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WorksheetsPhysical Science Midterm
Total questions: 136
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What type of graph is represented by figure 1-1?
a)
bar graph
b)
line graph
c)
circle graph
d)
non of the above
2.
What is a system of knowledge and the methods used to find that knowledge?
a)
science
b)
technology
c)
measurement
d)
curiosity
3.
How are science and technology related?
a)
Technology is a branch of natural science.
b)
Science is a branch of technology.
c)
Advances in science may lead to advances in technology and vice versa.
d)
Science and technology are not related.
4.
How does Earth science overlap with life science?
a)
Earth science involves the study of Earth's rocks.
b)
Earth science involves the study of systems that may include living organisms.
c)
Earth science involves the study of the composition of matter.
d)
Earth science does not overlap with life science.
5.
In which step of the scientific method is information obtained through the senses?
a)
drawing conclusions
b)
making observations
c)
analyzing data
d)
revising a hypothesis
6.
What happens when the data in an investigation do not support the original hypothesis?
a)
The scientist gives up and starts an investigation on a new topic.
b)
The data must be incorrect and are thrown out.
c)
The hypothesis is revised.
d)
The data are altered so that they support the original hypothesis.
7.
What is a statement that summarizes a pattern found in nature?
a)
a scientific law
b)
a fact
c)
a scientific theory
d)
a hypothesis
8.
Why are scientific models important?
a)
They prove scientific theories.
b)
They help visualize things that are very complex, very large, or very small.
c)
They make it harder to understand things.
d)
They never change.
9.
What is the most important safety rule?
a)
Never work with chemicals.
b)
Always use unbreakable glassware.
c)
Always follow your teacher's instructions and textbook directions exactly.
d)
Never do experiments that involve flames or hot objects.
10.
How is 0.00069 written in scientific notation?
a)
69 x 10-5
b)
6.9 x 104
c)
0.69 x 10-3
d)
6.9 x 10-4
11.
What are 6 centimeters equal to?
a)
600 meters
b)
6/10 of a millimeter
c)
60 millimeters
d)
600 millimeters
12.
Timers at a swim meet used four different clocks to time an event. Which recorded time is the most precise?
a)
55 s
b)
55.2 s
c)
55.25 s
d)
55.254 s
13.
On the Celsius scale, at what temperature does water boil?
a)
0°
b)
212°
c)
100°
d)
32°
14.
The type of graph used to show how a part of something relates to the whole is which of the following?
a)
circle graph
b)
bar graph
c)
line graph
d)
direct proportion
15.
What is the relationship in which the ratio of the manipulated variable and the responding variable is constant?
a)
inverse proportion
b)
direct proportion
c)
slope
d)
interdependent
16.
How do scientists communicate the results of investigations?
a)
by publishing articles in scientific journals
b)
by giving talks at scientific conferences
c)
by exchanging e-mails
d)
all of the above
17.
How do scientists who speak different languages make their data understandable to one another?
a)
They all use different systems of measurement.
b)
They all use SI.
c)
They communicate through a universal translator.
d)
They all must speak French.
18.
What is a peer review?
a)
a process in which only close friends of a scientist review the scientist's work
b)
a process in which scientists examine other scientists' work
c)
a process in which scientists copy other scientists' work
d)
a process in which scientists keep their work secret
19.
A measurement must include both a number and a(an) ____________________.
a)
letter
b)
unit
c)
phrase
d)
number
20.
An experiment in which only one variable, the manipulated variable, is changed at a time is called a(an) _________________________.
a)
fun experiment
b)
chemistry experiment
c)
scientific method experiment
d)
controlled experiment
21.
Computers are an example of a(an) ____________________ that helps people solve problems.
a)
technology
b)
model
c)
scientific method
d)
tool
22.
Natural science is divided into life science, Earth and space science, and _________________________.
a)
good science
b)
physical science
c)
nonliving science
d)
other science
23.
A flight simulator that helps astronauts prepare for a shuttle launch is an example of a(an) _________________________.
a)
technology
b)
model
c)
scientific method
d)
tool
24.
____________________ is the closeness of a measurement to the actual value being measured.
a)
precision
b)
model
c)
accuracy
d)
science
25.
Which of the following is NOT a pure substance?
a)
milk
b)
oxygen
c)
sugar
d)
water
26.
Which of the following are pure substances?
a)
solutions
b)
compounds
c)
homogeneous mixtures
d)
heterogeneous mixtures
27.
A substance that is made up of only one kind of atom is a(an)
a)
mixture
b)
element
c)
compound
d)
solution
28.
If an unknown substance CANNOT be broken down into simpler substances, it is
a)
made of one kind of atom
b)
a compound
c)
an element
d)
both a and c
29.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a mixture?
a)
contains only pure substances
b)
has a fixed composition
c)
contains only elements
d)
has varying properties
30.
A mixture that appears to contain only one substance is a(an)
a)
suspension
b)
compound
c)
homogeneous mixture
d)
heterogeneous mixture
31.
A mixture can be classified as a solution, suspension, or colloid based on the
a)
color of its particles.
b)
number of particles it contains.
c)
size of its largest particles.
32.
You are about to open a container of soy milk but notice that there are instructions to "shake well before serving". The soy milk is most likely a
a)
colloid
b)
solution
c)
element
d)
suspension
33.
Which of the following is malleable?
a)
pottery
b)
marble
c)
gold
d)
glass
34.
Which of the following has the highest viscosity?
a)
lemonade
b)
corn syrup
c)
water
d)
milk
35.
A substance has a melting point of 0° C and a boiling point of 100° C. The substance is most likely
a)
oxygen
b)
hydrogen
c)
water
d)
gold
36.
Which of the following materials is useful for making molds because it has a low melting point?
a)
wax
b)
water
c)
metal
d)
clay
37.
Filtration can be used to separate mixtures based on
a)
the size of their particles
b)
their boiling points
c)
their densities
d)
their melting points
38.
When a physical change in a sample occurs, which of the following does NOT change?
a)
composition
b)
size
c)
shape
d)
temperature
39.
Flammability is a material�s ability to burn in the presence of
a)
hydrogen
b)
oxygen
c)
nitrogen
d)
water
40.
A substance that has high reactivity
a)
burns in the presence of water
b)
displaces dissolved oxygen
c)
easily combines chemically with other substances.
41.
Which of the following is NOT a clue that a chemical change has occurred?
a)
change in color
b)
production of a gas
c)
precipitate forms
d)
change in shape
42.
Which of the following is a chemical change?
a)
ice melting
b)
water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen
c)
water boiling
d)
slicing a tomato
43.
Name the two pure substances.
a)
homogeneous and heterogeneous
b)
compounds and mixtures
c)
elements and compounds
d)
atoms and compounds
44.
An element has a fixed composition because it contains only one type of _________________.
a)
atom
b)
composition
c)
mixture
d)
element
45.
The substances in a(an) ____________________ mixture are evenly distributed throughout the mixture.
a)
homogeneousheterogeneous
b)
compound
c)
heterogeneous
d)
element
46.
In a(an) ____________________ mixture, the parts of the mixture are noticeably different from one another.
a)
homogeneousheterogeneous
b)
compound
c)
heterogeneous
d)
element
47.
Measuring ____________________ can be used to test the purity of some substances.
a)
melting point
b)
boiling point
c)
density
d)
elements
48.
____________________ is a process that could be used to separate dissolved particles from the liquid in a solution.
a)
Filtration
b)
Separation
c)
Distillation
d)
Mixation
49.
Rust forms because iron and oxygen are highly ____________________ elements.
a)
formative
b)
reactive
c)
explosive
d)
creative
50.
A solid that forms and separates from a liquid mixture is a(an) ____________________.
a)
distillate
b)
filtrate
c)
precipitate
d)
element
51.
A gas has
a)
a definite volume but no definite shape.
b)
a definite shape but no definite volume.
c)
no definite shape or definite volume.
d)
a definite volume and a definite shape
52.
Matter that has a definite volume but no definite shape is a
a)
liquid
b)
solid
c)
gas
d)
plasma
53.
In which of the substances in the picture are the forces of attraction among the particles so weak that they can be ignored under ordinary conditions?
a)
substance A
b)
substance B
c)
substance C
d)
all of the above
54.
What is the result of a force distributed over an area?
a)
temperature
b)
volume
c)
pressure
d)
mass
55.
Collisions of helium atoms with the walls of a closed container cause
a)
condensation
b)
gas pressure
c)
a decrease in volume
d)
an overall loss of energy
56.
Which of the following factors affects the pressure of an enclosed gas?
a)
temperature
b)
volume
c)
number of particles
d)
all of the above
57.
The temperature and volume in a closed container of gas remain constant. If the number of particles of gas is increased, the gas pressure will
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain constant
d)
cause a decrease in the average kinetic energy of the particles
58.
The law that states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins if the pressure and the number of particles is constant is
a)
Boyle's Law
b)
Bose's Law
c)
Einstein's Law
d)
Charles' Law
59.
Boyle's Law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure if the
a)
temperature and number of particles are constant.
b)
temperature reaches absolute zero.
c)
number of particles decreases
d)
temperature and number of particles are doubled.
60.
The phase change that is the reverse of condensation is
a)
freezing
b)
melting
c)
vaporization
d)
sublimation
61.
If a solid piece of naphthalene is heated and remains at 80°C until it is completely melted, you know that 80°C is the
a)
freezing point of naphthalene.
b)
melting point of naphthalene.
c)
boiling point of naphthalene.
d)
both a and b
62.
The phase change in which a substance changes from a liquid to a gas is
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
condensation
d)
vaporization
63.
The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to a liquid is
a)
deposition
b)
melting
c)
condensation
d)
vaporization
64.
The phase change in which a substance changes from a solid to a gas or vapor without changing to a liquid first is
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
condensation
d)
vaporization
65.
The phase change in which a substance changes from a gas directly to a solid is
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
condensation
d)
vaporization
66.
Materials can be classified as solids, liquids, or gases based on whether their shapes and _______________ are definite or variable.
a)
volumes
b)
masses
c)
particles
d)
temperatures
67.
The ____________________ theory of matter states that all particles of matter are in constant motion.
a)
solid
b)
matter
c)
kinetic
d)
physical
68.
The motion of one particle of gas is unaffected by the motion of other particles of a gas unless the particles ______________.
a)
collide
b)
connect
c)
increase
d)
decrease
69.
Democritus thought that matter was made of tiny particles
a)
of earth, air, fire, and water.
b)
that could not be divided.
c)
that were invisible.
d)
that were all round and smooth.
70.
According to John Dalton's observations, when elements combine in a compound,
a)
the ratio of their masses is always the same.
b)
each element contributes an equal number of atoms.
c)
their volumes are always equal.
d)
each element randomly combines.
71.
Which of the following is NOT part of John Dalton's atomic theory?
a)
All elements are composed of atoms.
b)
Elements combine together in simple, whole number ratios.
c)
Atoms contain subatomic particles.
d)
A compound contains atoms of more than one element.
72.
Which of the following most closely represents John Dalton's model of the atom?
a)
a nucleus with a cloud of electrons around it
b)
a hollow sphere with a dense nucleus
c)
a tiny, solid sphere with a predictable mass for a given element
d)
a sphere that is hollow throughout
73.
J. J. Thomson's experiments provided evidence that an atom
a)
is the smallest particle of matter
b)
contains negatively charged particles
c)
has no mass
d)
has a positive charge
74.
The diagram above shows the results of Rutherford's gold foil experiment. What caused some of the alpha
a)
electrons in the gold atoms
b)
the solid sphere
c)
other alpha particles
d)
nuclei in the gold atoms
75.
In an atomic model that includes a nucleus, positive charge is
a)
concentrated in the center of an atom.
b)
spread evenly throughout an atom.
c)
not present
d)
located in the space outside the nucleus
76.
Which subatomic particle has a negative charge?
a)
electron
b)
positron
c)
neutron
d)
proton
77.
Which of the following is unique for any given element?
a)
the number of neutrons
b)
the charge on the electrons
c)
the number of protons
d)
the amount of mass present
78.
To find the number of neutrons in an atom, you would subtract
a)
electrons from protons.
b)
atomic number from mass number.
c)
atomic number from electron number.
d)
isotope number from atomic number.
79.
Which statement is true about oxygen-17 and oxygen-18?
a)
They are different elements.
b)
Their atoms have an identical mass.
c)
They are isotopes of oxygen.
d)
They have the same mass number.
80.
In Niels Bohr's model of the atom, electrons move
a)
like balls rolling down a hill.
b)
like planets orbiting the sun.
c)
like the balls in a ball pit.
d)
like beach balls on water waves.
81.
What can you assume has happened if an electron moves to a higher energy level?
a)
The atom has become more stable.
b)
The electron has lost energy.
c)
The electron has gained energy.
d)
The electron will leave the atom.
82.
What do scientists use to predict the locations of electrons in atoms?
a)
probability
b)
algebra
c)
geometry
d)
dumb luck
83.
What does the electron cloud model describe?
a)
the most likely locations of electrons in atoms
b)
the precise locations of electrons in atoms
c)
the mass of the nucleus
d)
the mass of the electrons in an atom
84.
Which statement about electrons and atomic orbitals is NOT true?
a)
An electron has the same amount of energy in all orbitals.
b)
An orbital can contain a maximum of two electrons.
c)
An electron cloud represents all the orbitals in an atom.
d)
Electrons can randomly move from orbital to orbital.
85.
What is the difference between an atom in the ground state and an atom in an excited state?
a)
The atom in the ground state has less electrons than an atom in the excited state.
b)
The atom in an excited state has one fewer electron than the atom in the ground state.
c)
The atom in an excited state has more energy and is less stable than the atom in the ground state.
d)
The atom in an excited state has one more electron than the atom in the ground state.
86.
The glowing of a neon light is caused by electrons emitting energy as they
a)
move from lower to higher energy levels.
b)
collide with other electrons.
c)
move from higher to lower energy levels.
d)
move randomly throughout the atom.
87.
John Dalton concluded that all the atoms of a single ____________________ have the same mass.
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
orbital
d)
compound
88.
John Dalton observed that elements always combine in the same ratio to form a particular _______________.
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
orbital
d)
compound
89.
In Rutherford's gold foil experiment, some of the _________________________ aimed at gold atoms bounced back, suggesting that a solid mass was at the center of the atom.
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
electrons
d)
neutrons
90.
Protons and ____________________ are found in the nucleus of an atom.
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
electrons
d)
neutrons
91.
Neutrons and ____________________ have almost the same mass.
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
92.
The nuclei of isotopes contain different numbers of ____________________.
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
protons
d)
neutrons
93.
The ____________________ of an isotope is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus.
a)
atomic number
b)
mass number
c)
particle number
d)
isotope number
94.
When an atom gains or loses energy, some of its ____________________ may move between energy levels.
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
electrons
d)
neutrons
95.
The region in which an electron is most likely to be found is called a(an) ____________________.
a)
electron cloud
b)
nucleus
c)
neutron area
d)
isotope cloud
96.
When all the electrons in an atom are in orbitals with the lowest possible energy, the atom is in its ___________ state.
a)
ground
b)
excited
c)
normal
d)
neutral
97.
An atom in which an electron has moved to a higher energy level is in a(an) ____________________ state.
a)
ground
b)
excited
c)
normal
d)
neutral
98.
Mendeleev arranged the known chemical elements in a table according to increasing
a)
atomic number
b)
number of electrons
c)
number of protons
d)
mass
99.
Mendeleev gave the name eka-aluminum to a(an)
a)
compound containing aluminum.
b)
mixture of aluminum and an unknown element.
c)
unknown element he predicted would have properties similar to those of aluminum.
d)
rare isotope of aluminum.
100.
The usefulness of Mendeleev�s periodic table was confirmed by
a)
the discovery of subatomic particles.
b)
its immediate acceptance by other scientists.
c)
the discovery of elements with predicted properties.
d)
the discovery of the nucleus.
101.
Figure 5-1 shows a portion of a blank periodic table. Identify the segments labeled A and B.
a)
A and B are both periods.
b)
A is a period and B is a group.
c)
A and B are both groups.
d)
A is a group and B is a period.
102.
Moving from left to right across a row of the periodic table, which of the following values increases by exactly one from element to element?
a)
isotope number
b)
atomic number
c)
atomic mass unit
d)
mass number
103.
The atomic mass of an element is
a)
the sum of the protons and neutrons in one atom of the element.
b)
twice the number of protons in one atom of the element.
c)
a ratio based on the mass of a carbon-12 atom.
d)
a weighted average of the masses of an element�s isotopes.
104.
One twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom is used to define a(an)
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
mass number
d)
atomic mass unit
105.
The unit for atomic mass is
a)
gram
b)
amu
c)
pound
d)
none of the above
106.
Which list of elements contains only metals?
a)
carbon, iodine, tin
b)
tin, copper, cesium
c)
helium, iron, copper
d)
helium, lead, bromine
107.
Which statement is true about the metalloid silicon?
a)
Silicon is a better conductor of electric current than silver is.
b)
Silicon does not conduct electric current under any conditions.
c)
Silicon's ability to conduct electric current does not vary with temperature.
d)
Silicon is a better conductor of electric current than sulfur is.
108.
At room temperature, none of the metals are
a)
soft
b)
liquids
c)
malleable
d)
gases
109.
Which general statement does NOT apply to metals?
a)
Most metals are ductile.
b)
Most metals are malleable.
c)
Most metals are brittle.
d)
Most metals are good conductors of electric current.
110.
Two highly reactive elements in Period 2 are the metal lithium and the
a)
metalloid arsenic
b)
nonmetal selenium
c)
nonmetal fluorine
d)
nonmetal krypton
111.
Atoms of the most reactive elements tend to have
a)
one or seven valence electrons.
b)
eight valence electrons.
c)
four or five valence electrons.
d)
no valence electrons
112.
The standard on which the atomic mass unit is based is the mass of a
a)
proton
b)
neutron
c)
chlorine-35 atom
d)
carbon-12 atom
113.
As you move from left to right across a period, the number of valence electrons
a)
increases
b)
stays the same
c)
decreases
d)
increases and then decreases
114.
The tendency of an element to react is closely related to
a)
its atomic mass.
b)
attractions between its atoms.
c)
the number of valence electrons in atoms of the element.
d)
the ratio of protons to neutrons in atoms of the element.
115.
A member of the boron family has three valence electrons, while a member of the nitrogen family has
a)
none
b)
five
c)
four
d)
three
116.
Which of the following Group 1A elements is the most reactive?
a)
Cs (cesium)
b)
Li (lithium)
c)
K (potassium)
d)
Na (sodium)
117.
Which of the following Group 7A elements is the most reactive?
a)
Cl (chlorine)
b)
I (iodine)
c)
F (fluorine)
d)
Br (bromine)
118.
To keep them from reacting, some highly reactive elements are stored in
a)
water
b)
pure oxygen
c)
liquid mercury
d)
argon
119.
Which element is found in nature only in compounds?
a)
sodium
b)
helium
c)
oxygen
d)
nitrogen
120.
Which element is found in most of the compounds in your body except for water?
a)
iodine
b)
potassium
c)
iron
d)
carbon
121.
Which of the following groups contain three elements with stable electron configurations?
a)
lithium, krypton, argon
b)
argon, neon, barium
c)
xenon, neon, boron
d)
helium, xenon, neon
122.
Typically, atoms gain or lose electrons to achieve
a)
an exchange of energy.
b)
ionization.
c)
a stable electron configuration.
d)
vaporization
123.
In an electron dot diagram, the symbol for an element is used to represent
a)
the nucleus
b)
the nucleus and all electrons
c)
the nucleus and all valence electrons
d)
the nucleus and all non-valence electrons
124.
Study the electron dot diagrams for lithium, carbon, fluorine, and neon in the figure. Choose the statement that correctly identifies the most stable of the elements.
a)
Lithium is the most stable element because it has to lose only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
b)
Carbon is the most stable element because it can form four bonds.
c)
Fluorine is the most stable element because it has to gain only one electron to achieve a stable configuration.
d)
Neon is the most stable element because its highest occupied energy level is filled.
125.
Ionization energies tend to
a)
decrease from left to right across a period.
b)
increase from the top of a group to the bottom.
c)
increase from left to right across a period.
d)
decrease from the bottom of a group to the top.
126.
The formation of an ionic bond involves the
a)
transfer of electrons
b)
transfer of neutrons
c)
transfer of protons
d)
sharing of electrons
127.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the substance with the formula KI?
a)
Molecules of potassium iodide contain one atom of potassium and one atom of iodide.
b)
There is a one-to-one ratio of potassium ions to iodide ions.
c)
Potassium iodide is a molecular compound.
d)
Potassium iodide is a polyatomic ion.
128.
In the compound MgCl2, the subscript 2 indicates that
a)
there are two magnesium ions for each ion of chlorine
b)
the chloride ion is twice the size of the magnesium ion.
c)
magnesium and chlorine form a double covalent bond.
d)
there are two chloride ions for each magnesium ion.
129.
Which of the following is a typical property of an ionic compound?
a)
low melting point
b)
poor conductor of electric current when melted
c)
tendency to shatter when struck
d)
all of the above
130.
You see a structural formula in which the symbols for elements are connected by a long dash. You can assume that the chemical bonds in the compound are
a)
ionic
b)
covalent
c)
metallic
d)
unstable
131.
Which of the following formulas represents a compound whose molecules contain a triple bond?
a)
N≡N
b)
O=O=O
c)
O3
d)
SO3
132.
In a polar covalent bond,
a)
electrons are shared equally between atoms.
b)
a cation is bonded to an anion.
c)
electrons are transferred between atoms.
d)
electrons are not shared equally between atoms.
133.
Water has a higher boiling point than expected because
a)
there is so much water vapor in the atmosphere.
b)
water molecules are not very massive.
c)
hydrogen and oxygen form single covalent bonds.
d)
of the strong attractions between polar water molecules.
134.
Which phrase best describes a metallic bond?
a)
a bond that is formed by a metal
b)
the attraction between a metal anion and a shared pool of electrons
c)
a bond that forms between a metal and a nonmetal
d)
the attraction between a metal cation and a shared pool of electrons
135.
Metallic bonding is similar to ionic bonding because
a)
electrons are transferred between atoms.
b)
electrons are shared between atoms.
c)
the lattice that forms contains anions and cations.
d)
there is an attraction between positively charged and negatively charged particles.
136.
Many metals can be drawn into thin wires without breaking because
a)
cations are still surrounded by electrons when they shift their positions in the lattice.
b)
metals generally have low melting points.
c)
when a metal is struck with a hammer, the positions of the anions do not change.
d)
electrons have fixed positions in a metallic lattice.
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