Free Printable ATL qualifying test

1.

What is the value of Stability factor for an ideal transistor?

a)

1000

b)

100

c)

infinite

d)

0

2.

The biasing circuit that gives best stability to Q point is

a)

base resistance biasing

b)

feedback resistor biasing

c)

potential divider biasing

d)

emitter resistor biasing

3.

The Q point in a voltage amplifier is selected in the middle of the active region because

a)

it gives better stability

b)

the circuit needs a small

c)

the biasing circuit then need less number of resistors

d)

it gives distortions less output

4.

Which of the following has a negative temperature coefficient of resistance?

a)

Sensitor

b)

thermistor

c)

capacitor

d)

diode

5.

Negative feedback is employed in________

a)

Oscillators

b)

Rectifiers

c)

Amplifiers

d)

UJT relaxation oscillator

6.

Barkhausen Criterion states that

a)

|Aβ|=1,Φ=360deg

b)

|Aβ|=2,Φ=360deg

c)

|Aβ|=0,Φ=360deg

d)

|Aβ|=1,Φ=180deg

7.

Quartz crystal oscillators are popularly used because

a)

High Q and high frequency stability

b)

Low Q and high frequency stability

c)

High Q and low frequency stability

d)

None of these

8.

Large signal amplifiers are also known as______

a)

Voltage Amplifiers

b)

Current Amplifiers

c)

Power Amplifiers

d)

None of these

9.

Crossover distortion is present in

a)

Class-A

b)

Class-B

c)

Class-AB

d)

none

10.

Speed up capacitors are also called as______

a)

Variable capacitors

b)

Fixed capacitors

c)

transpose capacitors

d)

transfer capacitors

11.

A Schmitt trigger has UTP =8V and LTP=4V then V_H=______

a)

4V

b)

2V

c)

1V

d)

6V

12.

An astable multivibrator can be used as a_____

a)

Voltage controlled oscillator

b)

Gating Circuit

c)

Exponential Circuit

d)

Ramp Generator

13.

In Astable multivibrators the coupling elements are____

a)

both resistors

b)

both capacitors

c)

one resistor and one capacitor

d)

short circuits

14.

The volt equivalent of temperature VT is -----at room temperature

a)

26mV

b)

62mV

c)

0

d)

2mV

15.

Ripple factor value of Full wave rectifier is

a)

0.48

b)

1.12

c)

1.21

d)

0.686

16.

The PIV of Bridge rectifier is

a)

Vm

b)

2Vm

c)

Vm/2

d)

1/Vm

17.

Which one of the following diodes shows negative resistance region?

a)

PN junction

b)

Tunnel Diode

c)

Zener Diode

d)

Varactor diode

18.

In a PN junction diode

a)

the depletion capacitance increases with increase in the reverse bias

b)

the depletion capacitance decreases with increase in the reverse bias

c)

the depletion capacitance increases with increase in the forward bias

d)

the depletion capacitance is much higher than the depletion capacitance when it is forward biased

19.

Monostable multivibrator can be used as_____

a)

flip flop

b)

pulse width modulator

c)

clock

d)

free running circuit

20.

The range of reflection coefficient is

a)

0 to 1

b)

-infinity to + infinity

c)

0 to infinity

d)

0

21.

The reflection coefficient for a open circuited transmission line is

a)

Infinity

b)

-1

c)

0

d)

+1

22.

For distortion less line

a)

C = G / LR

b)

C = L G /R

c)

C = R/ L G

d)

C = L R/ G

23.

Process of adding extra inductance to transmission line is

a)

Loading

b)

padding

c)

matching

d)

none

24.

In the distributed circuit equivalent of the transmission line, it is assumed that

a)

Δx >> λ

b)

Δx << λ

c)

Δx =0

d)

none

25.

A lossless transmission line operating at 100 MHz is terminated in pure capacitance of −jZ0. The load reflection coefficient is

a)

0

b)

1

c)

+j

d)

-j

26.

Standard intermediate frequency used for AM receiver is

a)

455MHz

b)

455KHz

c)

455THz

d)

none

27.

FM bandwidth is approximated using _______ rule

a)

carsons

b)

faradys

c)

maxwell

d)

amstrong

28.

. Pulse Duration modulation is also known as

a)

PAM

b)

PTM

c)

PCM

d)

NONE

29.

The Nyquist sample rate for a maximum analog information frequency of 8 KHz is

a)

24

b)

16

c)

8

d)

4

30.

The aperture effect in flat top pulses is reduced by using

a)

SAMPLER

b)

EQUALIZER

c)

INTEGRATOR

d)

PREDICTOR

31.

In Adaptive Delta Modulation, which of the following is adaptive

a)

amplitude

b)

stepsize

c)

noise

d)

none

32.

Data word length in Delta Modulation is

a)

2

b)

1

c)

0

d)

3

33.

The minimum bandwidth of DPSK signal is equal to

a)

f_b

b)

4 f_b

c)

2f_b

d)

3 f_b

34.

The distance between two successive samples in QPSK signal is _________

a)

sqrt(Eb)

b)

sqrt(2Eb)

c)

2sqrt(Eb)

d)

none

35.

In delta modulation the Granular noise can be reduced by

a)

Decreasing step size

b)

Increasing step size

c)

both

d)

none

36.

1. The force between two point charges Q1 and Q2 which are separated by distance d in air is F.

if the charges are placed in dielectric with є_r= 2 and other factor remain the same, then the

Force between the charges is

a)

F

b)

F/2

c)

2F

d)

none

37.

A certain low loss line has Z₀ = 400 o h m s . For Z _L= 2 00 o h m s , t he S W R is

a)

2

b)

1/3

c)

3

d)

1/4

38.

If β l < π / 2 , the input impedance of a open circuited line will be

a)

resistive

b)

inductive

c)

capacitive

d)

none

39.

If SWR = 1 then the reflection coefficient is

a)

2

b)

1

c)

0

d)

infinity

40.

Which one of the strength name is having highest priority strength level

a)

supply

b)

pull

c)

weak

d)

small

41.

In 2 i/p CMOS NAND gate, no. of PMOS transistors used are

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

42.

With out any additional circuitry, an 4:1 MUX can be used to obtain

a)

Some but not all Boolean functions of 3 variables

b)

All function of 3 variables but none of 4 variables

c)

All functions of 2 variables and some but not all of 3 variables

d)

All functions of 4 variables

43.

The time taken by CMOS output when it change from high to low state

a)

constant time

b)

rise time

c)

fall time

d)

propagation dely time

44.

According to the IC fabrication process logic families can be divided into two broad categories as

a)

Bipolar & MOS

b)

HTL & MOS

c)

ECL & DTL

d)

RTL & TTL

45.

In bipolar logic family _ type of transistor operates fastly

a)

npn

b)

Schottky transistor

c)

pnp

d)

none

46.

Sometimes ECL can also be named as

a)

EEL

b)

CEL

c)

CCL

d)

CML

47.

In CMOS logic `0` represents

a)

0-2.5V

b)

3.5 - 5V

c)

1.5 - 3.5V

d)

0- 0.8V

48.

The characteristic equation of S-R latch is

a)

Q(n+1) = S+ Q(n)R'

b)

Q(n+1) = SR + Q(n)R

c)

Q(n+1) = S’R + Q(n)R

d)

Q(n+1) = S’R + Q'(n)R

49.

The number of full and half adders are required to add 32-bit number is

a)

8 half adders, 8 full adders

b)

16 half adders, 0 full adders

c)

4 half adders, 12 full adders

d)

1 half adder, 31 full adders

50.

Which of the following will give the sum of full adders as output?

a)

Three point major circuit

b)

Three bit parity checker

c)

Three bit comparator

d)

Three bit counter

51.

nmos (3,4) g3 (out, in, ctrl); specify rise time and fall time in the syntax

a)

rise time =3, fall time =5

b)

rise time =4, fall time =3

c)

rise time =3, fall time =3

d)

rise time =3, fall time =4

52.

The number of distinct Boolean expressions of 3 variables is

a)

16

b)

256

c)

1024

d)

65536

53.

@posedge means

a)

Transition from 0 to 1

b)

Transition from 1 to 0

c)

Transition from x to 1

d)

Transition from 0 to x

54.

The prime implicant which has at least one element that is not present in any other implicant is known as

a)

Complement

b)

Implicant

c)

Essential Prime Implicant

d)

None of the above

55.

An equivalent 2’s complement representation of the 2’s complement number 1101 is

a)

110100

b)

111101

c)

110111

d)

001100

56.

Decimal 57 in hexadecimal and BCD number is respectively

a)

3201000011

b)

390011101

c)

2B01000011

d)

B201000011

57.

What are the possible values of == operator

a)

0,x

b)

0,1

c)

1,x

d)

0,1,x

58.

X = 4'b1010, Y = 4'b0000 perform {X,Y} specify the output

a)

8'b00001010

b)

6'b000010

c)

8'b10100000

d)

8'b00001000

59.

<= is used in which type of assignment

a)

Blocking

b)

None

c)

both

d)

Non blocking

60.

Where should be the bias point set in order to make transistor work as an amplifier?

a)

Cut-off

b)

Active

c)

Saturation

d)

Inverted

ATL qualifying test

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

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