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6-11 exam

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Calcitriol is the most active form of _____________.

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosporus

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K

2.

The result of calcium and phosphate levels in blood that are too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called ___________ in children and ___________ in adults.

a)

Rickets;Osteomalacia

b)

Osteomalacia;Rickets

c)

Blah

d)

Blah

3.

A decrease in the mineral content of bone can cause the bone to soften.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

___________ gives bone the ability to resist compression, whereas ____________ resists tension.

a)

Collagen;Matrix

b)

Minerals;Callagen

c)

Calcium;Phosphorus

d)

Collagen;minerals

5.

_______________ are common in compact bone but rarely seen in spongy bone.

a)

lamellae

b)

Osteocytes

c)

Central canals

d)

Lacunae

6.

The cells that deposit bone matrix are called ______________

a)

Osteoblasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteons

7.

Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except

a)

Blood clotting

b)

Muscle contraction

c)

DNA synthesis

d)

Exocytosis

8.

Due to vertebral compression fractures, osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature.

a)

True 

b)

False

9.

Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in adults.

a)

True 

b)

False

10.

In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is _____________, which is replaced by bone.

 

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

soft embryonic connective tissue

d)

transitional epithelium

11.

Intramembranous ossification is responsible for the formation of the

a)

short bones of the ankle

b)

long bones of the limbs

c)

flat bones of the skull

d)

short bones of the wrist

12.

The antagonist for the triceps brachii is the

a)

anconeus

b)

supinator

c)

biceps brachii

d)

teres minor

13.

All of the following are functions of muscles except

a)

stability

b)

control of openings

c)

secretion

d)

respiration

14.

Which of the following activities would increase a muscle's resistance to fatigue?

a)

Bench pressing

b)

Driving a golf ball

c)

Training for a marathon

d)

Sprinting

15.

In skeletal muscle, alternating light and dark bands are termed

a)

strabismus

b)

myoblasts

c)

striations

d)

treppe

16.

The training regimen of a competitive weight lifter is designed partly to

a)

convert certain parallel muscles into stronger pennate muscles

b)

lower the threshold for muscle excitation

c)

increase the size of his motor units

d)

increase the average number of myofibrils per muscle fiber

17.

The neurotransmitter that is excitatory for skeletal muscles is called

a)

 

norepinephrine

b)

dopamine

c)

acetylcholine

d)

acetylcholinesterase

18.

The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to which of the following?

a)

Muscle wasting

b)

Flaccid paralysis

c)

Tetanus

d)

Numbness

19.

Which muscle type depends solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its calcium source?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Skeletal and smooth muscle

d)

Smooth and cardiac muscle

20.

The longest muscle in the human body is the:

a)

iliopsoas

b)

semitendinosus

c)

sartorius

d)

semimembranosus

21.

Release of acetylcholine at a neuromuscular junction

a)

increases permeability of the sarcolemma to Na +

b)

 

decreases the positive charge on the sarcolemma

c)

overrides theinhibitory effect of acetylcholinesterase

d)

decreases the release of Ca 2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

22.

Which of the following does not contribute to a person's tolerance to prolonged exercise?

a)

The amount of glucose stored in the muscle

b)

The speed with which acetylcholinesterase catalyzes reactions

c)

The number of mitochondria in the muscle cell

d)

Physical conditioning (improving maximal rate of oxygen uptake)

23.

Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac muscle

c)

Smooth and cardiac muscle

d)

Skeletal, smooth,and cardiac muscle

24.

To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the synaptic cleft.

a)

axon terminal

b)

junctional folds

c)

sarcolemma

d)

terminal cisterns

25.

Aerobic respiration produces approximately _____ more ATPs than anaerobic fermentation.

a)

 

24

b)

 

28

c)

100

d)

48

26.

Which of the following would be caused by contraction of smooth muscle?

a)

Release of urine from the urinary bladder

b)

Elevating the eyebrows

c)

Deep inspiration

d)

Blinking the eyelids

27.

Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history. Scientifically one would expect him to have highly developed

a)

red muscle

b)

slow-twitch fibers

c)

white muscle

28.

Exposure to Clostridium tetani causes continuous release of acetylcholine. What effect does this have on smooth muscle?

a)

Flaccid paralysis

b)

 

No effect

c)

Lockjaw

d)

Spastic paralysis

29.

Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. These drugs

a)

prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle

b)

prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax

c)

prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle

30.

After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially kiss using which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?

a)

Depressor angulioris

b)

Orbicularisoris

c)

Platysma

d)

Quadricepsfemoris

31.

When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?

a)

Pronator quadratus

b)

Pronator teres

c)

Buccinator

d)

Supinator

32.

There are four kinds of CNS glial cells and two kinds of PNS glial cells.

a)

true

b)

false

33.

Neurotransmitters are stored within the ____________ of the presynaptic neuron.

a)

axon

b)

dendrites

c)

synaptic vesicles

d)

  neurosoma

34.

The layers of the plasma membrane of Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes that cover axons are called the ___________.

a)

myelin sheath

b)

endoneurium

c)

epineurium

d)

soma

35.

Opening of sodium gates typically leads to ___________.

a)

repolarization of the plasma membrane

b)

depolarization of the plasma membrane

c)

drifting of plasma membrane voltage toward a more negative value

d)

plasma membrane voltage returning to the resting membrane potential

36.

The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except _________.

a)

 

cervical

b)

pelvic

c)

 

sacral

d)

thoracic

37.

Epidural anesthesia is introduced in the epidural space between the________ to block pain signals during child birth.

a)

vertebrae and dura mater

b)

dura mater and arachnoid mater

c)

dura mater and pia mater

d)

arachnoid mater and pia mater

38.

______ form the myelin sheath in the spinal cord.

a)

Schwann cells

b)

Astrocytes

c)

Oligodendrocytes

d)

Microglia

39.

A depolarization of the membrane makes the membrane potential less ___________.

Correct Answer  negative

a)

negative

b)

positive

c)

stable

40.

The brain and spinal cord are the two components of the ___________ nervous system.

a)

  central

b)

endocrine

c)

sensory

d)

glands

41.

In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to __________.

a)

contract and the antagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax

b)

relax and the hamstrings also to relax

c)

relax and the hamstrings to contract

d)

relax without any effect on the hamstrings

42.

When John begins to run, his muscles utilize oxygen and produce carbon dioxide. His body has receptors monitoring these conditions. When the levels stimulate a receptor, the heart rate and respiratory rate elevate to accommodate the change. This is an example of a ________ reflex.

a)

  stretch

b)

somatic

c)

  visceral

d)

withdrawal

43.

Which of the following is not a property of a reflex?

a)

 

Reflexes are responses to sensory inputs

b)

Reflexes are quick responses of the nervous system

c)

 

Reflexes are unpredictable actions of the nervous system

d)

Reflexes are not voluntary

44.

The stretch reflex of the quadriceps femoris muscle group causes it to contract. At the same time, the hamstring group relaxes. The hamstring group is effected by ___________

a)

the crossed-extensor reflex

b)

its own stretch reflex

c)

reciprocal inhibition

d)

the flexor reflex

45.

A quick, involuntary, predictable response to a stimulus is called a(n) __________.

a)

contraction

b)

reflex

c)

impulse

d)

integration

46.

Which of the following components of a reflex arc is not in the peripheral nervous system?

a)

Afferent neuron

b)

Efferent neuron

c)

 

Integrating center

d)

Effector

47.

Cones are responsible for _______ vision and are classified by the __________ of light they respond to

a)

color;wavelength

b)

scotopic; frequency

c)

night; intensity

d)

photopic; intensity

48.

Daylight striking the retina causes rods to signal an action potential in the optic nerve.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Rods respond to shades of grays and reds.

a)

true 

b)

false

50.

As you age, it may become difficult to view objects close to the eye clearly, such as the text in a book. This could be due to a decrease in the lens function called_________.

a)

emmetropia

b)

accommodation

c)

convergence

d)

refraction

51.

The relatively relaxed state of the eye focusing on objects greater than 6 meters away is called ___________.

a)

hyperopia

b)

myopia

c)

emmetropia

d)

astigmatism

52.

The ___________ allows us to identify and interpret visual stimuli, as well as form new short- or long-term visual memories.

a)

visual association area

b)

primary visual cortex

c)

optic chiasm

d)

temporal lobe

53.

The __________ are responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision.

a)

cones

b)

ganglioncells

c)

rod

d)

pigmentedepithelia

54.

What is a sensation?

a)

A response of asensory receptor

b)

 

A subjectiveawareness of a stimulus

c)

A response to anyconscious stimulus

d)

A response of asensory organ

55.

Which of the following is not a primary taste sensation?

a)

Umami

b)

Salty

c)

Spicy

d)

Sour

56.

The nerve signals generated by the retinal cells are transmitted to ___________, which carries them to the central nervous system.

a)

cranial nerveI

b)

the olfactorynerve

c)

cranial nerveII

d)

the oculomotornerve

57.

Pain, heat, and cold are detected by ___________.

a)

tactile corpuscles

b)

lamellarcorpuscles

c)

free nerveendings

d)

lamellarcorpuscles

58.

A structure specialized to detect a stimulus is called a sensation.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

Which taste sensation is produced by amino acids such as aspartic acid and glutamic acid?

a)

Salty

b)

Umami

c)

Sour

d)

Bitter

60.

Pain from a laceration of the liver would be considered somatic pain.

a)

True 

b)

False

61.

The auditory ossicles are found in the inner ear.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Which of the following structures is part of the inner ear?

a)

Malleus

b)

  Incus

c)

Cochlea

d)

Stapes

63.

When the head rotates, endolymph in asemicircular duct lags behind, which causes the ________ to bend and trigger hair cells.

a)

macula

b)

cupula

c)

utricle

d)

otolithicmembrane

64.

Which structure allows upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the tympanic cavity?

a)

The ovalwindow

b)

The auditory(eustachian) tube

c)

The vesitbule

d)

The cochlearduct

65.

What happens when the hair cells of the spiral organ bend?

a)

They release aneurotransmitter that excites the cochlear nerve

b)

The tectorialmembrane bends upward

c)

The basilarmembrane flattens out

d)

The waves ofendolymph in the cochlear ducts dampen

66.

A crista ampullaris is found within each of the ____________.

a)

scalae

b)

ampullae of thesemicircular ducts

c)

maculae

d)

vestibules

67.

Bone cells called ___________ have the greatest number of lysosomes.

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Osteoclats

c)

Osteocytes

d)

Osteoblasts

68.

Calcitriol is the most active form of _____________.

a)

Calcium

b)

Phosporus

c)

Vitamin D

d)

Vitamin K