Free Printable Molecular Biology Exam Buster

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Worksheets

Molecular Biology Exam Buster

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name

Class

Date

1.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses:

1. Cells acquire intrinsic intracellular signaling that stimulates ____?

a)

a. apoptosis

b)

b. proliferation

c)

c. cell cycle arrest

d)

d. Recruitment of other cells

2.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses (6 Questions)

2. Cells become insensitive to signals that _____ growth

a)

a. Stimulate

b)

b. Induce

c)

c. Inhibit

d)

d. None of the above

3.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses (6 Questions)

3. Cells ____ programmed cell death

a)

a. Undergo

b)

b. induce other cells to undergo

c)

c. Initiate

d)

d. Evade

4.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses (6 Questions)

4. Cancer cells acquire limitless _____ potential

a)

a. Autoimmune

b)

b. Replicative

c)

c. Malignant

d)

d. Reactive

5.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses (6 Questions)

5. Cancer cells develop ways to nourish _____

a)

a. The Host to maintain concealment

b)

b. Immune Cells

c)

c. Themselves

d)

d. Camouflaging cells

6.

When summarizing the steps to cancer malignancy fill in the blanks with the appropriate responses (6 Questions)

6. Cancer cells acquire the ability to ____

a)

a. Invade and colonise other tissues

b)

b. Mutate other cells

c)

c. Phagocytose other cells

d)

d. Induce an inflammatory response

7.

7. Which of the following can result in DNA changes other than mutations?

a)

a. methylation

b)

b. histone mods

c)

c. miRNA

d)

d. all of the above

8.

8. If we wanted to clone a specific gene of interest which of the following are needed for effective expression? (Choose all that apply)

a)

a. Inducible system

b)

b. Strong Promoter

c)

c. Selection Pressure

d)

d.Bacteriophage

9.

Use the picture to answer the following (3) questions:

9. Chromatin Remodelling is best exhibited where?

a)

a. 1

b)

b. 3

c)

c. 4

d)

d. 5

10.

Use the picture above to answer the following (3) questions:

10. DNA Methyltransferases would most likely affect what part of the diagram?

a)

a. 2

b)

b. 3

c)

c. 4

d)

d. 5

11.

Use the picture above to answer the following (3) questions:

11. Where would Histone Acetyltransferase/Deacetylase likely operate?

a)

a. 1

b)

b. 2

c)

c. 4

d)

d. 5

12.

12. The primary stage at which gene expression in Eukaryotes is controlled is at what level?

a)

a. Transcription

b)

b. Translation

c)

c. Replication

d)

d. Syncopation

13.

Use the diagram below to answer the next 3 questions.

13. In reference to the given figure above what are the dark bands referred to as?

a)

a. Karyotypes

b)

b. genes

c)

c. Euchromatin

d)

d. Heterochromatin

14.

Use the diagram below to answer the next 3 questions.

14. What are the dark bands likely indicating?

a)

a. Centromeres, Telomeres, Interspersed DNA

b)

b. DNA Damage

c)

c. Genes

d)

d. Mutations

15.

Use the diagram below to answer the next 3 questions.

15. Euchromatin is likely:

a)

a. The most dense part of the Chromosome

b)

b. The most actively transcribed part of the chromosome

c)

c. The area where most splicing occurs

d)

d. All of the above

16.

16. In Arabidopsis; The FLD gene is responsible for what?

a)

a. Deacetylation of FLC locus

b)

b. Acetylation of the FLD locus

c)

c. Repression of Flowerinig

d)

d. Acetylation of FLC Locus

17.

17. DNA sequences that are transcribed include all of the following except:

a)

a. Structural Genes

b)

b. Regulatory Genes

c)

c. Regulatory Elements

d)

d. None of the above

18.

18. Operons contain all of the following except

a)

a. Promoter

b)

b. Structural genes

c)

c. Operator

d)

d. Regulatory genes

19.

19. A Negative inducible operon describes a system where

a)

a. Normally genes silenced as repressor binds to DNA. In presence of inducer gene in expressed.

b)

b. Normally genes silenced, expression requires the activator. Inducer allows activator to bind and genes expressed

c)

c. Normally genes expressed. Co-repressor allows repressor to bind and silence expression

d)

d. Normally genes are expressed as activator can bind DNA. Repressor inhibits activator binding and gene expression silenced

20.

20. In relation to the Lac operon allolactose acts as what?

a)

a. repressor

b)

b. inducer

c)

c. Activator

d)

d. Co-repressor

21.

21. Consider the partial diploid (lacI+ , P+ , O+ , lacZ+ , lacY - /lacI+ , P+ , OC , LacZ - , lacY + ). Under what conditions will this strain make permease?

a)

a. Only when lactose is present.

b)

b. Constitutively.

c)

c. Never.

d)

d. Only if CAP is present.

e)

e. Cannot be predicted.

22.

22. A promoter that affects only genes that are on the same piece of DNA is referred to as a ______-acting promoter.

a)

a. Cis.

b)

b. Trans.

c)

c. Enhancer.

d)

d. Positive.

e)

e. Negative.

23.

23. Which of the following statements about the Tet On system is FALSE?

a)

a. The transactivator is rtTA

b)

b. Doxycyline/tetracycline is added which allows the target genes to be transcribed.

c)

c. It can be used to determine gene function in transgenic mice.

d)

d. Doxycyline/tetracycline is removed which allows transcription of the target genes.

e)

e. Has a multimeric operator embedded within the promoter.

24.

24. Mutations relating to the Lac operon that affect transcription of the structural genes include all of the following except:

a)

a. Regulator Gene Mutations

b)

b. Operator Mutations

c)

c. Promoter Mutations

d)

d. Structural Gene Mutations

25.

25. Second level regulation or the Lac operon involving cyclic AMP and Catabolite Activator Protein (CAP) is what kind of control?

a)

a. Positive Inducible

b)

b. Negative Inducible

c)

c. Positive Repressible

d)

d. Negative Repressible

26.

26. Control of the Trp Operon is primarily

a)

a. Positive Inducible

b)

b. Negative Inducible

c)

c. Positive Repressible

d)

d. Negative Repressible

27.

27. A Temperate Phage is one that displays what?

a)

a. Only Lysogenic Phase

b)

b. Only Lytic Phase

c)

c. Both Lytic and Lysogenic Phases

d)

d. Mild Temperature

28.

28. What is the likely mutation if structural genes of the Lac operon are made in the presence of high Glucose concentration?

a)

a. Z-

b)

b. Y-

c)

c. $O^c$

d)

d. O+

29.

29. Promoter strength in prokaryotes is influenced by the -10 and -35 consensus sequences which are recognized by the holoenzyme.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

30. An Expression Vector differs from a cloning vector in that it contains:

a)

a. Origin of Replication

b)

b. Selectable Markers

c)

c. Multiple Cloning Site

d)

d. Genetic Elements for Transcription/Translation

31.

31. A prophage describes:

a)

a. The stage prior to Lysis of the bacteria

b)

b. A virus that infects bacteria

c)

c. When viral DNA merges with the host bacteria’s genome

d)

d. An early Bacteriophage

32.

32. Lac operon products of the structural genes are found in differing ratios (3000:1500:600) which indicates regulation beyond transcription including all except?

a)

a. Differing degradation rates

b)

b. Secondary structure formation affecting ribosomal movement

c)

c. Differing strengths of Start codons

d)

d. None of the above.

33.

33. In labs when working with the Lac operon IPTG is used instead of lactose as it is not consumed in the process making it more economical.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

34. Codons differ between Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes making bacterial translation of Eukaryotic mRNA problematic.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

35. A functional vector will include which of the following?

a)

a. Multiple Cloning Site

b)

b. Selectable Marker

c)

c. Origin of replication

d)

d. All of the Above

36.

36. Chromatin must be in _____ configuration for ______ to occur.

a)

a. Closed, Translation

b)

b. Open, Transcription

c)

c. Closed, Transcription

d)

d. Open, Translation

37.

37. Which of the following statements about histones is correct?

a)

a. Deacetylases neutralize Histones

b)

b. Positively charged histones become negatively charged by deacetylases

c)

c. Histone acetyltransferases neutralize positive histones

d)

d. Histone acetyltransferases positively charge histones

38.

38. Which of the following statements about Chromatin remodelling are incorrect?

a)

a. Histones are not chemically altered

b)

b. Involves repositioning of Histones/nucleosomes to reveal Transcription factor binding sites or promoters

c)

c. ATP dependent

d)

d. None of the above

39.

39. If a gene normally encodes for the creation of wings in an animal and when mutated leads to a wingless organism what would it be called?

a)

a. Winged

b)

b. Wingless

c)

c. Wingull

d)

d. None of the above

40.

40. What is the consequence of methylation of DNA sequences known as CpG islands?

a)

a. Active transcription

b)

b. Transcription repression

c)

c. Recruitment of chromatin-remodelling complex

d)

d. Transcriptional stalling

e)

e. Insulator sequence formation

41.

41. Which of the following statements about response elements is INCORRECT?

a)

a. A single eukaryotic gene is regulated by a single unique response element

b)

b. Response elements are composed of specific consensus sequences that are unique from one another

c)

c. Different genes can possess a common regulatory element upstream of their start site

d)

d. Multiple response elements allow the same gene to be activated by different stimuli

e)

e. Response elements allow complex biochemical responses in eukaryotic cells.

42.

42. DNA methylation typically:

a)

a. Will occur in the minor groove

b)

b. Attracts histone acetyltransferases

c)

c. Attracts regulatory proteins that repress transcription

d)

d. All of the above

43.

43. Extensively Methylated DNA can include all of the following except for:

a)

a. Barr Bodies

b)

b. Telomeres

c)

c. Centromeres

d)

d. Highly transcribed Promoters

44.

44. Basal Transcription factors will initiate transcription while regulatory Transcription factors influence the rate.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

45. Which of the following DNA binding domains will bind via protein-protein interactions?

a)

a. Helix-Turn-Helix

b)

b. Zinc Fingers

c)

c. Leucine Zipper

d)

d. Both a and b

46.

46. VSG Genes in the Active expression site of Trypanosomes are retained in the genome when replaced by new ones in a process called?

a)

a. Insertional Copying

b)

b. Crossing-Over

c)

c. Silencing

d)

d. None of the above

47.

47. Regulatory Transcription Factors bind to what:

a)

a. Regulatory Promoter

b)

b. Enhancers

c)

c. Silencers

d)

d. All of the above.

48.

48. Enhancers and silencers exist directly upstream of the gene they affect.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

49. Transcriptional Repressors inhibit transcription in which of the following ways (select all that apply)

a)

a. Compete with TAP for binding sites

b)

b. Prevent activator from contacting basal transcription apparatus

c)

c. Interfere with basal transcription apparatus assembly

d)

d. None of the above

50.

50. Boundary elements are also known as?

a)

a. Insulators

b)

b. Promoters

c)

c. Caps

d)

d. All of the Above

51.

51. siRNAs and miRNAs are produced by the:

a)

a. Cleavage of RISCs by endonucleases

b)

b. Cutting and processing of double-stranded RNA by Dicer enzymes

c)

c. Cleavage of functional mRNA within the cytoplasm

d)

d. Cutting and processing of double-stranded RNA by Drosha enzymes

e)

e. Cleavage of pre-mRNA in the nucleus

52.

52. The control in the above picture is indicated by:

a)

a. EGFR

b)

b. 10.5 kb

c)

c. 5.8 kb

d)

d. 7S

53.

53. Assume the above Blot is in control. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

a)

a. Cancer increases expression of both EGF and TGF-alpha

b)

b. In most normal cases TGF-alpha will be expressed at a higher rate than in cancer

c)

c. TGF-alpha expression is highly varied in Cancer

d)

d. All of the Above.

54.

54. A researcher wants to investigate changes in phosphorylation states between healthy and cancer states. What would be the best technique to use?

a)

a. RNA-seq

b)

b. Western Blot

c)

c. Proteomics by Mass-Spec

d)

d. 2D gel electrophoresis

55.

55. 2D gel electrophoresis separates proteins based on

a)

a. pH and Charge

b)

b. Shape and Size

c)

c. Isoelectric Point and Size

d)

d. Charge and Phosphorylation state

56.

56. If we assumed the protein denoted by 24 was a control could we say that the Gel on the right (F) was in control?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Inconclusive

57.

57. If we assumed proteins 17, 18, and 19 in the Gel on the left (E) were controls could we say Gel F was in control?

a)

a. Yes

b)

b. No

c)

c. Inconclusive

58.

58. If we take Gel E as a normal state and Gel F as a disease state what can we conclude?

a)

a. Protein 29 is phosphorylated in disease states

b)

b. Protein 20 is unphosphorylated in disease states

c)

c. Protein 31 is phosphorylated in disease states

d)

d. both b and c

59.

59. In a western blot probes are usually what?

a)

a. Antibodies

b)

b. Ribozymes

c)

c. Vectors

d)

d. Isotopes

60.

60. In Northern blotting a typical chemical used to stain is?

a)

a. Coomassie Blue

b)

b. SDS

c)

c. IPTG

d)

d. Ethidium Bromide

61.

61. In western blotting Sodium Dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is used to?

a)

a. Visualise proteins via staining

b)

b. Denature and positively charge proteins

c)

c. Denature and negatively charge proteins

d)

d. both a and c

62.

62. When performing qRT-PCR which of the following components are not needed?

a)

a. Gene specific Primers

b)

b. RNA Polymerase

c)

c. Fluorescent dye to quantify amplification

d)

d. Reverse transcriptase

e)

e. None of the above

63.

63. Proteomics involves the assessment of thousands of proteins simultaneously through the process of?

a)

a. Mass Effect

b)

b. Mass Spectrometry

c)

c. Mass Spectrophotometry

d)

d. Genomics

64.

64. Gene expression of sample 12082X1 is most closely related to?

a)

a. 1208X6

b)

b. 1208X3

c)

c. 1208X7

d)

d. 1208X8

65.

65. Which of the following is upregulated the most in the control group?

a)

a. KLKP1

b)

b. GANAB

c)

c. VCAN

d)

d. MIB2

66.

66. To terminate transcription of a gene, a repressor protein must bind to the:

a)

a. Terminator sequence

b)

b. Silencer

c)

c. Operator

d)

d. Operon

e)

e. none of the above

67.

67. Which of the following statements apply when Complementary DNA hybridizes to eukaryotic mRNA?

a)

a. It disproves the principle of collinearity

b)

b. It forms Lariats

c)

c. It forms loops of transcribed but not translated genetic material.

d)

d. All of the above

e)

e. a and c only.

68.

The image above illustrates when a strand of eukaryotic mRNA is hybridized to cDNA. Answer the following three questions in relation to the image.

68. A, B, C, and D indicate what?

a)

a. genomic DNA removed from the transcript

b)

b. exons

c)

c. t-RNA

d)

d. none of the above

69.

69. How many exons are in the above transcript?

a)

a. 4

b)

b. 5

c)

c. 6

d)

Unknown

70.

70. This image demonstrates a counterexample to the principle of co-linearity.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

71. tRNA is modified post-transcriptionally in all of the following ways except for?

a)

a. enzymatic base modification

b)

b. 3’ Nucleotide addition

c)

c. Splicing

d)

d. Ligating two precursor components

e)

e. All of the above

72.

72. Ribonuclease P possesses the ability to catalyse cleavage in what substrate?

a)

a. tRNA

b)

b. miRNA

c)

c. siRNA

d)

d. snoRNA

73.

73. Which of the following statements apply to Ribozymes

a)

a. They are less versatile than proteins

b)

b. include three classes: Ribonuclease, Self-cleaving RNA, Self-splicing introns

c)

c. can act on themselves or other substrates

d)

d. All of the above

e)

e. A and b only

74.

74. Introns featuring group 2 style self-splicing involving formation of an Adenosine lariat are found in all of the following except?

a)

a. Bacteria

b)

b. Archaea

c)

c. Eukaryotic Organelles

d)

d. Bacteriophages

75.

75. ribosomal RNA undergoes Methylation, Cleavage, and Assembly in Eukaryotes by which of the following?

a)

a. snRNA

b)

b. snoRNA

c)

c. siRNA

d)

d. crRNA

76.

76. High throughput sequencing includes the following except for?

a)

a. Ion Torrent

b)

b. Pyrosequencing

c)

c. Illumina

d)

d. Sanger

77.

77. In the following list of cloned fragments, the fragments needed to make the longest possible contig, with the least amount of overlap, are :

Fragment A: M3, M4, M5, M6

Fragment B: M8, M9, M10

Fragment C: M1, M2, M3

Fragment D: M3, M4, M5

Fragment E: M4, M5

Fragment F: M6, M7, M8

a)

a. C, E, F, B

b)

b. A, F, B

c)

c. C, A, F, B

d)

d. C, E, F

78.

78. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

a. DNA sequence is more conserved than protein structure

b)

b. A base change that is detrimental for selective pressures is less likely to stick around

c)

c. Conserved bases indicate importance of the gene

d)

d. Proteins involved in metabolic processes feature highly varied and rapidly evolving sequences to adapt to constant pressures.

e)

e. Both c and d

79.

Use the BLOSUM62 Table above to answer the following three questions.

79. Which of the following Amino Acid substitutions is more likely to occur in the following sequence Asp-Cys-His-Glu-Gly?

a)

a. Cys -> Leu

b)

b. Asp -> Ser

c)

c. His -> Pro

d)

d. Glu ->Lys

80.

80. Phenylalanine will most likely be substituted for?

a)

a. Tyr

b)

b. Pro

c)

c. Met

d)

d. Trp

81.

81. Consider the sequence Gly-Lys-Leu-Phe-Pro. Which of the following alignments is most likely to occur?

a)

a. Gly-Lys-Gly-Phe-Pro

b)

b. Gly-Ser-Leu-Phe-Pro

c)

c. Gly-Lys-Leu-Tyr-Pro

d)

d. Gly-Lys-Leu-Phe-Asp

82.

82. Given the table above, what statement is correct?

a)

a. 6.25 times higher risk of disease if allele A is present

b)

b. 6.25 times higher risk of disease if allele A is absent

c)

c. 16% less risk of disease of allele A is present

d)

d. No correlation between allele A and disease

83.

83. The most significant development in the progression of a malignant cancer is?

a)

a. Accumulation of passenger mutations

b)

b. Autoimmunity

c)

c. Angiogenesis

d)

d. Apoptosis

84.

84. Which of the following statements are false?

a)

a. Cancer is a spectrum of genetic disease

b)

b. Metastasis is the most significant development towards a cancer becoming terminal

c)

c. The majority of Cancers are sporadic

d)

d. The most difficult Cancers to treat have the most passenger mutations

85.

85. A proto-oncogene…

a)

a. Is a set of introns that when mutated drive tumour development

b)

b. Exists as a failsafe to ensure oncogenes do not form in the genome

c)

c. Is a normal gene encoding cell cycle progression

d)

d. Is only found in bacteria

86.

86. Which of the following are paired incorrectly?

a)

a. p53 – Cellular Damage

b)

b. p21 – Cell cycle arrest

c)

c. BAX – Apoptosis

d)

d. Ras – Tumour Supression

87.

87. C-myc translocation to a chromosomal region of high transcriptional activity in immune cells of the body results in?

a)

a. Retinoblastoma

b)

b. Burkitt’s Lymphoma

c)

c. Epstein Barr

d)

d. Chromic Myelogeous Leukaemia

88.

88. Knudson’s two hit hypothesis regarding tumour progression states that:

a)

a. For a tumour to be initiated it must suffer the loss or inactivation of two separate tumour suppressor genes

b)

b. For a tumour to be initiated it must accumulate activating mutations in both alleles of the same tumour-suppressor gene

c)

c. For a tumour to be initiated it must suffer the loss or inactivation of both alleles of the same tumour suppressor gene

d)

d. For a tumour to be initiated it must accumulate activating mutations in the two alleles of the same oncogene

e)

e. options A and D are correct

89.

89. Knudson’s two hit hypothesis is true except in the case of?

a)

a. Oncogenes

b)

b. Haploinsufficiency

c)

c. Loss of heterozygosity

d)

d. All of the Above

e)

e. a and b only

90.

90. Sporadic Bilateral retinoblastoma is an impossibility.

a)

True

b)

False

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