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Semester 1 AP Bio Review-Unit 1-4

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An atom's atomic number is best described as the number of

a)

protons it contains

b)

neutrons it contains

c)

electrons in the outermost shell

d)

protons and neutrons it contains

e)

protons and electrons it contains

2.

The characteristic way in which atoms of an element react is most related to the

a)

number of electrons in the outermost shell

b)

number of electrons in the innermost shell

c)

number of neutrons in the outermost shell

d)

number of neutrons in the nucleus

e)

size of the nucleus

3.

In which of these are the electrons shared unequally?

a)

double covalent bond

b)

triple covalent bond

c)

hydrogen bond

d)

polar covalent bond

e)

ionic and covalent bonds

4.

During a chemical reaction, the loss of an electron from an atom or molecule is termed

a)

reduction

b)

cellular respiration

c)

kinetics

d)

oxidation

e)

metabolism

5.

What type of bond is found BETWEEN water molecules?

a)

hydrogen bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

nonpolar covalent bonds

d)

polar covalent bonds

6.
Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?
a)
the oxygen end
b)
the hydrogen end
c)
both ends are slightly positive
d)
neither end is positive
7.
The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid is ___________ than it's liquid form
a)
less polar
b)
more polar
c)
less dense
d)
more dense
8.
Large bodies of water help to keep nearby climates from being too hot or too cold  because they...
a)
absorb heat in the spring and slowly release that heat in the fall
b)
absorb heat in the fall and slowly release that heat in the spring
c)
absorb heat in the summer and slowly release that heat in the winter
d)
absorb heat in the winter and slowly release that heat in the summer
9.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:

a)

covalent bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

b)

hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

c)

water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion

d)

water striders are afraid of water and avoid it

10.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
11.
Connects monomers to form a polymer
a)
Dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
12.
Breaks up polymers, forming monomers
a)
dehydration synthesis
b)
hydrolysis
13.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
14.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
15.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
16.
The following figure is illustrating
a)
Dehydration Synthesis
b)
Hydrolysis
17.

Which of the following is the monomer of a carbohydrate?

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Fatty acid

c)

Monosaccharide

d)

Polysaccharide

18.

Which type of macromolecule is pictured here?

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Protein

d)

Lipid

19.
Proteins are made of monomers called ___________
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Glycerol and fatty acids
20.
DNA and RNA are examples of 
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
21.
Waxes, oils and fats are examples of
a)
Carbohydrates
b)
Lipids
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic Acids
22.
What is the function of nucleic acids?
a)
store genetic information
b)
store energy (long-term)
c)
store energy (short-term)
d)
build skin, hair, nails, muscles
23.
Which macromolecule stores energy, insulates us, and makes up the cell membrane?
a)
lipids
b)
proteins
c)
carbohydrates
d)
nucleic acids
24.

Enzymes belong to which class of macromolecules?

a)

lipids

b)

carbohydrates

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

25.

Which macromolecule is shown?

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

26.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image? 
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
27.

Which type of cell?

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

28.

Has membrane bound organelles

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Both

29.

In what organelle is the genetic material found inside?

a)

Nucleus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

30.

What can only be found in plant cells?

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Cell membrane

31.

The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?

a)

Prokaryotes are plant cells

b)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus

c)

Prokaryotes have a nucleus

d)

There is no difference

32.

Where are proteins made?

a)

Golgi Body

b)

Ribosomes

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Mitochondria

33.
I am the "cleaner" because I break down food. Which organelle am I?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Nucleus
d)
Cyto
34.

Centrioles are found only in animal cells. They ____.

a)

Help with cell division

b)

make the ribosomes

c)

carry out chemical reactions and transports materials

d)

are used for locamotion

35.

Golgi Apparatus (Golgi Bodies) are found in Eukaryotes only. They _____.

a)

Sorts, packages, and modifies proteins to be sent in or out of the cell

b)

Excretes stuff in and out using transport membranes called vesicles

c)

a and b

d)

a only

36.

There are two types of Endoplasmic Reticulum, smooth and rough. They ______.

a)

make energy

b)

protect the cell

c)

carry out chemical reactions and transports materials

d)

make the ribosomes

37.
Define Surface area
a)
The total area on the surface of an object
b)
Length X Width 
c)
6 X (length X width)
d)
Add up the sides and divide by 4
38.
High Surface area to volume ratio allows cells to do what quickly?
a)
Move materials around inside the cell
b)
Move materials in and out of the cell 
c)
Communicate to other cells
d)
Divide
39.
This image shows how materials move into various sized cells in a given amount of time.... why does one square cell have more pink coloring than the others? 
a)
The surface area was too larger to get through
b)
The volume of the other cells was too large for the dye to get through
c)
There was not enough surface area for the dye to get through
d)
The volume was too low for the dye to stay in the square
40.
Microvilli are tiny projections that extend off the cell to increase the Surface Area.  What purpose might that serve? 
a)
Increased absorption
b)
Better communication among cells
c)
Maintain homeostasis 
d)
Decreased oxygen use
41.

What is the definition of OSMOSIS?

a)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

b)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

c)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

42.

What is the definition of ACTIVE TRANSPORT?

a)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

b)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

c)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

43.

Identify the following structure

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Cell

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Protein

44.

What is the name of 'B' found on the structure below

a)

Protein

b)

Lipic bilayer

c)

Phosphate hydrophilic heads

d)

Lipid hydrophobic heads

45.

In passive diffusion, substances always move...

a)

from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

b)

from an area with more of the molecules to an area with fewer of the molecules

c)

from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration

d)

from an area with fewer of the molecules to an area with more of the molecules

46.
In a nerve cell, ATP energy is used to pump sodium (Na) out of the cell and potassium (K) into the cell. This is an example of...
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Simple Diffusion
c)
Active Transport
d)
Osmosis
47.

The cell expanded in size to the point of lysing (bursting), which means it was placed in a ____ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

48.

The cell shows water moving in and out equally, which means it was placed in a ___ solution.

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypertonic

c)

Hypotonic

49.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
50.

What type of solution is shown in the picture?

a)

Hypertonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Isotonic

51.

_____________ is the free movement of particles across the membrane with the concentration gradient

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

fusion

52.

An example of diffusion is

a)

CO2 and O2 exchange in the lungs

b)

Glucose transport

c)

Na+ / K+ Pumps

d)

Exocytosis

53.

What is the movement of particles with the concentration gradient using protein "helpers"?

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

enzymatic reactions

54.

An example of facilitated diffusion is

a)

CO2 and O2 exchange in the lungs

b)

Glucose transport

c)

Na+ / K+ Pumps

d)

Endocytosis

55.

What is a difference between diffusion and facilitated diffusion?

a)

movement of particles from [high] to [low]

b)

a protein "helper"

c)

movement of particles from [low] to [high]

d)

energy

56.

If a cells Ψp\Psi p = 3 bars and its  Ψs\Psi s = -4.5 bars, what is the resulting  Ψ\Psi  ?

a)

-7.5

b)

7.5

c)

-1.5

d)

1.5

57.

A cell with a water potential of -1.5 bars is placed in a beaker of sugar water with Ψs\Psi s  = -4.0 bars.  In which direction will the net flow of water be?

a)

Out of the cell

b)

Into the cell

c)

Both into and out of the cell

d)

Neither into nor out of the cell

58.

A cell with a water potential of -1.5 bars is placed in a beaker of sugar water with  Ψs\Psi s  = 1.5 bars.  In which direction will the net flow of water be?

a)

Into the cell

b)

Out of the cell

c)

No net flow of water

59.

Where can PROTEINS be found when part of a plasma membrane?

a)

On the outside of the membrane

b)

On the inside of the membrane

c)

Embedded part of the way into the membrane

d)

Embedded the whole way through the membrane

e)

All of the above

60.

Where can carbohydrates be found when part of a plasma membrane?

a)

On the outside of the membrane

b)

On the inside of the membrane

c)

Embedded part of the way into the membrane

d)

Embedded the whole way through the membrane

e)

All of the above

61.

What is the "big idea" of the fluid mosaic model of plasma membranes?

a)

the plasma membrane creates a specialized FLUID that looks like a MOSAIC.

b)

the plasma membrane is a MOSAIC.

c)

the fluid mosaic model is NOT related to the plasma membrane.

d)

a plasma membrane is a MOSAIC of components that move FREELY and FLUIDLY.

62.

Active transport across a cell membrane from low to high concentration, requires

a)

energy (ATP)

b)

no energy

c)

water

d)

oxygen

63.

Enzymes are

a)

Lipids

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

64.

Enzymes are responsible for-

a)

Speeding up reactions

b)

Giving the body energy

c)

Slowing down reactions

65.

Which of these is most likely an enzyme?  

a)

Sucrose

b)

Galactose

c)

Fructose

d)

Amylase

66.

Letter D...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

67.

Letter B...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

68.

Letter c...

a)

active site

b)

enzyme

c)

substrate

d)

products

69.

Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?

a)

reusablility

b)

denaturation

c)

specificity

d)

fragility

70.

What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?

a)

reusable

b)

catalyst

c)

specific

d)

fragile

71.

An enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction in the cell but can only be used once.  True or False? 

a)

true

b)

false

72.

What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?

a)

The enzymes die.

b)

The shapes of the enzyme are altered denature

c)

The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.

d)

The enzymes remain the same

73.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
74.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
75.

A --> B + C

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

76.

A + B --> C

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

77.

Net release of energy

a)

endergonic

b)

exergonic

78.

Net intake of energy

a)

endergonic

b)

exergonic

79.
DNA replication involves unwinding two strands of parent DNA, copying each strand to synthesize complementary strands, and releasing the parent and daughter DNA so now there are two copies of the original strand. Which of the following accurately describes this process?
a)
This is an anabolic process
b)
This is a catabolic process
c)
This is both anabolic and catabolic
d)
This is a metabolic process but is neither anabolic nor catabolic
80.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
81.
The graph shows how the activity of an enzyme changes over a range of pH values. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
pepsin works best at a pH near 2
b)
pepsin works best at a pH of 9
82.
The place, other than the active site, where activators and inhibitors bind to an enzyme is called the ________ site.
a)
competitive
b)
allosteric
c)
alterior
d)
rate
83.

You are given a reaction and are told it is at “saturation.” To determine if this is true, you should add _______ and see if the reaction rate _______.

a)

ATP; increases

b)

more substrate; increases

c)

a competitive inhibitor; decreases

d)

a downstream product; decreases

e)

a noncompetitive inhibitor; decreases

84.

A noncompetitive inhibitor may inhibit binding of a substrate to an enzyme by

a)

binding to the substrate.

b)

binding to the active site.

c)

lowering the activation energy.

d)

increasing the ΔG of the reaction.

e)

changing the shape of the active site.

85.

Which type of inhibitor can be overcome by the addition of more substrate?

a)

Irreversible

b)

Noncompetitive

c)

Competitive

d)

Prosthetic

e)

Isotonic

86.

Competitive inhibitors of enzymes work by

a)

fitting into the active site.

b)

fitting into a site other than the active site.

c)

altering the shape of the enzyme.

d)

changing the enzyme into an inactive form.

e)

increasing the activation energy of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction.

87.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
88.
The stacks of disks in the chloroplast are called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
89.
The interior space of the chloroplast is called:
a)
Lamellae
b)
Grana
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoids
90.

Which of the following equations represents the overall chemical reaction for photosynthesis?

a)

6O2+ 6H2O → C6H12O6+ 6O2

b)

C6H12O6 + 6H2O→ 6O2+ 6O2

c)

6CO2+ 6H2O→ C6H12O6+ 6O2

d)

6O2 + 6H2O→ C6H12O6 + 6CO2

91.
What are the two products of the light reactions that are needed for the calvin cycle?
a)
NAD and NADPH
b)
NADP + and Glucose
c)
NADPH and ATP
d)
Oxygen and NADPH
92.

what are the inputs of the calvin cycle?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

CO2

d)

H2O

e)

chlorophyll

93.
Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reactions?
a)
ATP
b)
NADPH
c)
Oxygen
d)
Glucose
94.

Choose the statement that best describes light reaction.

a)

It converts CO2 to sugar molecule

b)

It converts light energy to chemical energy of ATP and NADPH

c)

It takes place in the stroma

95.

Select all that are raw materials for Photosynthesis.

a)

Water

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Sunlight (Light Energy)

e)

Glucose (Sugar/food)

96.

What role does NADPH play in cellular respiration

a)

It is long term energy storage

b)

it is a high-energy hydrogen carrier

c)

it breaks down glucose

d)

it is an enzyme

97.

Main products of the Calvin Cycle

a)

Oxygen, NADP+, ADP

b)

Glucose, CO2, ADP

c)

ADP, NADP+, Glucose

d)

ATP, NADPH, Oxygen

98.

Which of the following is true of the Calvin Cycle?

a)

carbon dioxide and energy (ATP and NADPH) are used to make organic compounds

b)

energy is absorbed from sunlight and converted to chemical energy stored in ATP and NADPH

c)

Occurs in the thylakoid

d)

Occurs in the cytoplasm

99.

Increasing carbon dioxide can increase photosynthesis, but only to a maximum rate because

a)

There are not enough RuBP molecules

b)

Oxygen cannot leave fast enough

c)

Large amounts of CO2 cannot fit in the chloroplast

d)

Calvin cycle can only go as fast as the light reactions

100.
The 5-Carbon molecules that the Calvin Cycle starts and ends with, is called _____________.
a)
PGA
b)
G3P
c)
RuBP
d)
RuDp
101.
The molecule that comes out of the Calvin Cycle to produce glucose, and polymers like cellulose is:
a)
RuBP
b)
GP3
c)
3-PG
d)
G3P
102.

What is the first stage of the Calvin Cycle?

a)

Carbon fixation

b)

Reduction

c)

Regeneration of RUBP

d)

Primary

103.
How many G3P molecules make one molecule of glucose? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
104.

What does the Calvin Cycle begins with?

a)

Glucose

b)

The input of CO2

c)

Water

d)

ATP synthase

105.

In the electron transport chain, Oxygen acts as...

a)

a carrier of electrons, passing electrons down the chain

b)

a reducing agent

c)

the final electron acceptor

d)

a coenzyme

106.

When protons are pumped outside the matrix, across the inner membrane...

a)

water is made

b)

a concentration gradient of H+ ions (protons) is created

c)

NADH gets reduced

d)

CO2 is produced

107.

The electrons that are transferred through the electron transport chain initially belonged to

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

ATP

d)

Oxygen

e)

NADH and FADH2

108.
What is the name of the 1st step of cellular respiration?
a)
Glycolysis
b)
Kreb's Cycle
c)
ETC
d)
Anaerobic respiration
109.
Where does glycolysis take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Stroma
c)
Thylakoid
d)
Mitochondria
110.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
111.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
112.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
113.

When we say a process requires oxygen, we call it what?

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Oxyphillic

d)

Oxygenphilia

114.

When we say a process that does not require oxygen, we call it what?

a)

Anaerobic

b)

Aerobic

c)

Oxyphillic

d)

Oxygenphilia

115.

Glycolysis is responsible for breaking glucose down into what?

a)

CO2

b)

H2O

c)

Acetyl CoA

d)

2 Pyruvic Acids

116.

During which phase of cellular respiration is the most ATP harvested?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

117.

In each phase of cellular respiration there is a certain amount of chemical energy harvested in the form of ATP. On a perfect day, with everything running at 100% efficiency, how many molecules of ATP can we harvest from 1 molecule of glucose?

a)

38

b)

23

c)

4

d)

2

118.

When an organism is in a low oxygen situation, such as running sprints, cellular respiration ceases and the organism must use a different metabolic pathway for creating energy without oxygen. What do we call this process?

a)

Acidification

b)

Hydrolysis

c)

Fermentation

d)

Citric Acid Cycle

119.
Where does aerobic respiration take place?
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Stroma
d)
Thylakoid
120.

What happens in the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH and FADH2 drop off hydrogens to form massive amounts of ATP

b)

pyruvic acid is formed from breaking down glucose

c)

CO2 is released and H2O and ATP

d)

glucose is broken down and ATP is formed

121.

The Krebs cycle requires oxygen, because...

a)

without oxygen, NADH cannot be oxidized to continue receiving electrons as NAD+

b)

without oxygen, coenzyme A is unable to be added to the pyruvate molecule to make acetyl CoA

c)

without oxygen, ATP cannot be synthesized by substrate level phosphorylation

d)

without oxygen, glycolysis cannot take place to provide the starting materials for the Krebs cycle

122.

How are electrons extracted during the Krebs cycle transferred to the electron transport chain?

a)

NADH

b)

FADH2

c)

ATP

d)

CO2

123.

What are the 3 stages of cellular respiration in the correct order?

a)

Krebs, Glycolysis, Electron Transport Chain

b)

Glycolysis, Krebs, Electron Transport Chain

c)

Electron Transport Chain, Krebs, Glycolysis

124.

Which of the following happen during the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

High energy electrons travel down the ETC, pumping H+'s into the intermembrane space

b)

H+'s travel down the ETC, pumping high energy electrons into the intermembrane space

c)

H+'s diffuse through ATP Synthase, turning it so it can make ATP

125.

What is the name of the signaling molecule in cell communication?

a)

ligand

b)

receptor

c)

operon

d)

inhibitor

126.

Choose the correct order of communication.

a)

reception, response, transduction

b)

transduction, reception, response

c)

response, transduction, reception

d)

reception, transduction, response

127.

All cells have the same response to the same signal.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Long distance signals involving hormones are ________ signals.

a)

paracrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

129.

Phosphorylation cascades are often used for

a)

reception

b)

responses

c)

amplification

d)

termination

130.

Programmed cell death is known as

a)

mutation

b)

termination

c)

cytokinesis

d)

apoptosis

131.

What type of signaling is shown here?

a)

autocrine

b)

synaptic

c)

endocrine

d)

paracrine

132.

After a cellular response, how is it terminated?

a)

separate the ligand and receptor

b)

block the transduction pathway

c)

it will keep responding

d)

send out a different signal

133.

An example of DIRECT cell communication is:

a)

White blood cells bumping into each other sharing antigen info

b)

Neurons communicating across a synapse

c)

Hormones traveling through the blood stream to target tissues

134.

A cell converting a chemical signal into a cellular response is known as __.

a)

energetics

b)

transduction

c)

ligand response

d)

transformation

135.

What do secondary messengers, like cAMP, do?

a)

transport a signal through the lipid bilayer

b)

relay & amplify a signal from the outside to the inside of the cell

c)

relay & amplify a message from the inside of the membrane throughout the cytoplasm

d)

dampen the message

136.

During labor oxytocin is released. When labor pains increase more oxytocin is released causing more labor pain which increases the levels of oxytocin. This is an example of what type of feedback

a)

negative feedback

b)

homeostasis feedback

c)

positive feedback

d)

a decrease in the stimulus

137.

When estrogen is released only a small amount of cells are affected because

a)

non target cells go through apoptosis

b)

only target cells are exposed to the signal

c)

it is unable to enter non target cells

d)

only target cells have the receptor

138.
The two types of feedback systems that help organisms maintain homeostasis are:
a)
positive and negative 
b)
receptor and effector
c)
static and dynamic
d)
minor and major
139.
Maintaining body temperature is an example of a:
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
140.

Blood sugar regulation is an example of a ______________ loop

a)

positive

b)

negative

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