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PC Diuretics

Total questions: 55

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which hormones are secreted by the kidneys?

a)

erythropoietin

b)

calcitriol

c)

renin

d)

vasopressin

2.

How do diuretics work?

a)

act directly on the transporters on the tubular epithelial cells to inhibit renal reabsorption of ions, therefore water

b)

encourage kidneys to excrete excess fluid by adding ions that cannot be reabsorbed

3.

How can diuretics improve nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?

a)

diuretics create mild hypovolemia encouraging salt and water uptake in the proximal tubule

b)

stops kidney overload by excreting fluid, thus making urine less dilute

4.

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors work where in the kidney?

a)

PCT

b)

Loop Henle

c)

DCT

d)

collecting ducts

5.

Osmotic diuretics work where in the kidney?

a)

PCT

b)

Loop Henle

c)

collecting ducts

d)

DCT

6.

Thiazide diuretics work where in the kidney?

a)

PCT

b)

Loop Henle

c)

DCT

d)

collecting ducts

7.

Loop diuretics work where in the kidney?

a)

Loop Henle

b)

PCT

c)

DCT

d)

collecting ducts

8.

Potassium-sparing diuretics work where in the kidney?

a)

collecting ducts

b)

DCT

c)

Loop Henle

d)

PCT

9.

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors inhibit the reuptake of what in the PCT?

a)

HCO3-

b)

Na+ and Cl-

c)

Na+ and secretion of K+

d)

Na+/K+/Cl-

10.

Loop diuretics inhibit the reabsorption of what in the Henle Loop?

a)

Na+/K+/Cl- resulting in retention of Na+, Cl- and water in the tubule

b)

HCO3-

c)

Na+ and Cl- in the distal tubule resulting in retention of water

d)

aldosterone-mediated reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+

11.

Thiazide diuretics inhibit reabsorption of what in distal tubule resulting in retention of water?

a)

Na+ and Cl-

b)

HCO3-

c)

Na+/K+/Cl-

d)

Na+ and secretion of K+

12.

Aldosterone antagonists inhibit the aldosterone-mediated reabsorption of what in the collecting duct?

a)

Na+ and secretion of K+

b)

HCO3-

c)

Na+/K+/Cl-

d)

Na+ and Cl-

13.

Which kind of channels do amiloride and triamterene block?

a)

K+

b)

Na+

14.

Methylxanthenes (theobromine, caffeine, theophylline) are rarely used as diuretics, but they do have mild diuretic effects. What do they increase?

a)

HR, therefore GFR

b)

urine output

15.

The functions of the kidney include?

a)

water balance

b)

electrolyte balance

c)

plasma volume balance

d)

all of em

16.

All of the following are functions of the kidney, EXCEPT:

a)

renin secretion

b)

albumin secretion

c)

acid-base balance

d)

osmolarity balance

17.

Diuretics act on the kidney to:

a)

increase the rate of urine formation

b)

decrease the rate of urine formation

c)

increase plasma volume

d)

none of them

18.

Which of the following are general uses of diuretics?

a)

renal disease

b)

HTN

c)

liver cirrhosis

d)

all of them

19.

Which of the following are general uses of diuretics?

a)

nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

b)

glaucoma

c)

orthostatic HTN

d)

both nephrogenic DI and glaucoma

20.

Which of the following is not clinically used as diuretics due to its mild effect?

a)

HCTZ

b)

mannitol

c)

caffeine

d)

none of them

21.

Which of the following classes of diuretics induces its effect mainly at the loop of henle?

a)

osmotic diuretics

b)

high ceiling diuretics

c)

methylxanthenes

d)

all of them

22.

Which of the following diuretics targets the distal convoluted tubule?

a)

acetazolamide

b)

osmotic diuretics

c)

furosemide

d)

indapamide

23.

Which of the following inhibits reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- in the distal tubule?

a)

metolazone

b)

furosemide

c)

acetazolamide

d)

spironolactone

24.

Which of the following is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which inhibits the reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal convoluted tubule?

a)

indapamide

b)

bumetanide

c)

furosemide

d)

acetazolamide

25.

Which of the following drugs act on the distal convoluted tubule?

a)

dichlorphenamide

b)

chlorthalidone

c)

furosemide

d)

spironolactone

26.

Which of the following is among the most commonly used diuretics?

a)

eplerenone

b)

acetazolamide

c)

HCTZ

d)

furosemide

27.

Which of the following statements is/are true regarding methylxanthenes?

a)

increase heart rate

b)

decrease GFR

c)

have mild diuretic effects

d)

caffeine is a methylxanthene

28.

Osmotic diuretics:

I. inhibit renin release

II. Decrease calcium excretion

III. Inhibit angiotensin II formation

a)

I only

b)

I & III

c)

I & II

d)

II & III

29.

Which of the following diuretics is used as inhalation powder for management of cystic fibrosis?

a)

acetazolamide

b)

bumetanide

c)

mannitol

d)

ethacrynic acid

30.

Which of the following is NOT an indication of Mannitol?

a)

oliguria

b)

cystic fibrosis

c)

hypercalcemia

d)

high intraocular pressure

31.

Which of the following is a black box warning for Mannitol?

a)

should not be used with anti arrhythmic drugs or digoxin

b)

can cause hyperkalemia, which if uncorrected is potentially fatal

c)

acts as a bronchoconstrictor and causes severe bronchospasms

d)

can cause severe dehydration and postural hypotension

32.

Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of the osmotic diuretic glycerol?

a)

increased extracellular fluid leading to pulmonary edema in CHF patients

b)

glycerol metabolism leading to hyperglycemia

c)

glycerol metabolism leading to glycosuria

d)

hypercalcemia

33.

One of the main adverse effects of taking acetazolamide in high doses is the possibility of developing metabolic acidosis, which of the following is true?

a)

increasing bicarbonate reabsorption by acetazolamide contributes to metabolic acidosis

b)

acetazolamide will decrease bicarbonate excretion

c)

acetazolamide inhibits the carbonic anhydrase enzyme and prevents bicarbonate reabsorption

d)

acetazolamide does not induce metabolic acidosis

34.

What is dichlorphenamide indicated for?

a)

edema

b)

epilepsy

c)

HTN

d)

glaucoma

35.

Which of the following is NOT a diuretic?

a)

indapamide

b)

HCTZ

c)

metolazone

d)

methazolamide

36.

The depletion of which compounds provide the basis of thiazide diuretics antihypertensive effect?

a)

sodium and water

b)

sodium and chloride

c)

chloride and potassium

d)

potassium and water

37.

What is the MOA of thiazide diuretics?

a)

increase the excretion of sodium and chloride

b)

inhibit the reabsorption of sodium and chloride

c)

increase the excretion of potassium

d)

inhibit the reabsorption of potassium

38.

Which of the following does NOT happen with a thiazide diuretic?

a)

calcium excretion is reduced

b)

urine volume is decreased

c)

sodium excretion is increased

d)

potassium excretion is increased

39.

Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are serious adverse events caused by which drug?

a)

HCTZ

b)

amiloride

c)

spironolactone

d)

triamterene

40.

Which of the following is an adverse effect caused by indapamide and metolazone?

a)

toxic epidermal necrosis

b)

aplastic anemia

c)

Stevens-Johnson syndrome

d)

all of these

41.

What is a contraindication of thiazide diuretics?

a)

HTN

b)

anuria

c)

edema

d)

cystic fibrosis

42.

Loop diuretics include:

a)

furosemide, cyclosporine, bumetanide, calcitonin

b)

torsemide, furosemide, doxycycline, cyclosporine

c)

furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid

d)

chlorthalidone, hctz, indapamide, metolazone

43.

What is the MOA of furosemide?

a)

inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule

b)

inhibits the Na/K/2Cl co-transporter in the ascending loop of henle

c)

inhibits the Na/Cl symporter in the distal convoluted tubule

d)

inhibits the binding of aldosterone to the renal mineralocorticoid receptor

44.

Which of the following is not a clinical indication of loop diuretics?

a)

edema due to CHF

b)

acute heart failure with pulmonary edema

c)

hypocalcemia

d)

none of these

45.

Which of the following is not an adverse effect of loop diuretics?

a)

hypokalemia

b)

orthostatic htn

c)

hypouricemia

d)

hyponatremia

e)

hypoglycemia

46.

In contrast to thiazide diuretics, high-ceiling (loop) diuretics induce?

a)

hypercalcemia

b)

hypocalcemia

c)

hypomagnesemia

d)

hypophosphatemia

47.

Loop diuretics can cause ototoxicity especially when given

a)

by IM injection

b)

orally

c)

rapidly by IV bolus

d)

none of these

48.

Which of the following is not a potassium-sparing diuretic?

a)

spironolactone

b)

amiloride

c)

furosemide

d)

triamterene

49.

Triamterene and amiloride block Na channels mainly in the

a)

distal convoluted tubule

b)

loop of henle

c)

proximal convoluted tubule

d)

collecting duct

50.

Which of the following is an aldosterone antagonist diuretic?

a)

spironolactone

b)

amiloride

c)

acetaminophen

d)

triamterene

51.

Which of the following drugs may cause gynecomastia and erectile dysfunction?

a)

acetazolamide

b)

furosemide

c)

spironolactone

d)

triamterene

52.

Which drug is a more selective antagonist to mineralocorticoid receptors relative to glucocorticoid and androgen receptors?

a)

spironolactone

b)

eplerenone

c)

amiloride

d)

furosemide

53.

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for spironolactone?

a)

concurrent use with eplerenone

b)

htn

c)

addison's disease

d)

hyperkalemia

54.

What is the black box warning for amiloride/triamterene?

a)

may cause suicidality

b)

may cause neutropenia

c)

may cause hyperkalemia

d)

may cause hyperglycemia

55.

Which of the following is associated with the use of triamterene?

a)

increased sodium excretion

b)

decreased potassium excretion

c)

decreased calcium excretion

d)

increased plasma volume

e)

hypernatremia

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