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TE 4 Mock 1 - SS1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Preeta Singh, a CFA candidate, is an asset manager employed by a fund management company managing very large segregated pension funds. In her spare time outside of working hours, Singh likes to provide management consulting services to small companies to help grow their businesses, focusing on strategic planning. Singh is paid for the consulting services and has also provided her employer information about these outside activities. Does Singh most likely violate the CFA Code of Ethics with regard to Duties to Employers?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, with regard to Loyalty.
c)
C. Yes, with regard to Additional Compensation Arrangements.
2.
Rule has worked as a portfolio manager for a large investment management firm for the past 10 years. Rule earned his CFA charter last year and has decided to open his own investment management firm. After leaving his current employer, Rule creates some marketing material for his new firm. He states in the material, “In earning the CFA charter, a highly regarded credential in the investment management industry, I further enhanced the portfolio management skills learned during my professional career. While completing the examination process in three consecutive years, I consistently received the highest possible scores on the topics of Ethics, Alternative Investments, and Portfolio Management.” Has Rule violated Standard VII(B)–Reference to CFA Institute, the CFA Designation, and the CFA Program in his marketing material?
a)
A. Rule violated Standard VII(B) in stating that he completed the exams in three consecutive years.
b)
B. Rule violated Standard VII(B) in stating that he received the highest scores in the topics of Ethics, Alternative Investments, and Portfolio Management.
c)
C. Rule did not violate Standard VII(B).
3.
Which of the following statements is correct under the Code and Standards?
a)
A. CFA Institute members and candidates are prohibited from undertaking independent practice in competition with their employer.
b)
B. Written consent from the employer is necessary to permit independent practice that could result in compensation or other benefits in competition with a member’s or candidate’s employer.
c)
C. Members and candidates are prohibited from making arrangements or preparations to go into a competitive business before terminating their relationship with their employer.
4.
Which of the following is least likely a requirement of the GIPS standards? Firms are required to:
a)
A. have their performance records verified by an independent third party.
b)
B. include all discretionary, fee-paying portfolios in at least one composite.
c)
C. present a minimum of five years of annual investment performance compliant with GIPS standards.
5.
A profession is most likely described as a group of people that:
a)
A. has a common level of basic knowledge about a particular subject.
b)
B. monitors its members based on an agreed-on code of ethics.
c)
C. puts the interests of its members first.
6.
Sergio Morales, CFA, believes he has found evidence that his supervisor is engaged in fraudulent activity involving a client’s account. When Morales confronts his supervisor, he is told the client is fully aware of the issue. Later that day, Morales contacts the client and upon disclosing the fraudulent activity, is told by the client to mind his own business. Following the requirements of local law, Morales provides all of his evidence, along with copies of the client’s most recent account statements, to a government whistle blower program. Has Morales most likely violated the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, concerning Duties to Employers.
c)
C. Yes, concerning Preservation of Confidentiality.
7.
To maintain trust, the investment management profession must be interdependent with:
a)
A. regulators.
b)
B. employers.
c)
C. investment firms.
8.
Jacques Lagarde, CFA, is a sell-side analyst at Springhill Financial, a small investment bank. Springhill is the lead manager for the equity offering of Chorale Music. Lagarde is not part of the IPO team for this offering. While finalizing a research report on Chorale, Lagarde discovers inconsistencies that makes him believe the company may have concealed losses in its leasing division last quarter that would significantly reduce its earnings. Lagarde suspects that Springhill’s investment banking team are aware of these unreported losses. The prospectus for Chorale’s equity offering has already been approved by regulators and distributed to potential investors. According to the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, Lagarde should most likely:
a)
A. report the issue to his supervisor.
b)
B. issue a report showing the leasing division losses.
c)
C. issue the report using data as reported in the prospectus.
9.
Amanda Covington, CFA, works for McJan Investment Management. McJan employees must receive prior clearance of their personal investments in accordance with McJan’s compliance procedures. To obtain prior clearance, McJan employees must provide a written request identifying the security, the quantity of the security to be purchased, and the name of the broker through which the transaction will be made. Pre-cleared transactions are approved only for that trading day. As indicated below, Covington received prior clearance.
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, relating to diligence and reasonable basis.
c)
C. Yes, relating to her employer’s compliance procedures.
10.
While waiting in the business class lounge before boarding an airplane, Becca Msafari, CFA, an equity analyst, overhears a conversation by a group of senior managers, including members of the Board, from a large publicly listed bank. The managers discuss staff changes necessary to accommodate their regional expansion plans. Msafari hears several staff names mentioned. Under what circumstances could Msafari most likely use this information when making an investment recommendation to her clients?
a)
A. Under no circumstances.
b)
B. If she does not breach the confidentiality of names of staff.
c)
C. If the discussed changes are unlikely to affect investor perception of the bank.
11.
Leng Bo, CFA, is a bond portfolio manager for individual investors. Last year, a client whose portfolio is limited to investment-grade bonds approved Bo’s purchase of a below investment grade bond. Because yields in the high grade fixed-income markets declined, Bo subsequently decides to enhance this client’s portfolio by investing in several additional bonds with ratings one or two notches below investment grade. The investment strategy implemented by Bo most likely violated which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Suitability
b)
B. Communications with Clients
c)
C. Independence and Objectivity
12.
A key feature of the GIPS standards is that:
a)
A. they strive to cover the unique characteristics of each asset class.
b)
B. firms must adhere to all requirements of the standards to claim compliance.
c)
C. actual, discretionary, fee-paying portfolios may be excluded from a composite under limited conditions.
13.
Jean-Luc Schlumberger, CFA, is an independent research analyst providing equity research on companies listed on exchanges in emerging markets. He often incorporates statistical data he obtains from the web sites of the World Bank and the central banks of various countries into the body of his research reports. While not indicated within the reports, whenever his clients ask where he gets his information he informs them the information is in the public domain but he doesn’t keep his own records. When the clients ask for the specific web site addresses he provides the information. Which Standard has Schlumberger least likely violated?
a)
A. Record Retention
b)
B. Misrepresentation
c)
C. Performance Presentation
14.
Situational influences in decision making will most likely be minimized if:
a)
A. strong compliance programs are in place.
b)
B. longer-term consequences are considered.
c)
C. individuals believe they are truthful and honest.
15.
Which of the following statements is most likely consistent with the CFA Institute Code of Ethics? CFA Institute members and CFA candidates must:
a)
A. promote the integrity and viability of the global capital markets for the ultimate benefit of society.
b)
B. practice the highest level of personal and professional integrity and always act in the best interest of their employers.
c)
C. maintain their professional competence and require investment professionals under their supervision to adopt the CFA Code of Ethics.
16.
Priscilla Moab, CFA, is the director of marketing at Red Lantern Investments. Red’s investment approach uses technical and fundamental analysis as well as portfolio construction to minimize risk. Moab plans to market an online investment newsletter to retail clients. Moab decides to let prospective clients have access to Red’s buy and sell recommendation list by posting this information on a social media site. The posting also provides information on Red’s basic investment process and logic. To avoid violating the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, Moab should most likely:
a)
A. describe the investment approach in detail.
b)
B. update investment process changes annually.
c)
C. indicate that additional information and analysis are available.
17.
A regulator who requires financial advisers to merely consider the suitability of a product when making recommendations to their clients would most likely be setting:
a)
A. both a legal and an ethical standard.
b)
B. an ethical standard.
c)
C. a legal standard.
18.
Ethical conduct is most likely behavior that:
a)
A. simply considers both the direct benefit and indirect consequences on others.
b)
B. is perceived to be beneficial as per society’s ethical expectations.
c)
C. conforms to expectations as laid out by laws and regulations.
19.
Gregor Pavlov, CFA, is a fund manager working for the general partner of a new private equity fund. Pavlov includes in the fund marketing material his performance history from his previous employer. He received permission from his former employer to take his historical recommendations and the supporting research reports he used to make those recommendations. Did Pavlov most likely violate the CFA Institute Standards?
a)
A. No
b)
B. Yes, with regard to Loyalty
c)
C. Yes, with regard to Record Retention
20.
Firms claiming compliance with GIPS standards are most likely required to:
a)
A. comply with all updates, interpretations, and clarifications.
b)
B. make negative assurance disclosures when presenting the firm’s performance.
c)
C. meet at least 85% of the requirements before claiming compliance.
21.
Paper was recently terminated as one of a team of five managers of an equity fund. The fund had two value-focused managers and terminated one of them to reduce costs. In a letter sent to prospective employers, Paper presents, with written permission of the firm, the performance history of the fund to demonstrate his past success.
a)
A. Paper did not violate the Code and Standards.
b)
B. Paper violated the Code and Standards by claiming the performance of the entire fund as his own.
c)
C. Paper violated the Code and Standards by including the historical results of his prior employer.
22.
Upon receiving notification that he passed his Level III CFA exam, Paulo Garcia updates his educational background on his social media site by adding “completed the CFA course.” Does Garcia most likely violate the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, because it could imply he has obtained the charter.
c)
C. Yes, because he doesn’t describe the certification process.
23.
Albert Nyakenda, CFA, was driving to a client’s office where he was expected to close a multi-million-dollar deal when he was pulled over by a traffic policeman although he did not believe he had violated any traffic laws. When Nyakenda realized the policeman planned to wrongly ticket him for speeding, he offered to buy him “lunch” so that he could quickly get to his client’s office. The lunch would cost significantly more than the ticket. The alternative was to go to the police station and file a complaint of being wrongly accused that would also involve going to court the next day to present his case. Did Nyakenda most likely violate the CFA Code of Ethics?
a)
A. Yes.
b)
B. No, because he was wrongly accused.
c)
C. No, because the cost of lunch is more than the ticket.
24.
Lisa Hajak, CFA, specialized in research on real estate companies at Cornerstone Country Bank for the past twenty years. Hajak recently started her own investment research firm, Hajak Investment Advisory. One of her former clients at Cornerstone asks Hajak to update a research report she wrote on a real estate company when she was at Cornerstone. Hajak updates the report, which she had copied to her personal computer without the bank’s knowledge, and replaces references to the bank with her new firm, Hajak Investment Advisory. Hajak also incorporates the conclusions of a real estate study conducted by the Realtors Association that appeared in the Wall Street Journal. She references the Journal as her source in her report. She provides the revised report free of charge along with a cover letter for the bank’s client to become a client of her firm. Concerning the reissued research report, Hajak least likely violated the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct because she:
a)
A. solicited the bank’s client.
b)
B. did not obtain consent to use the bank report.
c)
C. did not cite the actual source of the real estate study.
25.
Madeline Smith, CFA, was recently promoted to senior portfolio manager. In her new position, Smith is required to supervise three portfolio managers. Smith asks for a copy of her firm’s written supervisory policies and procedures, but is advised that no such policies are required by regulatory standards in the country where Smith works. According to the Standards of Practice Handbook, Smith’s most appropriate course of action would be to:
a)
A. require her firm to adopt the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct.
b)
B. require the employees she supervises to adopt the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct.
c)
C. decline to accept supervisory responsibility until her firm adopts procedures to allow her to adequately exercise such responsibility.
26.
Specialized knowledge and skills, a commitment to serve others, and a shared code of ethics best characterize a(n):
a)
A. vocation.
b)
B. profession.
c)
C. occupation.
27.
Several years ago, Leo Peek, CFA, co-founded an investment club. The club is fully invested but has not actively traded its account for at least a year and does not plan to resume active trading of the account. Peek’s employer requires an annual disclosure of employee stock ownership. Peek discloses all of his personal trading accounts, but does not disclose his holdings in the investment club. Peek’s actions are least likely to be a violation of which of the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Misrepresentation
b)
B. Transaction priority
c)
C. Conflicts of interest
28.
The elasticity of demand for a good is most likely greater when:
a)
A. a lesser proportion of income is spent on the good.
b)
B. the good is a necessity.
c)
C. the adjustment to a price change takes a longer time.
29.
A company plans to hire additional factory employees. In the short run, marginal returns are most likely to decrease if:
a)
A. the factory is operating at full capacity.
b)
B. the factory is experiencing a labor shortage.
c)
C. workers are required to multitask and share duties.
30.
Assuming no changes in other variables, which of the following would decrease ROA?
a)
A. A decrease in the effective tax rate.
b)
B. A decrease in interest expense.
c)
C. An increase in average assets.
31.
a)
A. Cash ratio.
b)
B. Current ratio.
c)
C. Gross profit margin.
32.
A US company that complies with US GAAP would like to exclude some items in determining non-GAAP financial measures, other than EBIT and EBITDA. Which of the following items may be excluded?
a)
A. For performance measures, items tagged as infrequent that occurred within the past two years
b)
B. Impairment charges for long-lived assets
c)
C. For liquidity measures, litigation costs requiring cash settlement
33.
The conditional expected value of a random variable is best described as the:
a)
A. expected value of a random variable given an event or scenario
b)
B. probability-weighted average of the possible outcomes of the random variable
c)
C. weighted average of the probabilities of an event given all possible scenarios.
34.
a)
A. asset of $300,000,000.
b)
B. asset of $1,400,000,000.
c)
C. liability of $1,100,000,000.
35.
Oil Exploration LLC paid $45,000 in printing, legal fees, commissions, and other costs associated with its recent bond issue. It is most likely to record these costs on its financial statements as:
a)
A. an asset under US GAAP and reduction of the carrying value of the debt under IFRS.
b)
B. a liability under US GAAP and reduction of the carrying value of the debt under IFRS.
c)
C. a cash outflow from investing activities under both US GAAP and IFRS.
36.
The Austrian economic school attributes the primary cause of the business cycle to:
a)
A. misguided government intervention.
b)
B. the creative destruction of technological progress.
c)
C. sticky price and wage expectations that exaggerate trends.
37.
Which technique most likely increases the cash flow provided by operations?
a)
A. Stretching the accounts payable credit period
b)
B. Applying all non-cash discount amortization against interest capitalized
c)
C. Shifting classification of interest paid from financing to operating cash flows
38.
a)
A. 30-year fixed-rate loan
b)
B. 20-year fixed-rate loan
c)
C. 30-year ARM
39.
Which of the following components of the cash flow statement may be prepared under the indirect method under both IFRS and US GAAP?
a)
A. Operating.
b)
B. Investing.
c)
C. Financing.
40.
An increase in sample size is most likely to result in a:
a)
A. wider confidence interval.
b)
B. decrease in the standard error of the sample mean.
c)
C. lower likelihood of sampling from more than one population.
41.
For a distribution of 2,000 observations with finite variance, sample mean of 10.0%, and standard deviation of 4.0%, what is the minimum number of observations that will lie within 8.0% around the mean according to Chebyshev's Inequality?
a)
A. 720
b)
B. 1,500
c)
C. 1,680
42.
a)
A. €1.0175.
b)
B. €0.9575.
c)
C. €0.8375.
43.
a)
A. 21.1 and 20.6.
b)
B. 22.6 and 21.1.
c)
C. 22.8 and 20.8.
44.
a)
A. €2,110.
b)
B. €2,470.
c)
C. €2,590.
45.
a)
A. 33%
b)
B. 41%
c)
C. 59%
46.
Which of the following international trade organizations has a mission to help developing countries fight poverty and enhance environmentally sound economic growth?
a)
A. World Bank Group (World Bank).
b)
B. World Trade Organization (WTO).
c)
C. International Monetary Fund (IMF).
47.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the null hypothesis?
a)
A. It is considered to be true unless the sample provides evidence showing it is false.
b)
B. It can be stated as “not equal to” provided the alternative hypothesis is stated as “equal to.”
c)
C. In a two-tailed test, it is rejected when evidence supports equality between the hypothesized value and population parameter.
48.
A prolonged period of an official interest rate very close to zero without an increase in economic growth most likely suggests:
a)
A. quantitative easing must be limited to be successful.
b)
B. there may be limits to the effectiveness of monetary policy.
c)
C. targeting reserve levels is more important than targeting interest rates.
49.
A hypothesis test for a normally-distributed population at a 0.05 significance level implies a:
a)
A. 95% probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis.
b)
B. 95% probability of a Type I error for a two-tailed test.
c)
C. 5% critical value rejection region in a tail of the distribution for a one-tailed test.
50.
The probability of an event given that another event has occurred is a:
a)
A. joint probability.
b)
B. marginal probability.
c)
C. conditional probability.
51.
A random variable with a finite number of equally likely outcomes is best described by a:
a)
A. discrete uniform distribution.
b)
B. binomial distribution.
c)
C. continuous uniform distribution.
52.
The crowding-out effect is most likely associated with:
a)
A. falling real interest rates.
b)
B. decreasing government borrowing.
c)
C. increasing government borrowing.
53.
Assume the companies use a periodic inventory system. 
a)
A. 490
b)
B. 491
c)
C. 495
54.
A company that prepares its financial statements in accordance with International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) uses the revaluation model to value land. At the end of the current year, the value of land, newly acquired this year, has increased and will be adjusted on the balance sheet. This land is the only asset in its asset class for revaluation purposes. Which of the following statements is most accurate? In the current period, the revaluation of the land will:
a)
A. increase return on sales.
b)
B. decrease the debt-to-equity ratio.
c)
C. increase return on assets.
55.
Normal profit is best described as:
a)
A. zero economic profit.
b)
B. total revenue minus all explicit costs.
c)
C. the sum of accounting profit plus economic profit.
56.
A company has recorded an expense for interest costs that have not yet been paid as of the balance sheet date. On the balance sheet, they are best reported as:
a)
A. deferred expenses.
b)
B. accounts payable.
c)
C. accrued expenses.
57.
Which of the following disclosures regarding new accounting standards provides the most meaningful information to an analyst?
a)
A. The impact of adoption is discussed.
b)
B. The standard will have no material impact.
c)
C. Management is still evaluating the impact.
58.
The analytical tool that would be most appropriate for an analyst to use to identify the percentage of a company’s assets that are liquid is the:
a)
A. cash ratio.
b)
B. common-size balance sheet.
c)
C. current ratio.
59.
Which of the following descriptions of financial reporting is considered to be of the highest quality?
a)
A. Within GAAP but with earnings management
b)
B. Within GAAP but with biased choices
c)
C. Outside GAAP but with conservative choices
60.
a)
A. 106.2.
b)
B. 113.4.
c)
C. 106.8.
61.
A company that prepares its financial statements using IFRS wrote down its inventory value by €20,000 at the end of year 1. In year 2, prices increased and the same inventory at the end of the year was worth €30,000 more than its value at the end of the prior year. Which of the following statements is most accurate? In year 2, the company’s cost of sales:
a)
A. was unaffected.
b)
B. decreased by €30,000.
c)
C. decreased by €20,000.
62.
Previously, a manufacturer of high-quality industrial electrical generators only sold its units to customers, but it has just introduced a leasing program. The generators have expected useful lives of about 25 years, and the company anticipates that the leases will have a term of 20 years or more. If the company reports under International Financial Reporting Standards, which of the following statements about the first year of the new leasing program is most accurate? The company will recognize:
a)
A. revenue equal to the value of the leased asset.
b)
B. depreciation of the leased asset as an expense.
c)
C. cost of goods sold equal to the market value of the asset.
63.
For financial assets classified as trading securities, how are unrealized gains and losses reflected in shareholders’ equity?
a)
A. They are not recognized.
b)
B. They flow through income into retained earnings.
c)
C. They are a component of accumulated other comprehensive income.
64.
Which of the following situations will most likely motivate managers to inflate reported earnings?
a)
A. Possibility of bond covenant violation
b)
B. Earnings in excess of analysts’ forecasts
c)
C. Earnings that are greater than the previous year
65.
a)
A. Reject the null hypothesis.
b)
B. Do not reject the null hypothesis.
c)
C. Not enough information provided to answer.
66.
a)
A. 2,200.
b)
B. 2,500.
c)
C. 2,400.
67.
a)
A. 6.9%
b)
B. 7.14%
c)
C. 8.95%
68.
Over a four-year period, a portfolio has returns of 10%, −2%, 18%, and −12%. The geometric mean return across the period is closest to:
a)
A. 3.5%
b)
B. 8.1%
c)
C. 2.9%
69.
A fund manager reported a 2% mean quarterly return over the past ten years for its entire base of 250 client accounts that all follow the same investment strategy. A consultant employing the manager for 45 client accounts notes that their mean quarterly returns were 0.25% less over the same period. The consultant tests the hypothesis that the return disparity between the returns of his clients and the reported returns of the fund manager’s 250 client accounts are significantly different from zero.
a)
A. a paired comparisons t-test.
b)
B. a t-test of the difference between the two population means.
c)
C. an approximate t-test of mean differences between the two populations.
70.
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the p-value?
a)
A. It is a less precise measure of test evidence than rejection points.
b)
B. It is the largest level of significance at which the null hypothesis is rejected.
c)
C. It can be compared directly with the level of significance in reaching test conclusions.
71.
Under conditions of perfect competition, a company will break even when market price is equal to the minimum point of the:
a)
A. average total cost curve.
b)
B. average variable cost curve.
c)
C. short-run marginal cost curve.
72.
a)
A. 106.1.
b)
B. 105.4.
c)
C. 105.8.
73.
A call option on a stock index is valued using a three-step binomial tree with an up move that equals 1.05 and a down move that equals 0.95. The current level of the index is $190, and the option exercise price is $200. If the option value is positive when the stock price exceeds the exercise price at expiration and $0 otherwise, the number of terminal nodes with a positive payoff is:
a)
A. one.
b)
B. two.
c)
C. three.
74.
a)
A. €4.5 million charge to revaluation surplus and €2.0 million charge to net income
b)
B. €6.5 million charge to revaluation surplus
c)
C. €6.5 million charge to net income
75.
a)
A. 2.
b)
B. 3.
c)
C. 4.
76.
In the case of a normal good with a decrease in own price, which of the following statements is most likely true?
a)
A. Both the substitution and income effects lead to an increase in the quantity purchased.
b)
B. The substitution effect leads to an increase in the quantity purchased, while the income effect has no impact.
c)
C. The substitution effect leads to an increase in the quantity purchased, while the income effect leads to a decrease
77.
An agricultural firm operating in a perfectly competitive market supplies wheat to manufacturers of consumer food products and animal feeds. If the firm were able to expand its production and unit sales by 10% the most likely result would be:
a)
A. a 10% increase in total revenue.
b)
B. a 10% increase in average revenue.
c)
C. an increase in total revenue of less than 10%.
78.
Accounts payable are:
a)
A. amounts a company owes its vendors for purchase of goods and services.
b)
B. financial liabilities owed by a company through a formal loan agreement.
c)
C. reported in a different section of the balance sheet from notes payable due in one year.
79.
a)
A. accelerated depreciation.
b)
B. straight-line depreciation.
c)
C. units-of-production depreciation.
80.
For a small sample with unknown variance, which of the following tests of a hypothesis concerning the population mean is most appropriate?
a)
A. A t-test if the population is normally distributed
b)
B. A t-test if the population is non-normally distributed
c)
C. A z-test regardless of the normality of the population distribution
81.
In a simple economy with no foreign sector, the following equations apply:
a)
A. 5,000.
b)
B. 7,143.
c)
C. 5,845.
82.
Which of the following indicators is most appropriate in predicting a turning point in the economy?
a)
A. The Industrial Production Index
b)
B. The average bank prime lending rate
c)
C. Average weekly hours, manufacturing
83.
a)
A. The relative frequency of the interval “–1.0 to +2.0” is 20%.
b)
B. The relative frequency of the interval “+2.0 to +5.0” is 23%.
c)
C. The cumulative relative frequency of the interval “+5.0 to +8.0” is 91.7%.
84.
With regard to the data in Problem 6, what would be the most reasonable explanation of the financial data?
a)
A. The decline in the company’s equity results from a decline in the market value of this company’s common shares.
b)
B. The €250 increase in the company’s debt from FY3 to FY5 indicates that lenders are viewing the company as increasingly creditworthy.
c)
C. The decline in the company’s equity indicates that the company may be incurring losses, paying dividends greater than income, and/or repurchasing shares.
85.
Which of the following statements regarding the characteristics of money is correct?
a)
A. Compared to a barter economy, an economy in which money is the medium of exchange has more prices.
b)
B. Money as a medium of exchange depends on shared beliefs about its value.
c)
C. Money’s low value relative to its weight enhances wealth portability.
86.
The least likely goal of a government’s fiscal policy is to:
a)
A. redistribute income and wealth.
b)
B. influence aggregate national output.
c)
C. ensure the stability of the purchasing power of its currency.
87.
Which of the following statements regarding balance sheets is correct?
a)
A. Equity stated on the balance sheet fairly represents a company’s intrinsic value as of the reporting date.
b)
B. Important aspects of a company’s ability to generate future cash flows are absent from its balance sheet.
c)
C. On the reporting date, shareholders’ equity is adjusted to account for changes in expectations about future market conditions.
88.
Which of the following risk premiums is most relevant in explaining the difference in yields between 30-year bonds issued by the US Treasury and 30-year bonds issued by a small private issuer?
a)
A. Inflation
b)
B. Maturity
c)
C. Liquidity
89.
For financial assets classified as available for sale, how are unrealized gains and losses reflected in shareholders’ equity?
a)
A. They are not recognized.
b)
B. They flow through retained earnings.
c)
C. They are a component of accumulated other comprehensive income.
90.
a)
A. interest coverage ratio.
b)
B. fixed asset turnover ratio.
c)
C. interest coverage and fixed asset turnover ratios.