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ESS Midterm Review (Units 1 & 2)

Total questions: 141

Worksheet time: 2hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does it mean when light from a galaxy is redshifted?

a)

The galaxy is moving towards us

b)

The galaxy is moving away from us

c)

The galaxy is not moving

d)

The galaxy is getting smaller

2.

Redshifted light has (a)   waves and indicates that an object is moving (b)   from us.

Choose from the below words
longer, away
shorter, toward
longer, toward
shorter, away
3.

Which of the following is evidence for the Big Bang theory?

a)

Most galaxies emit blueshifted light

b)

Most galaxies emit redshifted light

c)

Most galaxies do not emit any light

d)

Most galaxies emit green light

4.

Blueshifted light has (a)   waves and indicates that an object is moving (b)   us.

Choose from the below words
shorter, towards
longer, away
shorter, away
longer, towards
5.

Cosmic background radiation is leftover energy from the _____

a)

Nuclear Fusion

b)

Blue Shift

c)

Big Bang

d)

Sun

6.

Which of the following is NOT true about cosmic background radiation?

a)

It is present everywhere in space

b)

It appears to be coming from all directions in the universe

c)

It is only found near stars

d)

It serves as evidence for the Big Bang

7.

As wavelength increases toward the right end of the electromagnetic spectrum, visible light shifts toward the _____ end of the spectrum.

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

Violet

8.

In the electromagnetic spectrum, high energy waves have _____ wavelengths.

a)

Long

b)

Short

9.

What is a self-luminous object made of gas found in outer space that radiates electromagnetic energy?

a)

Planet

b)

Moon

c)

Star

d)

Galaxy

10.

______ produce extremely great quantities of energy through the process of nuclear fusion.

a)

Stars

b)

Planets

c)

Moons

d)

Galaxies

11.

What is the process of making new elements inside the star through nuclear fusion called?

(a)  

12.

The most important characteristic that will determine the type of life cycle a star will undergo is its ________.

a)

color

b)

temperature

c)

luminosity

d)

mass

13.

Which of the following is an example of an indirect relationship?

a)

A) As one value increases, the other value increases

b)

B) As one value increases, the other value decreases

c)

C) Both values remain constant

d)

D) Both values decrease together

14.

What are the products of the nuclear fusion of 4 hydrogen atoms?

a)

1 Helium atom and energy

b)

2 Helium atoms and energy

c)

1 Oxygen atom and energy

d)

4 Helium atoms and energy

15.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. What is the correct sequence for the life cycle of our Sun (and stars with a similar mass)?

a)

A) Red Giant, Planetary Nebula, White Dwarf

b)

B) Red Supergiant, Supernova, Black Hole

c)

C) Red Dwarf, White Dwarf

d)

D) Protostar, Neutron Star, Black Hole

16.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. What is the correct sequence for the life cycle of massive stars?

a)

A) Red Supergiant, Supernova, Neutron Star or Black Hole

b)

B) Red Giant, Planetary Nebula, White Dwarf

c)

C) Red Dwarf, White Dwarf

d)

D) Protostar, White Dwarf, Black Hole

17.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. What is the correct sequence for the life cycle of low mass stars?

a)

A) Red Dwarf, White Dwarf

b)

B) Red Giant, Planetary Nebula, White Dwarf

c)

C) Red Supergiant, Supernova, Black Hole

d)

D) Protostar, Neutron Star, Black Hole

18.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. Stars like our Sun live for ________ of years.

a)
billions
b)

millions

c)

100s of billions

d)

hundreds

19.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. Massive stars live for (a)   of years.

20.

Refer to the 'Life Cycles of Stars Model' diagram. Low mass stars live for 100s of billions of years. Therefore, we know that the smaller the mass, the _______ the lifetime of the star. This is an example of an _______ relationship.

a)

shorter, direct

b)

longer, direct

c)

longer, indirect

d)

shorter, indirect

21.

According to the HR diagram and the facts provided, which colored stars are the coolest (less than 3,000 K)?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

White

d)

Yellow

22.

According to the HR diagram, the Sun has an approximate temperature of ​

​ (a)   , it is considered a ​ (b)   star, and it is categorized as spectral class​ ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
9,800 Kelvin
5,800 Kelvin
main sequence
G
red giant
M
23.

According to the HR diagram and the facts provided, which colored stars are the hottest (more than 30,000 K)?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Orange

d)

Yellow

24.

According to the HR diagram, bigger stars have a (a)   luminosity (top of chart).

25.

What is nucleosynthesis?

a)

The process where stars create new elements by fusing smaller atoms together

b)

The process where stars lose mass over time

c)

The process where stars cool down and become white dwarfs

d)

The process where stars split into two smaller stars

26.

Stars spend most of their life cycle as ________ before reaching their end stages.

a)
main sequence stars
b)

red giant star

c)

white dwarf stars

d)

supergiant stars

27.

Stars with larger masses:

a)

Burn fuel slower

b)

Burn fuel quicker

c)

Have weaker gravity

d)

Start out with less fuel

28.

Larger stars have stronger (a)   which causes faster fusion, producing heavier elements.

29.

Which of the following is NOT true about stars with larger masses?

a)

A) They burn fuel quicker

b)

B) They have stronger gravity

c)

C) They start out with less fuel

d)

D) They produce heavier elements

30.

Stellar Nucleosynthesis takes place through the process of (a)   in the center of stars.

31.

Fusion takes place in the center of stars because it is extremely ______ and there is an extreme amount of pressure.

a)

cold

b)

dry

c)

wet

d)

hot

32.

No star can fuse elements heavier than ______. Once this element is created, a star has reached the end of its fuel source and begins to collapse, leading to a supernova explosion.

a)
iron
b)

hydrogen

c)

helium

d)

carbon

33.

Elements that are much heavier than Iron were formed from the process of ______.

a)

supernova nucleosynthesis

b)

stellar nucleosynthesis

34.

According to the diagram 'Generalized Nucleosynthesis in a Massive Star', which element is formed during the main sequence stage?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon

c)

Oxygen

d)

Iron

35.

During a star’s main sequence stage, it spends a long time converting (a)   into helium while the star is considered stable and within equilbrium.

36.

At equilibrium, the force of fusion is equal to the force of (a)  

37.

During the red giant phase, elements are converted into heavier elements at a faster rate due to increased.

a)

temperature and pressure

b)

light and sound

c)

gravity and magnetism

d)

distance from Earth

38.

The Sun gives off solar radiation in the forms of UV light, visible light, & infrared light (heat). These are all forms of ______________ radiation

a)

hydrogen

b)

electromagnetic

c)

helium

39.
Which star is the coldest?
a)
Yellow Star
b)
Red Star
c)
Orange Star
d)
Blue Star
40.
MOST stars on the HR diagram and in the universe are what type of stars? 
a)
Red giants
b)
Blue giants
c)
White dwarfs
d)
Main sequence
41.

Which statement describes the general relationship between the temperature and the luminosity of main sequence stars?

a)

As temperature decreases, luminosity increases

b)

As temperature decreases, luminosity remains the same

c)

As temperature increases, luminosity increases

d)

As temperature increases, luminosity remains the same.

42.

Which star has the lowest temperature? Refer to the diagram.

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
43.

This attached graph depicts that as variable 1 increases, variable 2 also increases. This is known as a ______ relationship.

a)

direct

b)

indirect

44.

The approximate age of the universe is estimated to be

a)

4.6 million years

b)

4.6 billion years

c)

13.8 million years

d)

13.8 billion years

45.

The top spectra is the laboratory spectra and is not moving. What type of shift is shown with the bottom spectra and is the object moving towards or away from the observer?

a)

Red Shift

Towards

b)

Red Shift

Away

c)

Blue Shift

Towards

d)

Blue Shift

Away

46.

What shape is this galaxy?

a)

Elliptical

b)

Irregular

c)

Barred-Spiral

d)

Spiral

47.

What do many stars together make up?

a)

A planet

b)

A solar system

c)

A galaxy

d)

A moon

48.

What is the significance of the redshift observed in distant galaxies?

a)

It indicates that the universe is contracting

b)

It shows that the universe is static and unchanging

c)

It suggests that the universe is expanding

d)

It proves that galaxies are moving towards us

49.
What gases are in the unknown mixture?
a)
Gas B & Gas D
b)
Gas C & Gas B
c)
Gas A & Gas D
d)
Gas D & Gas C
50.

Match the following stages with the corresponding star types after the main sequence.

a)

supergiant

1.

High mass star

b)

protostar

2.

Early stage star

c)

black dwarf

3.

End stage of a low mass star

d)

red giant

4.

Late stage of a low mass star

51.
A dark spot on the photosphere of the sun
a)
corona
b)
solar flare
c)
sunspot
d)
magnitude
52.
The visible surface of the sun
a)
galaxy
b)
universe
c)
corona
d)
photosphere
53.
Moving areas of magnetic activity with temperatures that are cooler than the area of the photosphere
a)
Photosphere
b)
Corona
c)
Sunspots
d)
Prominence
54.
Sunspots are dark because they are _____ than the area around them
a)
hotter
b)
cooler
c)
longer
d)
less magnetic
55.

Sunspots tend to occur in cycles which occur ever ______ years.

a)

2

b)

5

c)

11

d)

65

56.

1- Sunspots occur in regions of the sun…

a)

where strong magnetic fields block convective cells

b)

where weak magnetic fields poke through the surface

c)

where there are holes in the surface

57.

What is the outermost layer of the Sun called?

a)

Chromosphere

b)

Photosphere

c)

Corona

d)

Core

58.

Which layer of the Sun is located directly below the Corona?

a)

Radiative Zone

b)

Core

c)

Chromosphere

d)

Convection Zone

59.

Identify the part of the Sun that is the centermost layer.

a)

Core

b)

Radiative Zone

c)

Convection Zone

d)

Photosphere

60.

What Type of Graph is shown?

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Cyclic

d)

Constant

61.

What Graphing relationship is being shown

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Cyclic

d)

Constant

62.

What is at the middle of a Heliocentric system?

a)

Mars

b)

Moon

c)

Sun

d)

Earth

63.

What does the Geocentric system look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
64.

What does the Heliocentric system look like?

a)
b)
c)
d)
65.

What is the period of revolution of Mercury?

a)

88 days

b)

59 days

c)

57.9 days

d)

224.7 days

66.

Saturn is how many millions of km away from the sun?

a)

1426.7 million km

b)

2871.0 million km

c)

778.4 million km

d)

227.9 million km

67.

What is the period of rotation for the Earth’s moon?

a)

27.3 days

b)

149.6 days

c)

27.0 days

68.

Which planets orbit most eccentric?

a)

Neptune

b)

Mars

c)

Earth

d)

Jupiter

69.

Which planet is the largest?

a)

Saturn

b)

Uranus

c)

Neptune

d)

Jupiter

70.

Which planets period of revolution is shorter than its period of rotation?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Mercury

c)

Earth

d)

Venus

71.

The 4 planets closest to the sun are called

a)

Terrestrial planets

b)

Gas giants

72.

The 4 inner planets in order are

a)

Mercury, Earth, Venus, Mars

b)

Mars, Venus, Earth, Mars

c)

Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune

d)

Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

73.

Select 2 choices that are characteristics of the terrestrial planets

a)

Made of gases

b)

rocky surface

c)

many moons

d)

rings

e)

few moons

74.

Planets that are closer to the sun

a)

take more time to orbit

b)

take less time to orbit

75.

The 4 terrestrial planets are larger than the 4 gas giants

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Pluto is the only dwarf planet.

a)

true

b)

false

77.
A perfect circle has an eccentricity of ______.
a)
0
b)
.99
c)
1
d)
2
78.
Which planet has an orbital eccentricity most like the orbital eccentricity of the Moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Saturn
c)
Mars
d)
Mercury
79.
The gravitational attraction between the star and the planet will be greatest at position 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
80.

Select the correct answer. According to Newton’s law of universal gravitation, what is the effect of gravity on two objects as the distance between them increases?

a)

The force of gravity increases.

b)

The force increases by twice the previous amount.

c)

There is no effect on the force of gravity.

d)

The force of gravity decreases.

81.

According to Kepler’s first law, the shape of a planet’s orbit around the Sun is (a)  

Choose from the below words
circular
polygonal
elliptical
random
82.

The effect observed in a planet’s speed in its orbit as it travels away from the Sun is that it (a)   .

Choose from the below words
increases
remains same
decreases
unpredictable
83.
An ellipse is drawn around two points called
a)
aphelion
b)
perihelion
c)
foci
d)
axis
84.
When a planet orbits the Sun, one of the foci of the elliptical orbit is 
a)
the axis
b)
the perihelion
c)
the center
d)
the Sun
85.

What does Waning mean

a)

Decreasing

b)

Growing

86.

What does waxing mean

a)

Growing

b)

Decreasing

87.

which one is a new moon

a)
b)
c)
d)
88.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & revolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
89.

_______are daily changes in ocean water levels along the coasts.

a)

Waters

b)

Tides

c)

Colors

d)

Earths

90.

Why do we not experience eclipses every month?

a)

The moon is stubborn.

b)

The Moon's orbit is tilted

c)

Moon is smaller than the Sun

d)

Earth's orbit is tilted

91.

Which location would a 1st quarter moon be visible?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

5

d)

7

92.
Which position is the Northern Hemisphere experiencing Winter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
93.

How long is one lunar cycle?

a)

29.5 months

b)

29.5 days

c)

29.5 weeks

d)

30 days

94.

The sun, the moon, and Earth are nearly in a line during a new moon. The gravity of the sun and the moon pull in the same direction causing a ______ ____

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

c)

High Tide

d)

Low Tide

95.

Is this alignment for a solar or lunar eclipse?

a)

Solar

b)

Lunar

96.

Closest to the sun

a)

Spring tide

b)

Perihelion

c)

Aphelion

d)

Equinox

97.

What happens during a solar flare or coronal mass ejection (CME)?

a)

small amounts of solar energy is released

b)

large amounts of solar energy are released

c)

solar energy is released at the same rate of the solar wind

d)

nothing

98.

How can you describe a cyclic phenomenon?

a)

It does not repeat.

b)

It repeats.

c)

There is no way to tell.

99.
How old is our solar system?
a)
4.6 billion years
b)
13.8 billion years
c)
6,000 years
d)
15,000 years
100.

A star will spend ______ of it's life turning hydrogen into helium.

a)

100%

b)

20%

c)

90%

d)

50%

101.

______ occur by plate boundaries.

a)

Eathquakes

b)

Volcanoes

c)

Earthquakes and volcanoes

102.

From the top of the stiffer mantle to the center of Earth, the rock material is inferred to be

a)

solid all the way to the center of the inner core

b)

solid, then liquid to the center of the inner core

c)

solid, then liquid, then solid again to the center of the inner core

d)

solid, then liquid, then gaseous to the center of the inner core

103.

What happens to temperature, pressure, and density as you go deeper towards the Earth's interior?

a)

they increase

b)

they decrease

c)

they remain the same

d)

the increase and decrease

104.

Vibrations caused when stress makes rocks pass their elastic limit.

a)

epicenter

b)

Earthquake

c)

strike-slip

d)

surface wave

105.

What seismic activity is found at a transform plate boundary?

a)

Trenches

b)

Subduction

c)

Volcanoes

d)

Earthquakes

106.

The Modified Mercalli scale rates the amount of damage from an earthquake

a)

true

b)

false

107.

Location H is located at which coordinates?

a)

60oN, 120oE

b)

90oN, 30oE

c)

10oS, 40oW

d)

30oN, 90oE

108.
A subduction zone is formed...
a)
when one tectonic plate sinks below another
b)
at every type of convergent plate boundary
c)
at every type of divergent plate boundary
d)
at transform boundaries
109.
What is the name of the plate boundary that pushes together?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
A Chest Bump
110.
What is the name of the plate boundary that pulls apart?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Tug Of War
111.

Which of the following causes Earth's tectonic plates to move?

a)

Energy from the Sun

b)

Magnetic Pole Reversal

c)

Convection currents in the mantle

d)

Faults in Mountain Ranges

112.
Rising magma that results from subduction may produce...
a)
fossil layers
b)
volcanic island arcs
c)
deep-sea sediment
d)
seafloor spreading
113.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
strike slip
114.

This igneous rock's large crystals indicate that it is...

a)

extrusive, and formed deep underground.

b)

intrusive, and formed near the surface.

c)

intrusive, and formed deep underground.

d)

extrusive, and formed near the surface.

115.

What is the relationship between crystal size and cooling time ?

a)

slower cooling = smaller crystals

b)

slower cooling = larger crystals

c)

faster cooling = larger crystals

d)

faster cooling = more crystals

116.

Extrusive igneous rocks have ​ (a)   crystals because they form ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
small
quickly
slowly
large
117.

Using your ESSRT, complete the following. Granite is a ​ (a)   rock that contains minerals such as​ (b)   and potassium feldspar. Due to the large observable crystals that formed from a slow cooling process, it is classified as an ​ (c)   igneous rock.

Choose from the below words
felsic
mafic
quartz
pyroxene
intrusive
extrusive
118.

Scientists know that Earth's outer core is liquid because....

a)

P-waves can't travel through it

b)

S-waves can't travel through it

c)

They are just guessing

d)

They've taken direct samples

119.

What is happening in the picture?

a)

layers of the Earth are changing positions

b)

the inner and outer core are solid

c)

convection currents are causing the tectonic plates to move

d)

the mantle is growing

120.
The diagram shows a rift valley formed by the movement of tectonic plates. Which movement of tectonic plates caused the rift valley to form?
a)
Two tectonic plates separated from each other
b)
Two tectonic plates collided with each other
c)
One tectonic plate slid under another
d)
One tectonic plate slid past another
121.

Click the island that is the oldest

122.

What geologic feature will occur at a hot spot ?

a)

volcano

b)

folded mountain

c)

deep sea trench

d)

crevasse

123.

What evidence did Wegener use in his theory of continental drift?

a)

Continents fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces 

b)

matching fossils found on continents now separate by oceans

c)
mountain ranges and coal deposits line up across continents
d)
all of the above
124.

Sea-floor spreading begins at the

a)

Deep ocean trench

b)

Mid-ocean ridge

c)

Continent's edge

125.

The average density of continental crust is 2.8 g/cm3 and the average density of oceanic crusts is 3.2 g/cm3. If these two plates came together, what would happen?

a)

The two plates would push apart and form a rift zone.

b)

The oceanic plate would rise up over the continental plate.

c)

The oceanic plate would sink under the continental plate.

d)

The two plates would meet head on and rise up to form mountains.

126.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
N
d)
O
127.

What type of boundary does Seafloor Spreading occur?

a)

Convergent

b)

Subduction

c)

Collision

d)

Divergent

128.

When a continental plate collides with another continental plate what type of land form will be created?

a)

mid ocean ridges

b)

mountain ranges

c)

islands

d)

deep see trenches

129.

The process where cold, dense oceanic slabs are subducted under continental lithosphere.

a)

Slab Pull

b)

Ridge Push

c)

Magnetic Reversal

d)

Convection Current

130.
The process where newly formed rock at mid-ocean ridges pushes the older oceanic slab in front of it.
a)
Ridge Push
b)
Slab Pull
c)
Convection Current
d)
Magnetic Reversal
131.

According to the dating of rocks on the seafloor, how does the age of rocks change relative to their distance from the ridge?

a)

Rocks are oldest at the ridge and get younger as you move away.

b)

Rocks maintain a constant age regardless of their distance from the ridge.

c)

Rocks are youngest at the ridge and get older as you move away.

d)

The age of rocks decreases with depth, not distance from the ridge.

132.

What does the cooling lava at mid-ocean ridges record that serves as evidence of seafloor spreading?

a)

The age of the oceanic crust

b)

The salinity of the ocean water

c)

The polarity of the magnetic field at that point in geologic time

d)

The temperature of the ocean at the time of eruption

133.

Based on Bowen’s Reaction Series, the last material to crystallize at the lowest temperature in granitic igneous rock is

a)

olivine

b)

quartz

c)

amphibole

d)

pyroxene

134.

How are igneous rocks formed?

a)

Sediment forming together

b)

Heating and pressure

c)

Melting and cooling

d)

Deposition

135.

Which cross-sectional diagram of a portion of the crust and

mantle best shows the pattern of mantle convection currents that are believed to cause the formation of a mid-ocean ridge?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

136.
Which texture best describes the rock above?
a)
porphyritic 
b)
nonfoliated
c)
foliated
d)
clastic
137.

The recrystallization of unmelted material under high temperature and pressure results in

a)

metamorphic rock

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

igneous rock

d)

volcanic rock

138.

Where can most metamorphic rock be found?

a)

As part of mountain ranges

b)

At the bottom of oceans

c)

Lake beds

d)

Deep in the Earth, near the mantle

139.

At a continental-continental convergent boundary, which type of metamorphism should be occurring?

a)

contact metamorphism, due to the intense heat of the magma chamber

b)

regional metamorphism, due to the intense heat of the magma chamber

c)

regional metamorphism, due to the intense pressure

d)

contact metamorphism, due to the intense pressure

140.

The rock was probably formed by:

a)

A. sediments that were deposited on the ocean floor

b)

B. heat and pressure that changed a preexisting rock

c)

C. volcanic lava that cooled on Earth's surface

d)

D. a meteor impact on Earth's surface.

141.
How do metamorphic rocks form? 
a)
Heat and Pressure
b)
Compaction & Cementation
c)
Cooling of Magma
d)
Sediments & Glue