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WorksheetsProfEd - Assessment of Learning
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 52mins
1. Which of the following is a precise meaning of evaluation?
A.
Collecting data relevant to personal characteristics
B.
Administering teacher-made tests
C.
Interpreting and attaching value to data collected
D.
Scoring accomplished tests
2. After discussing verbs, Ms. Shein gave a short quiz to find out how well students have understood the lesson. What type of assessment was done?
A. Summative Assessment
B. Formative Assessment
C. Diagnostic Test
D. Placement Test
3. Assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher ___________.
A.
Considers students’ suggestions in testing
B.
Gives valid and reliable paper-pencil test
C.
Includes parents in the determination of assessment procedures
D.
Gives students real-life tasks to accomplish
4. A quiz is classified as a:
A. Diagnostic test
B. Formative test
C. Summative test
D. Placement test
5. To evaluate teaching skills, which is the most authentic tool?
A.
Observation
B.
Non-restricted essay test
C.
Short answer test
D.
Essay test
6. Which is not a characteristic of authentic assessment?
A.
Is focused on lifelike, meaningful, relevant types of student learning
B.
Offers opportunities to study problem intensively
C.
Easy to complete
D.
Fruitful in terms of genuine learning
7. Which of the following are alternative assessments?
A.
Portfolio, exhibits, journals
B.
Paper and pencil test, demonstration, reports
C.
Student self-assessment, authentic assessment, surveys
D.
Multiple choice, structured observations, sentence completion
8. In the context on the theory on multiple intelligences, what is one weakness of the paper-pencil test?
A.
It is not easy to administer.
B.
It puts the non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage
C.
It utilizes so much time.
D.
It lacks reliability.
9. Which of the following is considered the most important characteristic of a good test?
A. Administrability
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Usability
10. The instructions for a test are made simple, clear and concise. This is part of which of the following characteristics of a good test?
A. Objectivity
B. Economy
C. Administrability
D. Scorability
11. Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of the instrument. Which method is questioned for light reliability due to practice and familiarity?
A. Split half
B. Equivalent forms
C. Test retest
D. Kuder Richardson
12. The teacher wanted to teach the pupils the skill of cross stitching. Her check-up quiz was a written test on the steps of cross stitching. What characteristic of a good test does it lack?
A.
Validity
B.
Reliability
C.
Administrability
D.
Scorability
13. If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses ________ validity
A. Concurrent
B. Construct
C. Content
D. Predictive
14. If all the passers of 2015 Licensure Examination for Teachers will turn out to be the most effective in the Philippine school system, it can be said that this LET possesses ______________ validity.
A. Construct
B. Predictive
C. Content
D. Concurrent
15. The use of a table specification assures the teacher and pupils of a test with?
A. Face Validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Constructive validity
D. Content validity
16. Which statement holds true about grades?
A. Grades are exact measurements of intelligence and achievement
B. Grade is necessarily a measure of a student’s intelligence
C. Grades are intrinsic motivators for learning
D. Grades are a measure of achievement
17. In the parlance of test construction, what does TOS mean?
A. Team of Specifications
B. Table of Specifics
C. Table of Specifications
D. Terms of Specifications
18. The first thing to do in constructing a periodic test is for a teacher to
A. Study the content
B. Go back to her instructional objective
C. Decide on the number of items for the test
D. Decide on the type of test to construct
19. Teacher Panny gave a test in grammar. She found out that one half of the class scored very low. She plans to give another test to the pupils who scored very low to find out exactly where they are weak. Which type of test is this?
A. Achievement test
B. Diagnostic test
C. Placement test
D. Intelligent test
20. With the mode of answering as point of reference, which of the following types of test does not belong to the group?
A. Problem solving
B. Completion
C. Matching
D. Essay
21. Which test will the Guidance Office of the school give if it wants to help students in predicting their probable success in specific educational and vocational fields?
A. Diagnostic test
B. Summative test
C. Placement test
D. Aptitude test
22. To have a test with a coverage and with power to test analytical thinking and case scoring? Which type should the teacher use?
A. Alternative response
B. Short answer
C. Completion
D. Multiple choice
23. A teacher would use a standardized test to:
A. Serve as a unit test
B. Engage in easy scoring
C. Compare her students to national norms
D. Serve as a final examination
24. For mastery learning which type of testing will be most fit?
A. Norm-referenced testing
B. Criterion-referenced testing
C. Formative testing
D. Aptitude testing
25. NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT fall under
A. Intelligence test
B. Aptitude test
C. Criterion-referenced test
D. Norm-referenced test
26. The teacher is engaged in a criterion-reference interpretation of scores. Which of the following does she do?
A. She uses a specified population of persons as its interpretative frame of reference.
B. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the clearly-defined learning task.
C. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the performance of the age group of the student
D. She compares every individual student performance with the performance of the rest.
27. In a criterion-referenced testing, what must you do to ensure that your test is fair?
A. Make all of the questions true or false.
B. Ask each student to contribute one question.
C. Make twenty questions but ask the students to answer only ten of their choice.
D. Use the objectives for the units as guide in your test construction.
28. Which will be the most authentic assessment tool for an instructional objective on working with and relating to people?
A. Writing articles on working and relating to people
B. Organizing a community project
C. Home visitation
D. Conducting mock election
29. In group norming, the percentile rank of the examinee is
A. Dependent on his batch of examinees.
B. Independent on his batch of examinees.
C. Unaffected by skewed distribution.
D. Affected by skewed distribution.
30. Marking on a normative basis means that ___________.
A. The normal curve of distribution should be followed
B. The symbols used in grading indicate how a student achieved relative to other students
C. Some get high marks
D. Some are expected to fail
31. If teacher wants to test student’s ability to organize ideas, which type of test should she formulate?
A. Technical problem type
B. Short answer
C. Multiple-Choice type
D. Essay
32. The teacher wants to diagnose in which vowel sound(s) her students have difficulty. Which tool is most appropriate?
A. Portfolio assessment
B. Journal entry
C. Performance test
D. Paper-and-pencil test
33. If all your students in your class passed the pretest, what should you do?
A. Administer the posttest.
B. Go through the lesson quickly in order not to skip any.
C. Go on to the next unit.
D. Go through the unit as usual because it is part of the syllabus.
34. In test construction, what does TOS mean?
A. Table of Specifications
B. Table of Specifics
C. Table of Specific Test Items
D. Terms of Specification
35. HERE IS A COMPLETION TEST ITEM: THE _______ IS OBTAINED BY DIVIDING THE ________ BY THE________.
The rule in completion test item construction violated is
A. Avoid over mutilated statements
B. Avoid grammatical clues to the answer
C. Avoid infinite statements
D. The required response should be a single word or a brief phrase
36. Which improvement(s) should be done on this completion test item:
An example of a mammal is ___________.
A. The question should have only one acceptable answer.
B. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentences.
C. The item should give more cues.
D. The blank should be longer to accommodate all possible answers.
37. Teacher Kevin constructed a matching type test. In his columns of items are a combination of events, people, circumstances. Which of the following guidelines in constructing matching type of test did he VIOLATE?
A. List options in an alphabetical order.
B. Make list of items homogeneous.
C. Make a list of items heterogeneous.
D. Provide three or more options.
38. Out of 3 distracters in a multiple choice test item, namely B, C and D no pupil chose D as an answer. This implies that D is:
A. An ineffective distracter
B. A vague distracter
C. A plausible distracter
D. An effective distracter
39. What is incorrect with this test item?
The Philippines
A. is in Southeast Asia.
B. has a democratic form of government.
C. belongs to the Third World.
D. is the most thickly populated in Southeast Asia.
I. The stem does not contain the question.
II. The stem is very short.
III. It has several correct answers.
A. I only
B. II only
C. III
D. I and III
40. The instructional objective is: “To distinguish between proper and improper fraction.” Which is a valid test item for such objective?
A. Define proper and improper fractions.
B. Put a check (⁄) on the proper fractions and an X over the improper: ½, 4/3, ¾. 5/6, 7/8, 9/7, 2/10 and 6/12.
C. Is an improper fraction really a fraction? Explain your answer.
D. Can you add proper and improper fractions together? Explain.
41. Teacher Oliver administered only true-false and multiple choice tests during the midterm. The students did well on these tests. He decides to make the final exam consists of five essay questions. Which of the following is the most likely effect of this decision?
A. The students will do better than they had in the previous test.
B. The students will not do as well as in the previous test.
C. There will be no correlation between the final and the midterm tests.
D. The students will do as well as in the previous test.
42. Which of the following is a restricted essay test?
A. What should the Department of Education do to solve the perennial problems of poor quality of basic education? Give and justify your proposals.
B. If you were president of the Philippines, what would you do to spur the nation’s economic growth?
C. What conditions must be present for photosynthesis to take place? Explain each factor in not more than three sentences.
D. Why are more and more people sick of Alzheimer’s disease?
43. Which one describes the percentile rank of a given score?
A. The percent of cases of a distribution below and above a given score
B. The percent of cases of a distribution below the given score
C. The percent of cases of a distribution above the given score.
D. The percent of cases of a distribution within the given score
44. Q1 is 25th percentile as median is to
A. 40th percentile
B. 60th percentile
C. 50th percentile
D. 75th percentile
45. Ruben scored 60 on a percentile-ranked test. This means that:
A. Ruben got 60% of the question wrong
B. 60% of the students who took the test scored higher than Ruben.
C. 60% of the students who took the test scored lower than Ruben.
D. Ruben got 60% of the questions right.
46. Tom’s raw score in the Filipino class is 23 which is equal to the 70th percentile. What does this imply?
A. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score lower than 23.
B. Tom’s score is higher than 23% of his classmates.
C. 70% of Tom’s classmates got a score above 23
D. Tom’s score is higher than 23 of his classmates.
47. In an entrance examination, Leomara’s Percentile is 25 (P25). Based on this Percentile rank, which is likely to happen?
A. Leomara will be admitted.
B. Leomara has 50-50 percent chance to be admitted.
C. Leomara will not be admitted.
D. Leomara has 75 percent chance to be admitted.
48. Which measure(s) of central tendency can be determined by mere inspection?
A. Mode and Median
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Mean
49. Which of the following measures is most affected by an extreme score?
A. Mode and Median
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Mean
50. Here are the computed means of a hundred-item test: Physical Science – 38; Math – 52, English – 33. Based on the data, which is true?
A. The Math test appears to be the easiest among the three.
B. The examinees seem to be very good in Physical Science.
C. The examinees seem to excel in English
D. The English test appears to be the easiest among the three.
51. The mode of a score distribution is 25. This means that
A. Twenty-five is the score that occurs least.
B. Twenty-five is the score that occurs most.
C. Twenty-five is the average of the score distribution.
D. There is no score of 25.
52. If the computed range is low, this means that ___________.
A. The students performed very well in the test.
B. The difference between the highest and the lowest score is high.
C. The students performed very poorly in the test.
D. The difference between the highest and the lowest score is low.
53. Here are the raw scores of the students in their quiz: 97, 95, 85, 83, 77, 75, 50, 10, 5, 2, 1. Which is the median?
A. 75
B. 52.72
C. 76
D. 77
54. The computed r for English and Math scores is -.75. What does this mean?
A. The higher the scores in English, the higher the scores in Math.
B. The scores in Math and English do not have any relationship.
C. The higher the scores in Math, the lower the scores in English.
D. The lower the scores in English, the lower the scores in Math.
55. In a grade distribution, what does the normal curve mean?
A. All students have average grades.
B. A large number of students have high grades and very few with low grades.
C. A large number of more or less average students and very few students receive low and high grades.
D. A large number of students receive low grades and very few students get high grades..
56. Which score distribution shows the scores in a very narrow range?
A. Mesokurtic
B. Platykurtic
C. Left-skewed
D. Leptokurtic
57. A class is composed of academically poor students. The distribution would be most likely to be:
A. Skewed to the right
B. Leptokurtic
C. A bell curve
D. Skewed to the left
58. The distribution of scores in a Chemistry examination is drawn and found to be positively skewed. This means that
A. The scores are all above the mean
B. There is a lumping of scores at the right side of the curve.
C. The scores are all below the mean.
D. There is a lumping of scores at the left side of the curve.
59. What does a negatively skewed score distribution imply?
A. The scores congregate on the left side of the normal distribution curve.
B. The scores are widespread.
C. The students must be academically poor.
D. The scores congregate on the right side of the normal distribution curve.
60. Which is true when the standard deviation is big?
A. Scores are concentrated.
B. Scores are spread apart.
C. Scores are not extremes.
D. The bell curve shape is steep.
61. Which group of scores is most varied? The group with ______.
A. 0.90 SD
B. 0.50 SD
C. 0.10 SD
D. 0.75 SD
62. A number of test items are said to be non-discriminating? What conclusion(s) can be drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could get it.
A. II only
B. I and II
C. III only
D. II and III
63. A negative discrimination index means that:
A. The test item has low reliability
B. The test item could not discriminate between the lower and upper groups
C. More from the lower group answered the test item correctly
D. More from the upper group answered the item correctly
64. The test item has a discrimination index if -.38 and difficulty index of 1.0. What does this imply to test construction? Teacher must __________________.
A. Revise the item
B. Shelve the item for future use
C. Reject the item
D. Retain the item
65. The difficulty index of a test item is 1. What does this imply? The test item must be _________.
A. Moderate in difficulty
B. Very difficult because only 1 got the item correctly
C. Very easy because everybody got the test item correctly
D. Neither difficult nor easy
66. In which competency did my students find the greatest difficulty? In the item with a difficulty index of ____________.
A. 0.1
B. 1.0
C. 0.9
D. 0.5
67. The difficulty index of a test item is .50. This means that the test item is:
A. Valid
B. Very easy
C. Reliable
D. Moderate in difficulty
68. Is it a wise practice to orient our students and parents on our grading system?
A. No, this will court a lot of complaints later.
B. Yes, but orientation must be only for our immediate customers, the students.
C. Yes, so that from the very start student and their parents know how grades are derived.
D. No, grades and how they are derived are highly confidential.
69. Other than the numerical grades found in students’ report cards, teachers are asked to give remarks. On which belief is this practice-based?
A. Numerical grades have no meaning.
B. Giving remarks about each child is part of the assessment task of every teacher.
C. Remarks, whether positive or negative, motivate both parents and learners.
D. Grades do not reflect all developments that take place in every learner.
70. PAPASA BA SA LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR TEACHERS?
PAPASA!
MAGTA-TOP!
