal nerves are there? 

a)

8

b)

5

c)

1

d)

12

115.

How many PAIRS of thoracic spinal nerves are there?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

1

d)

12

116.

How many PAIRS of lumbar spinal nerves are there?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

1

d)

12

117.

How many PAIRS of sacral spinal nerves are there?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

1

d)

12

118.

How many PAIRS of coccyx spinal nerves are there?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

1

d)

12

119.

Which cranial nerve controls smell?

a)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

b)

Optic Nerve (CN II)

c)

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

d)

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

e)

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

120.

Which cranial nerve controls sight?

a)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

b)

Optic Nerve (CN II)

c)

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

d)

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

e)

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

121.

Which cranial nerve controls the sensation of the face and muscles of chewing?

a)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

b)

Optic Nerve (CN II)

c)

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

d)

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

e)

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

122.

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of the face and taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

a)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

b)

Optic Nerve (CN II)

c)

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

d)

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

e)

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

123.

Which cranial nerve controls hearing and balance?

a)

Facial Nerve (CN VII)

b)

Optic Nerve (CN II)

c)

Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)

d)

Olfactory Nerve (CN I)

e)

Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)

124.

Which cranial nerve controls swallowing, the gag reflex, and taste on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

a)

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

b)

Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)

c)

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

d)

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

125.

Which cranial nerve controls parasympathetic fibers that control heart rate, breathing rate, digestion, and other important functions in the chest and abdomen?

a)

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

b)

Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)

c)

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

d)

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

126.

Which cranial nerve controls the motion of the tongue?

a)

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

b)

Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)

c)

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

d)

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

127.

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of the neck such as the Sternocleidomastoid and the Trapezius?

a)

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

b)

Spinal Accessory Nerve (CN XI)

c)

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

d)

Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)

128.

Letter A is pointing at which structure?

a)

Dorsal Root Ganglion

b)

Ventral Root

c)

Dorsal Root

d)

Dorsal Horn

e)

Ventral Horn

129.

Letter C is pointing at which structure?

a)

Dorsal Root Ganglion

b)

Ventral Root

c)

Dorsal Root

d)

Dorsal Horn

e)

Ventral Horn

130.

Letter D is pointing at which structure?

a)

Dorsal Root Ganglion

b)

Ventral Root

c)

Dorsal Root

d)

Dorsal Horn

e)

Ventral Horn

131.

Letter G is pointing at which structure?

a)

Dorsal Root Ganglion

b)

Ventral Root

c)

Dorsal Root

d)

Dorsal Horn

e)

Ventral Horn

132.

Which letter is the cell body for the Lower Motor Neuron?

a)

E

b)

H

c)

C

d)

B

e)

G

133.

Which letter is the cell body for the Sensory Neuron?

a)

E

b)

H

c)

C

d)

B

e)

G

134.

Which Nerve Bundle carries Pain, Touch, and Temperature sensory information to the brain from the body?

a)

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

b)

Rubospinal Tract

c)

Spinal Thalamic Tract

d)

Dorsal Columns Medial Lemiscal (DCML) Tract

135.

Which Nerve Bundle carries pressure and vibration sensory information to the brain from the body?

a)

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

b)

Rubospinal Tract

c)

Spinal Thalamic Tract

d)

Dorsal Columns Medial Lemiscal (DCML) Tract

136.

Which Nerve Bundle carries motor output from the brain to control skeletal muscle of the body?

a)

Lateral Corticospinal Tract

b)

Rubospinal Tract

c)

Spinal Thalamic Tract

d)

Dorsal Columns Medial Lemiscal (DCML) Tract