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12 chem unit 3 & 4 review

Total questions: 193

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A stress placed on a system at equilibrium will

a)

use up the reactants

b)

cause the product(s) to be used up.

c)

shift to offset the stress.

2.

Stresses on a system at equilibrium include all of the following EXCEPT

a)

changes in reactant or product concentration.

b)

temperature changes.

c)

addition of a catalyst.

d)

pressure changes.

3.
At what time (in seconds) is equilibrium established?
a)
0 seconds
b)
1 second
c)
5 seconds
d)
10 seconds
4.
Le Chaltelier's Principle states that if a chemical system at equilibrium is stressed,
a)
the system will adjust to increase the stress
b)
the system will adjust to reduce the stress
c)
the system will not adjust
5.
For the reaction...
energy +  N2(g)  +  O2(g)  <−>  2NO(g)
If  O2(g) is removed, the  concentration of N2 will _______.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain the same
d)
double
6.
A +  B <--> C + D   ΔH= 151kJ
Rewrite the above equation with energy as a reactant or product:
a)
A +  B <--> C + D + energy
b)
A +  B + energy <--> C + D 
7.
For the reaction...
heat  +  N2(g)  +  O2(g)  <−>  2NO(g)
If the heat is removed to the chemical system, the equilibrium will _______.
a)
shift to the left
b)
shift to the right
c)
not shift
8.
For the reaction...
N2 (g) +  3 H2 (g) <−> 2 NH3 (g)

If the pressure in the system is increased, the reaction will __________________.
a)
 shift to the left
b)
shift to the right
c)
not shift
9.
When  ΔH  is negative it represents a(n)
a)
exothermic reaction 
b)
endothermic reaction 
10.
  A(g) + B(aq) <> C(s) 
 ΔHrxn= -453 kJ/mol
If the [B] is decreased then the reaction is will shift to the _______. 
a)
Left
b)
Right
c)
Stays the same 
d)
Up
11.
What would happen to the position of the equilibrium when Oxygen is added to the system?
 2SO3(g) ⇋ 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 
a)
SO3 will increase 
b)
SO3 will decrease 
c)
SO2 will increase
d)
none of the above
12.
What is the Kc expression for this reaction?
   2 NO(g)  +  O2(g) ⇌  2 NO2(g)
a)
Kc = [NO2]2 / [NO]2 [O2]
b)
Kc =  [NO]2 [O2] / [NO2]2
c)
Kc = [NO]2 [O2] [NO2]2
d)
Kc = [NO2]2 / [NO]2 +  [O2]
13.
An equilibrium constant with a large value, e.g. Kc = 1000, indicates…
a)
A very fast reaction
b)
Mostly products at equilibrium
c)
Mostly reactants at equilibrium
d)
Nothing useful at all
14.
Given: 2A(g) <=> 2B(g) + C(g). At a particular temperature, Kc = 16000.
Raising the pressure, by decreasing the volume of the container, will...
a)
cause the value of Kc to increase
b)
cause the value of Kc to decrease
c)
have no effect on the value of Kc as temperature does not change
d)
favour the forward reaction
15.
Changes in pressure will only affect substances that are in the __________ state.
a)
gaseous
b)
liquid
c)
solid
16.
What are [A] and [B]?
a)
concentration of reactants
b)
concentration of products
c)
energy of reactants
d)
energy of products
17.
The following reaction :    
SO2 (g) +  NO2 (g) <=> SO3 (g) + NO (g)  
had reached a state of equilibrium, was found to contain  
0.40 mol L-1 SO3 , and 0.30 mol L-1 NO,
0.15 mol L-1NO2 , and 0.20 mol L-1 SO2.
Calculate the equilibrium constant  for this reaction. 
a)
4
b)
.42
c)
.25
d)
1
18.
What is the equilibrium expression for:
Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g) <=> 3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g)
Kc =
a)
[Fe]3 [H2O]4  / [Fe3O4] [H2]4
b)
[Fe3O4] [H2]4 /  [Fe]3 [H2O]4
c)
[H2O]4 / [H2]4
d)
[Fe] [H2O] / [Fe3O4] [H2]
19.
For the reaction...
H2 (g)  + Cl2 (g) <=>  2HCl (g)  +  heat
If the pressure in the system is increased, the equilibrium position will _______.
a)
shift to the left
b)
shift to the right
c)
not shift position at all as 2 mol gas <=> 2 mol gas
20.

Which of the two graphs reaches equilibrium?

a)

Neither

b)

The left

c)

Both

d)

The right

21.
Name the following in order:
HCl, HBr, HI
a)
hydrochloric acid, hydrobromic acid, hydroiodic acid
b)
chloric acid, bromic acid, iodic acid
c)
chlorous acid, bromous acid, iodous acid
d)
hydrochlorous acid, hydrobromous acid, hydroiodous acid
22.
What are the formulas for the following?
--sulfuric acid--
--nitric acid--
a)
H2SO, HNO
b)
H2SO3, HNO3
c)
H2S, H3N
d)
H2SO4, HNO3
23.
Strong acids and bases...
a)
do not break apart into ions (non-electrolyte)
b)
partially break apart into ions (weak electrolyte)
c)
completely break apart into ions (non-electrolyte)
d)
completely break apart into ions (strong electrolyte)
24.

pH is the measure of the concentration of ______.

a)

Acids

b)

H+ ion

c)

OH- ion

d)

Bases

25.

According to Bronsted-Lowry, what is the definition of an BASE?

a)

a substance that donates a hydrogen (H+) ion

b)

a substance that donates a hydroxide (OH-) ion

c)

a substance that accepts a hydrogen (H+) ion

d)

a substance that accepts a hydroxide (OH-) ion

26.

What is being donated/accepted between conjugate acid-base pairs?

a)

a hydrogen (H+) ion

b)

a hydroxide (OH-) ion

c)

water

d)

a neutron

27.

What is the conjugate base in the following reaction?

a)

HCO3-

b)

HCl

c)

H2CO3

d)

Cl-

28.
What is the conjugate acid in the following equation?
a)
PO43- 
b)
HNO3 
c)
NO3- 
d)
HPO42-
29.

For a solution, pH + pOH =

a)

7

b)

14

c)

1.0 x 10-14

d)

-log (1.0 x 10 -14)

30.

If the pH of a solution is 4.0, what is the pOH?

a)

4.0

b)

10.0

c)

1.0 x 10 -4

d)

cannot be determined from the information

31.

The pH of a solution is 8.43. What is the [H3O+]concentration?

a)

3.7 x 10 -9

b)

1.0 x 10-8.43

c)

2.7 x 10-6

d)

1.0 x 10-14

32.

If the [H3O+] of a solution is 1 x 10-3 M, the pH is

a)

11

b)

-3

c)

3

d)

1

33.

If the [OH-] of a solution is 2.7 x 10-4 M, the pOH of the solution is

a)

10.44

b)

1.00

c)

3.57

d)

-4.43

34.

If the [H3O+] of a solution is 9.3 x 10-3 M, the pOH of the solution will be

a)

2.03

b)

1.02

c)

11.97

d)

12.98

35.

A solution of KOH is 2.5 x 10-5 M. What is the [H+] concentration? (Hint: Find pOH, then pH, then [H+].)

a)

4.60

b)

9.40

c)

3.98 x 10-10

d)

1.0 x 10-4.60

36.
Which of the following is a pH for a strong base? 
a)
1
b)
8
c)
7
d)
13
37.
Which of the following is a pH for a strong acid? 
a)
1
b)
6
c)
7
d)
13
38.
What is the [H+] if the pH is 4.0?
a)
1.0 x 10-10  M
b)
1.0 x 10-4  M
c)
1.0 x 10-14  M
d)
1.0 x 10-7  M
39.

The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is

a)

11

b)

3

c)

2

d)

4

40.

Acetic Acid (HC2H3O2) is a weak monoprotic acid. It's concentration is 0.20M and it's Ka value is 1.8x10-5. Calculate it's pH value.

a)

0.698

b)

2.72

c)

11.28

d)

None of the answers are correct

41.

Which of these pKa values corresponds to the strongest acid?

a)

1.2

b)

1.4

c)

1.6

d)

1.8

42.

Which of these pKa values corresponds to the weakest (least strong) acid?

a)

5.6

b)

5.2

c)

4.8

d)

4.4

43.

Which of these Ka values corresponds to the weakest (least strong) acid?

a)

9 x 10-10

b)

5 x 10-4

c)

6 x 10-8

d)

7 x 10-2

44.

Which of these Ka values corresponds to the strongest acid?

a)

8.4 x 10-10

b)

5.0 x 10-4

c)

9.8 x 10-8

d)

1.0 x 10-3

45.

What does the equation in the image correspond to?

a)

pKa

b)

Ka

c)

pH

d)

[H+]

46.

How would you calculate Kb for the formate ion (HCOO–), given that the Ka for formic acid (HCOOH) is 1.8 × 10–4? (Kw=1.0 × 10–14)

a)

Kb = Ka × Kw

b)

Kb = Kw / Ka

c)

Kb = Ka / Kw

d)

Kb = Kw + Ka

47.

The magnitude of Kw indicates that ______________.

a)

water autoionizes very slowly

b)

water autoionizes very quickly

c)

water autoionizes only to a very small extent

d)

the autoionization of water is exothermic

48.

What is the [OH-] if the pH is 4.9? : Kw= 1 x 10-14 mol2 dm-6

a)

7.94 x 10-10 mol dm-3

b)

1.0 x 10-4 mol dm-3

c)

7.94 x 10-14 mol dm-3

d)

4.9 x 10-10 mol dm-3

49.
Acidic buffer is made up of
a)
weak acid and weak base
b)
weak acid and its conjugate salt
c)
weak acid and its conjugate base
d)
strong acid and its conjugate base
50.

Which of the following statements ARE TRUE about buffer solution?


(you may choose more than one answer)

a)

pH of buffer solution will never change despite addition of small amount of base or acid

b)

Buffer can be made by mixing weak acid and salt of its conjugate base or by mixing weak base with salt of its conjugate acid

c)

Buffer has acid and base components that can work specifically to resist pH change

d)

the closer the ratio of concentration weak acid/base to the concentration of salt of its conjugate base/acid, the less effective the buffer to resist pH change

51.

Which solution can turn phenolphthalein pink?

a)

NaOH(aq)

b)

CH3COOH(aq)

c)

CH2OH(aq)

d)

HCl(aq)

52.

Which solution would turn litmus red?

a)

KOH(aq)

b)

NaCl(aq)

c)

HCl(aq)

d)

NH3(aq)

53.

At what pH will bromthymol blue, thymol blue, and bromcresol all be yellow?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

7

d)

5

54.
acid + base ₋>
a)
salt + hydrogen
b)
salt + water
c)
salt + carbon dioxide + water
d)
salt
55.
HCl + NaOH → 
a)
NaH + ClOH
b)
NaCl + H2
c)
NaCl + H2O
d)
NaCl + Cl2
56.
What is the endpoint of a titration
a)
Where the amount of acid and base are balanced according to the equation
b)
Where there is no base
c)
At the end
57.
I am titrating 1M HCl with 1M NaOH.  I have 25mL of HCl. How much NaOH will I need?
a)
2.5mL
b)
5mL
c)
25mL
d)
50mL
58.
what is the reading on this burette?
a)
4.40mL
b)
3.50mL
c)
3.60mL
d)
4.50mL
59.
I have 25mL of 1M HCl which neutralises 20mL of NaOH. What is the concentration of the NaOH?
a)
0.8 M
b)
1 M
c)
1.25 M
60.
Identify the products of the chemical equation
3 LiOH + H3PO4 →
a)
Li3PO4 + 3 H2O
b)
LiPO4 + 3 H2O
c)
Li(PO4)3 + 3 H2O
d)
BOY + La + N2
61.
A 50.0 mL sample of Ca(OH)2 is neutralized by 300.0 mL of HCl solution with a pH of 1.3. Calculate the molarity of the Ca(OH)2 solution.
a)
1.0 M
b)
0.50 M
c)
0.15 M 
d)
0.30 M
62.

What is the solution of unknown concentration, but known volume, called?

a)

Analyte

b)

Titrant

c)

Indicator

d)

Titration

63.

In a titration, the point at which moles of H+ = moles of OH- is called the

a)

End point

b)

Equivalence point

64.
Which of the following is a conjugate acid/base pair?
a)
HCl/OCl-
b)
H2SO4/SO42-
c)
NH4+/NH3
d)
H3O+/OH-
65.

Which of the following best approximates the Ka value for this weak acid?

a)

1 x 10–4

b)

1 x 10–5

c)

5x 10–6

d)

5 x 10–7

66.

Which point on the titration curve corresponds to the point at which the moles of the added strong base are equal to the moles of the weak acid initially present?

a)

Q

b)

R

c)

S

d)

T

67.

At point P in the titration, which of the following species has the highest concentration?

a)

HA

b)

A–

c)

H3O+

d)

OH–

68.

Which of the following indicators is the best choice for this titration?

a)

Methyl orange (pH range of color change is 3.2 - 4.4)

b)

Methyl red (pH range of color change is 4.8 - 6.0)

c)

Bromothymol blue (pH range of color change is 6.1 - 7.6)

d)

Phenolphthalein (pH range of color change is 8.2 - 10.0)

69.

What part of the curve corresponds to the optimum buffer action for the acetic acid/acetate ion pair?

a)

Point V

b)

Point Z

c)

Along all of section WY

d)

Along all of section YZ

70.

calculate the Ka of a solution with a pKb of 3.38

a)

3.38x10-11

b)

6.76x10-11

c)

2.40x10-11

d)

2.39x10-11

71.

Defined as the loss of electrons.

a)

oxidation

b)

reduction

c)

redox

d)

OIL RIG

72.

Defined as the gain of electrons.

a)

oxidation

b)

redox

c)

reduction

d)

LEO GER

73.

Cl2 + 2e- --> 2Cl - is an example of:

a)

a chemical reaction

b)

redox

c)

oxidation

d)

reduction

74.

These keep track of the movement of electrons.

a)

(+) and (-) signs

b)

oxidation numbers

c)

coefficients

d)

subscripts

75.

An increase in oxidation number.

a)

more acidic

b)

reduction

c)

less basic

d)

oxidation

76.

A decrease in oxidation number.

a)

concentrated

b)

reduction

c)

oxidation

d)

dilute

77.

What is the oxidation number of C in SrCO3?

a)

-4

b)

+2

c)

-6

d)

+4

78.

What is the oxidation number of Cr in Cr2O72- ?

a)

+14

b)

+6

c)

-6

d)

-14

79.

Substance that oxidizes another substance by accepting its electrons.

a)

reducing agent

b)

oxidation number

c)

combustion

d)

oxidizing agent

80.

Substance that reduces another substance by losing electrons.

a)

reducing agent

b)

half-reaction

c)

electronegative atom

d)

oxidizing agent

81.

What is a half-reaction of this equation, Na + Cl --> NaCl ?

a)

Cl + e- --> Cl-

b)

Cl - e- --> Cl-

c)

Na --> Na + e-

d)

Na° + Cl°--> Na+1Cl-1

82.
     In the reaction Zn + H2O --> ZnO2 + H2
 which element, if any, is oxidized? 
a)
Zinc
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
None
83.

WRITE THIS OUT ON PAPER, YOU MAY USE THE ANSWER TO THIS PROBLEM AGAIN IN ANOTHER QUESTION:


Balance the following ACIDIC reactions using the half-reaction method.

MnO4−(aq) + H+(aq) + I− (aq) → Mn2+(aq) + I2(s)


Water is a product of this reaction. What is the coefficient of water in the final balanced equation?

a)

8

b)

5

c)

2

d)

16

84.

WRITE THIS OUT ON PAPER, YOU MAY USE THE ANSWER TO THIS PROBLEM AGAIN IN ANOTHER QUESTION:


Balance the following reactions using the half-reaction method.

MnO4−(aq) + H+(aq) + I− (aq) → Mn2+(aq) + I2(s)

How many electrons did you cross out on both side?

a)

1 e-

b)

2 e-

c)

5 e-

d)

10 e-

85.

The anode is where oxidation occurs in...

a)

A Galvanic Cell/ voltaic

b)

A Electrolytic Cell

c)

Both Galvanic and Electrolytic cells

86.
What is an electrolytic cell? 
a)
a cell that converts chemical energy into electrical energy 
b)
a cell that converts electrical energy into electrical energy 
c)
a cell that converts electrical energy into chemical energy 
d)
A cell that converts kinetic energy into potential energy. 
87.
What occurs during electrolysis of a molten salt?
a)
Electricity is produced by a spontaneous redox reaction
b)
Electricity cause a non-spontaneous redox reaction to occur
c)
Electrons flow through the molten salt
d)
Electrons are removed from both ions of the molten salt
88.

The reaction is non-spontaneous in ...

a)

A Galvanic/ Voltaic Cell

b)

A Electrolytic Cell

c)

Both Galvanic and Electrolytic cells

89.

Electrical energy is converted to Chemical energy in ...

a)

A Galvanic/ Voltaic Cell

b)

A Electrolytic Cell

c)

Both Galvanic/Voltaic and Electrolytic cells

90.

The reaction is spontaneous in ...

a)

A Galvanic Cell

b)

A Electrolytic Cell

c)

Both Galvanic and Electrolytic cells

91.

A salt bridge is used in...

a)

A Galvanic Cell

b)

A Electrolytic Cell

c)

Both Galvanic and Electrolytic cells

92.

Which combination would electroplate an object with copper?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

93.

In the electrolysis of aqueous potassium nitrate, KNO3, using inert electrodes, 0.1 mol of a gas was formed at the cathode (negative electrode).

Which is correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.
The cell reaction occurring in a particular button cell was:
Zn(s) + Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) →  2Ag(s)+   Zn(OH)2(s)
This cell delivered 1.50 V. The half-equation for the silver half-cell is:
Ag2O(s)+ H2O(l)+ 2e-→  2Ag(s)+ 2OH-(aq);  E0 = 0.34 V
The standard redox potential for the zinc half-cell must be:
a)
-1.16 V
b)
+1.16 V
c)
-1.84 V
d)
+1.84 V
95.
What is the key difference between a galvanic cell and a fuel cell? 
a)
Galvanic cells deliver direct current; fuel cells deliver alternating current. 
b)
Galvanic cells are essentially for energy storage; fuel cells work continuously. 
c)
Galvanic cells do not use gases as reactants; fuel cells only use gases. 
d)
Galvanic cells are not rechargeable; fuel cells are constantly recharged.
96.
A galvanic cell is established to power a torch, as shown.
For this cell, the
a)
electrons will flow from the aluminium to the hydrogen half-cell
b)
aluminium electrode will be the positive anode
c)
concentration of aluminium ions in solution will be falling
d)
hydrogen half-cell will be the negative cathode
97.
Consider the galvanic cell given.
Which of the following deductions about this cell is correct?
a)
Oxidation is occurring in half-cell 2
b)
The positive electrode is in half-cell 2
c)
Oxidation is occurring in half-cell 1
d)
The negative electrode is in half-cell 1
98.

What happens to oxygen molecules in a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell?

a)

They react with electrons to form oxide ions, O2-

b)

They react with hydrogen ions to form hydroxide ions, OH-

c)

They react with hydrogen ions and electrons to form water

99.

The E0 value for all electrolysis reactions is

a)

positive

b)

neutral

c)

negative

100.

If a half cell has a high reduction potential it prefers to be

a)

oxidised

b)

reduced

101.

What half cell would prefer to be reduced the most?

a)

F2 l F-

b)

Co3+ l Co2+

c)

Au3+ l Au

d)

Cl2 l Cl-

102.

What half cell would prefer to be oxidised the most?

a)

F2 l F-

b)

Co3+ l Co2+

c)

Au3+ l Au

d)

Cl2 l Cl-

103.

What prefers to be oxidised more Cl2 or F2?

a)

F2

b)

Cl2

c)

they prefer to be oxidised the same

d)

both want to be reduced

104.

What ions are present in an electrolyte of CuCl2? (You can select more than one)

a)

Cu

b)

Cu2+

c)

Cl2

d)

Cl-

105.

Has Mg lost or gained electrons in this half equation and has Mg been oxidised or reduced

Mg --> Mg2+ + 2e

a)

Lost, oxidised

b)

Lost, reduced

c)

Gained, oxidised

d)

Gained, reduced

106.

In the following half equation what is reduced?

Cu2+ + 2e --> Cu

a)

Cu

b)

Cu2+

107.

In the following half equation what is oxidised?

2 I- --> I2 + 2e

a)

I-

b)

I2

108.
These types of compounds contain oxygen in their chemical structure
a)
ketones, alkanes and amines
b)
amides, aldehydes and ethers
c)
carboxylic acids, alcohols and halocarbons, amines and esters
d)
alcohols, ketones and alkenes
109.
Match the following formulas
a)
ketone, aldehyde, carbonyl group
b)
carbonyl group, aldehyde, ketone
c)
aldehyde, carbonyl group, ketone
d)
carbonyl group, ketone, aldehyde
110.
The name of this compound is:
a)
heptan-2-one
b)
2-hexanone
c)
2-heptanone
d)
pentan-2-one
111.
These are examples:
a)
ethers
b)
aldehydes
c)
ketones
d)
aromatics
112.

How many bonds can a carbon form?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

113.

Which of these is considered as saturated organic compound?

a)

ethene

b)

octane

c)

2-decene

d)

1-heptyne

114.

Saturated hydrocarbon is an organic compound formed only by carbon and hydrogen linked by single bond. Which of these formulas represents a saturated hydrocarbon?

a)

C2H2

b)

C4H10

c)

C5H10

d)

C6H6

115.

The structural formula of 2-butene is _________.

a)

CH3 – CH = C = CH2

b)

CH3 – C - C - CH2

c)

CH3 = CH - CH2 - CH3

d)

CH3 - CH = CH - CH3

116.

Which of these is the chemical structure of 1-hexanone?

a)
b)
c)
d)
117.
Name the side group in this molecule
a)
2 methyl butane
b)
Methyl Butane
c)
Meth
d)
Methyl
118.
What do we call this structures?
a)
Unsaturated Hydrocarbons
b)
Butane
c)
Alkenes
d)
Isomers
119.
How many carbon atoms are in this line angle structure?
a)
11
b)
7
c)
8
d)
10
120.
Which of the following is true about structural isomers?
a)
Have the same molecular formula
b)
Have different physical and chemical properties.
c)
Have the same number of elements
d)
all of the above
121.
Given the structural formulas below, which 2 formulas represent compounds that are isomers of each other?
a)
A and B
b)
A and C
c)
B and D
d)
C and D
122.
What functional group is found in the following molecules:
a)
aldehyde
b)
alcohol
c)
carboxylic acid
d)
aldehyde + alcohol
123.

What is the major organic product obtained from the following reaction?

a)

1-bromo-2-methylcyclobutane

b)

1-bromo-1-methylcyclobutane

c)

2-bromo-1-methylcyclobutane

d)

2-bromo-2-methylcyclobutane

124.

Which compound will have the highest boiling point?

a)

Methane

b)

Ethane

c)

Propane

d)

Butane

125.

Why does butane have a higher boiling point than methane?

a)

Higher molecular mass leading to slower molecular movement

b)

Entangling of carbon chains requiring more energy to separate

c)

Higher dispersion forces to overcome due to more electrons

d)

More hydrogen bonding to overcome due to more hydrogen atoms

126.

Which compound will have the highest boiling point?

a)

butan-1-ol

b)

butanal

c)

butane

d)

butanoic acid

127.

Why does butanoic acid have a higher boiling point than butanal?

a)

Increased carbon chain length

b)

Higher dispersion forces between molecules

c)

Hydrogen bonding between molecules

d)

Faster molecular motion due to streamlined shape

128.

Identify the compounds that are miscible in water.

a)

Ethane

b)

Ethanol

c)

Ethanal

d)

Ethanoic acid

e)

Methyl ethanoate

129.

What products are obtained when CH4(g) burns completely in an excess of oxygen?

a)

A. CO2

b)

B. CO2 and H2O

c)

C. Hydrogen gas

d)

D. Explosion

130.

A hydrocarbon molecule is saturated if the molecule contains ___________.

a)

A. Single covalent bonds, only

b)

B. A triple covalent bond

c)

C. A double covalent bond, only

d)

D. Explosion

131.

Which of the following is formed when an alcohol is dehydrated?

a)

A. Aldehyde

b)

B. Ketone

c)

C. Alkene

d)

D. Amine

132.

The reaction of water with alkene to produce an alcohol is a/an ______ reaction.

a)

A. Addition

b)

B. Condensation

c)

C. Combustion

d)

D. Saponification

133.

The organic starting materials for the preparation of an ester could be_________

a)

A. a ketone and alcohol

b)

B. water and oxygen

c)

C. an acid and alcohol

d)

D. alkane and aldehyde

134.

Hydrolysis (saponification) of a fat would yield_____________.

a)

A. water and alkene

b)

B. ketone and aldehyde

c)

C. ethanol and acid

d)

D. glycerol and soap

135.

Isomerism that arises out of the difference in spatial arrangement of atoms or groups about the doubly bonded carbon atoms are called?

a)

Structural Isomerism

b)

Stereoisomerism

c)

Geometrical Isomerism

d)

Optical Isomerism

136.

Which among the following does not exhibit geometric isomerism?

a)

1-hexene

b)

2-hexene

c)

3-hexene

d)

4-hexene

137.

Which of the following molecules exhibit geometrical isomerism?

a)

CH2=CHCH3

b)

C6H5CH=CHC6H5

c)

(CH3)2C=CHCH3

d)

CH3CH2N=OH

138.
A single unit of sugar is referred to as:
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Monocarbohydrate
c)
Mononutrient
d)
Monopolymer
139.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
140.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
141.
Important to the structural integrity of plant cells, this is the single most popular polysaccharide in the world.
a)
Starch
b)
Glycogen
c)
Cellulose
d)
Chitin
142.

What would be the classification of a monosaccharide made up of 5 carbons?

a)

Triose

b)

Tetrose

c)

Pentose

d)

Hexose

143.

What type of sugar is this? (Check all that apply)

a)

Aldose

b)

Ketose

c)

Triose

d)

Tetrose

e)

Pentose

144.

What type of sugar is this? (Check all that apply)

a)

Aldose

b)

Ketose

c)

Triose

d)

Tetrose

e)

Pentose

145.

What type of bond is formed between two monosaccharides?

a)

Ester bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Peptide bond

d)

Double bond

146.

Which carbohydrate is made up of two glucose molecules?

a)

Lactose

b)

Maltose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Galactose

147.

Which monosaccharides are found in lactose?

a)

Glucose and galactose

b)

Fructose and galactose

c)

Maltose and galactose

d)

Sucrose and galactose

148.

Which monosaccharides are found in lactose?

a)

Glucose and galactose

b)

Fructose and galactose

c)

Maltose and galactose

d)

Sucrose and galactose

149.

Which monosaccharides are found in sucrose?

a)

Glucose and maltose

b)

Glucose and galactose

c)

Fructose and galactose

d)

Glucose and fructose

150.

Which carbohydrate do we store in our liver and serves as an energy reserve?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Glucose

d)

Cellulose

151.

All proteins contain the

a)

Same 20 amino acids

b)

Different amino acids

c)

300 Amino acids occurring in nature

d)

Only a few amino acids

152.

Denaturation of proteins results in

a)

Disruption of primary structure

b)

Breakdown of peptide bonds

c)

Destruction of hydrogen bonds

d)

Irreversible changes in the molecule

153.

Proteins are polymers of ______.

a)

amino acids

b)

disulfide bridges

c)

glucose

d)

peptide bonds

154.

A bond between amino acids is called a(n) _____ bond.

a)

acid

b)

hydrogen

c)

ionic

d)

peptide

155.

Disulfide bridges in proteins help hold them together.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

156.

The linear arrangement of amino acids

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

157.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

amino acids

b)

polypeptide

c)

nucleotides

d)

monosaccharides

158.

The structure of proteins can be changed by environmental factors such as temperature or pH.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

159.

Saturated fats are __________ at room temperature.

a)

liquid

b)

solid

160.
The characteristic that all lipids have in common is----
a)
made of lots of double bonds
b)
acidic when mixed with water
c)
no high energy content
d)
do not dissolve in water
161.

Under basic conditions, lipid molecule hydrolysis produces

a)

Glycerol + Water

b)

Glycerol + Fatty acids

c)

Glycerol + Fatty acid salts

d)

Water + Fatty acids

162.

Which molecule is represented in this image?

a)

Fatty acid

b)

Wax

c)

Glycerol

d)

Phosphate group

163.

What does it mean for a fatty acid to be saturated?

a)

It contains only double bonds

b)

It contains only single bonds

c)

It contains at least one double bond

d)

It contains at least one triple bond

164.

What does it mean for a fatty acid to be unsaturated?

a)

It contains only double bonds

b)

It contains only single bonds

c)

It contains at least one double bond

d)

It contains at least one triple bond

165.

Unsaturated fats are less tightly packed than saturated fats and therefore have a lower melting point.

a)

True

b)

False

166.

What type of molecule is shown above?

a)

A polyunsaturated fatty acid

b)

A monounsaturated fatty acid

c)

A saturated fatty acid

d)

A triglyceride

167.

What type of molecule is shown above?

a)

A polyunsaturated fatty acid

b)

A monounsaturated fatty acid

c)

A saturated fatty acid

d)

A triglyceride

168.

What type of bond joins glycerol to fatty acid molecules?

a)

Peptide bond

b)

Glycosidic bond

c)

Ester bond

d)

Double bond

169.

Which reactants are needed to form soap?

a)

A wax and a phospholipid

b)

A triglyceride and a strong base

c)

A steroid and glycerol

d)

A phosphate group and a fatty acid

170.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
171.

Which technique would be most appropriate to indicate the three-dimensional structure of a molecule?

a)

X-ray crystallography

b)

mass spectroscopy

c)

chromatography

d)

infrared spectroscopy

172.

In X-ray crystallography the crystals are usually produced by:

a)

rapidly cooling supersaturated solutions.

b)

slowly cooling unsaturated solutions.

c)

rapidly cooling unsaturated solutions.

d)

slowly cooling supersaturated solutions.

173.

A sample is analysed using mass spectroscopy and the following results are obtained. The base peak for this sample has an m/z value of:

a)

98

b)

83

c)

55

d)

29

174.

The fingerprint region in an infrared spectrum is the most useful region because:

a)

it contains all the troughs

b)

it is the same for all molecules with the same functional group

c)

each molecule will produce a different pattern in this region due to complex bending.

d)

it contains all the peaks for the molecule.

175.

A sample of a hydrocarbon is analysed using a mass spectrometer and the following mass spectrum is obtained. Given that the compound is known to be an alkane, it is most likely to be:

a)

propane.

b)

butane.

c)

pentane.

d)

Methyl propane

176.

A sample of ethanol is analysed using mass spectroscopy. From the data in the mass spectrum what is the fragment producing the base peak?

a)

CH3CH2OH+

b)

CH3CH2+

c)

CH2OH+

d)

OH+

177.
The mobile phase in paper chromatography is typically a
a)
plasma
b)
solid
c)
gas
d)
liquid
178.
The retention factor is used
a)
to zero the chromatography scale
b)
to identify unknown compounds in a sample
c)
to retain solvent
d)
as a starting tool for chromatography
179.
A high Rf value indicates strong
a)
strong affinity to the stationary phase
b)
strong affinity to the mobile phase
c)
no affinity to the stationary phase
d)
 no affinity to the stationary phase
180.

The diagram below shows a chromatogram obtained when a sample X was analysed together with four other known dyes P, Q, R and S. Dye Q was known to cause cancer. Which of the following dye(s) is/are safe for use?

a)

P only

b)

S only

c)

P and S

d)

P and X

181.
The Rf value  for the blue component is 
a)
0.3
b)
0.7
c)
10
d)
3
182.

Which technique separates charged particles using electric field?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Electrophoresis

c)

Protein synthesis

d)

Protein denaturing

183.

Proteins can be visualized directly in gels by

a)

staining them with the dye

b)

using electron microscope only

c)

measuring their molecular weight

d)

none of these

184.

In isoelectric focusing, proteins are separated on the basis of their

a)

relative content of positively charged residue only

b)

relative content of negatively charged residue only

c)

size

d)

relative content of positively and negatively charged residue

185.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

186.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
187.

Consider the production of 2-chloro-2-methylpropane in the following reaction:

(CH3)3COH + HCl --> (CH3)3CCl + H2O

What is the atom economy for the above reaction?

(Relative atomic masses: H = 1.0, C = 12.0, O = 16.0, Cl = 35.5)

a)

50.0%

b)

67.0%

c)

83.7%

d)

95.0%

188.

Which of the following types of reaction has the greatest value of atom economy?

a)

Substitution

b)

Addition

c)

Elimination

d)

Condensation

189.

Which of the following are sources of biomass to replace natural gas as the feedstock of many industrial processes?

(1) Seaweed from large-scale farming

(2) Waste paper from schools and offices

(3) Methane gas from landfill sites

a)

(1) and (2) only

b)

(1) and (3) only

c)

(2) and (3) only

d)

(1), (2) and (3)

190.
CH4  +  2O2  →  CO2  +  2H2O
24 grams of CH4 was added to the above reaction. Calculate the theoretical yield of CO2.
a)
66 grams
b)
132 grams
c)
33 grams
d)
8.72
191.
The ______________ yield is the maximum amount of product possible in a reaction. This determines the amount of product that should be produced in a perfect setting
a)
Percent
b)
actual
c)
stoichiometry
d)
theoretical
192.

When reacting Na with Cl2, we calculated that the theoretical yield should be 13 grams. Our actual yield was 12.5 grams. What is the percent yield?

a)

90.4%

b)

104%

c)

96.15%

d)

1.04%

193.

The reaction of 25.0 g benzene, C6H6, with excess HNO3 resulted in 21.4 g C6H5NO2. What is the percentage yield?

C6H6 + HNO3 → C6H5NO2 + H2O

a)

100%

b)

27.39%

c)

54.29%

d)

85.62%

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