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PPI midterm practice (v. 3.0)

Total questions: 186

Worksheet time: 3hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The inventor of the hot cathode x-ray tube was _?

a)

Crookes

b)

Roentgen

c)

Coolidge

d)

Edison

2.

The majority of radiography education programs are based in _?

a)

colleges

b)

clinics

c)

hospitals

d)

the Internet

3.

A cassette containing a photostimulable phosphor plate is one form of _?

a)

fluoroscope

b)

image receptor

c)

grid device

d)

transformer

4.

X-rays were discovered in 1895 _?

a)

United States

b)

England

c)

Germany

d)

China

5.

Which of the following is not basic requirement for the production of x-rays?

a)

A vacuum

b)

A source of electrons

c)

A photostimulable phosphor

d)

A target

6.

When fast-moving electrons collide with the target of an x-ray tube, the kinetic energy of their motion is converted ino x-rays and _?

a)

a space charge

b)

heat

c)

potential difference (voltage)

d)

scatter radiation

7.

Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Radio waves

b)

Gamma rays

c)

Microwaves

d)

Ultraviolet light

8.

Which of the following is not an accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays?

a)

They can penetrate matter that is impenerable to light.

b)

They can be refracted by a lens.

c)

They have an exposure effect on photographic emulsions.

d)

They cannot be detected by the human senses.

9.

The characteristic most often used to describe the energy of an x-ray beam is its _

a)

velocity

b)

space charge

c)

wavelength

d)

amplitude

10.

An x-ray beam that has been attenuated by matter is called _

a)

remnant radiation

b)

primary radiation

c)

secondary radiation

d)

scatter radiation

11.

A device used to indicate the location of the radiation field and to control its size is called a _

a)

grid

b)

collimator

c)

transformer

d)

control console

12.

An x-ray machine that permits viewing of the x-ray image in motion in real time is called _

a)

a control consoles

b)

a fluoroscope

c)

a collimator

d)

a bucky

13.

The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, kilovoltage, and _.

a)

optical density

b)

source-image distance

c)

object-image distance

d)

image detail

14.

The prime factor that control's the wavelength of the x-ray beam is _.

a)

milliamperage

b)

exposure time

c)

kilovoltage

d)

object-image distance

15.

The prime factor that controls the rate at which x-rays are produced is _.

a)

exposure time

b)

kilovoltage

c)

milliamperage-seconds

d)

milliamperage

16.

The mAs of an exposure is varied to provide control of _.

a)

optical density

b)

image contrast

c)

image detail

d)

radiographic distortion

17.

The imaging system that provides an instantaneus digital image on a monitor is called _.

a)

digital radiography

b)

computed radiogaphy

c)

film-screen radiography

d)

anatomical programming

18.

The hardware and software for managing digital images is called _?

a)

PACS

b)

CR

c)

DR

d)

AEC

19.

Which of the following factors is not affected by a change in the mA setting?

a)

optical density

b)

anode heat

c)

OID

d)

radiation intensity

20.

The inverse squares law states that the radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the _.

a)

mA

b)

SID

c)

T

d)

kVp

21.

A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called_.

a)

distortion

b)

image contrast

c)

definition

d)

density

22.

The product of dose in Grays times the WF is equal to the dose equivalent, which in the SI system is measured in units called _.

a)

rem

b)

Roentgens

c)

rad

d)

Sieverts

23.

One centigray (cGy) is equal to _.

a)

100 rad

b)

100 Sv

c)

1 rad

d)

1 R

24.

The laws of Bergonie and Tribondeau state that the sensitivity of cells to radiation injury depends upon four principal factors. The factors are cell age, cell complexity, the rate of replication, and _.

a)

the rate of energy use by the cell

b)

the cell's location within the body

c)

the rate at which the dose is delivered

d)

the weight of the individual

25.

Short-term, predictable radiation effects typically occur as a result of _.

a)

high doses of radiation exposure, such as those received in radiation therapy

b)

low doses of radiation, such as those received in diagnostic imaging

c)

occupational radiation exposure

d)

low-dose exposure during pregnancy

26.

The term radiation sickness refers to _.

a)

occupational radiation effects

b)

congenital illness owing to genetic effects

c)

short-term gastrointestinal effects

d)

any stochastic effect

27.

The effective does-equivalent limit for whole-body occupational radistion exposure to nonpregnant radiation workers older than 18 years is _.

a)

1.25 Gy per year

b)

5.0nGy per year

c)

5.0 mSv per year

d)

50 mSv per year

28.

Long-term radiation effects that are apparently random, and have no threshold amount of exposure that must be received for them to occur, are termed _.

a)

somatic

b)

genetic

c)

occupational

d)

stochastic

29.

Genes that are expressed in the individual are said to be _.

a)

mutated

b)

dominant

c)

random

d)

recessive

30.

Which of the following is a type of personal radiation dosimeter?

a)

SID

b)

kVp

c)

OSL

d)

OID

31.

When a pregnant patient requires abdominal or pelvic radiography, the decision to do a limited study and the determination of the exact limitations to be imposed are the prerogatives of the _.

a)

patient's physician

b)

radiologist

c)

patient

d)

radiographer

32.

The only recognized professional society open to all radiologic technologists in the United States today is the _.

a)

AVIR

b)

AHRA

c)

ASRT

d)

AARP

33.

Fee-for-service-type health insurance is often appealing to patients because _.

a)

the insurance company will reimburse the patient for covered costs.

b)

the patient does not have to pay the cost above what is covered by insurance.

c)

patients can seek care from their choice of physicians and hospitals.

d)

all of the above.

34.

The nationwide increase in patient visits to the emergency department is principally due to _.

a)

convenient hours.

b)

a lack of doctors who make house calls.

c)

lower costs per visit than doctors' office.

d)

the inability of patients to obtain low-cost health insurance.

35.

Medicare Advantage Plans help to cover health care costs for which type of patients?

a)

low-income families

b)

seniors older than 65 years

c)

homeless persons

d)

immigrants to the United States

36.

The day-to-day scheduling of staff in the radiography department is the responsibility of the _.

a)

radiologist

b)

lead radiographer or manager

c)

department secretary

d)

admitting clerk

37.

A pulmonologist who practices exclusively in a hospital intensive care unit may be referred to as _.

a)

a lung specialist

b)

an internist

c)

an intensivist

d)

a thoracic surgeon

38.

The designated eligibility groups for Medicaid are recognized by the _ , although the _ regulates who falls within these eligibility groups.

a)

federal government; state goverment

b)

state government; federal government

c)

state and federal governments; state government

d)

state and federal governments; federal government

39.

The Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy may be used:

a)

to develop job descriptions and performance appraisals

b)

by a lawyer to determine negligence or malpractice

c)

both A and B

d)

neither A or B

40.

The ASRT has approximately how many members?

a)

120,000 to 130,000

b)

130,000 to 140,000

c)

140,000 to 150,000

d)

150,000 to 160,000

41.

Which criterion does the Joint Commission (the accrediting agency for hospitals) not use to certify that a hospital meets a certain minimum standards?

a)

Education

b)

Equipment

c)

Safety

d)

Funding

42.

A moral agent is one who:

a)

behaves correctly

b)

is responsible for implementing an ethical decision

c)

judges the morality of others

d)

analyzes ethical dilemmas

43.

"A response in which understanding and compassion are accompanied by an objective detachment that enables you to act appropriately." This phrase describes _.

a)

aggressiveness

b)

assertiveness

c)

empathy

d)

sympathy

44.

Which of the following is not a component of ethical analysis?

a)

Identifying the problem

b)

Determining who is at fault

c)

Developing alternative solutions

d)

Defending your selection

45.

The neglect or omission of reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed _.

a)

malfeasance

b)

malpractice

c)

misdemeanor

d)

malapropism

46.

Which of the following statements about diagnostic images is true?

a)

They do not need to be kept confidential because they do not contain written information.

b)

They belong to the patient when they have been paid for by the patient or his or her insurance company.

c)

They are part of the legal medical record.

d)

They may be discarded or deleted as soon as the report has been sent to the patient's physician.

47.

Arm and leg restraits applied without either the patient's permission or a physician's order could result in charges of _.

a)

false imprisonment

b)

negligence

c)

invasion of privacy

d)

battery

48.

Standards of correct behavior by professional groups are called _.

a)

morals

b)

Codes of Ethics

c)

torts

d)

regulations

49.

A patient has the right to revoke consent with regard to a risky procedure:

a)

before the procedure begins

b)

during the procedure

c)

after the procedure ends

d)

both A and B

50.

Health care providers may disclose a patient's protected health information without the patient's consent to:

a)

another physician providing care to the patient

b)

the patient's employer

c)

the patient's family

d)

the news media

51.

In which state is there a law protecting a patient's right to die with dignity?

a)

Texas

b)

Alaska

c)

Oregon

d)

Wyoming

52.

Which of the following terms best describes assertive behavior?

a)

Forceful

b)

Persuasive

c)

Firm

d)

Argumentative

53.

When instructions are given to a non-English-speaking patient, it is best to:

a)

speak English slowly and firmly

b)

use a sympathetic family member who speaks English

c)

draw detailed pictures

d)

use a trained interpreter

54.

Deaf patients and hearing impaired patients differ in that the deaf patients:

a)

will not respond to sounds outside their field of vision

b)

may use ASL as their primary means of communication

c)

often move socially within a deaf community

d)

all of the above

55.

When dealing with a hostile patient it is important to:

a)

gain control of the situation with a loud, firm voice

b)

use nonverbal behavior to show disapproval

c)

limit confusion by dealing with the situation alone

d)

ask for help before the situation escalates

56.

Which of the following statements is true with respect to individuals with decreased levels of consciousness?

a)

They are not responsible for their actions or answer

b)

They are likely to be violent when regaining consciousness

c)

They cannot hear while unconscious

d)

They do not need help going to the bathroom

57.

When dealing with preschool children, it is important to:

a)

calm them by giving them many choices

b)

let them

know who is in charge

c)

keep directions simple, direct, and honest

d)

tell a crying child, "Stop that, or we can't take all the pictures!"

58.

Grief caused by death or loss may be characterize by expressions of:

a)

Anger

b)

Denial

c)

Depression

d)

All of the above

59.

Cultural differences can result in differing perceptions of which of the following behaviors?

a)

Eye contact

b)

A casual hug

c)

A loud, firm voice

d)

All of the above

60.

The onset of chronic conditions is most common during which of the life sugar?

a)

Adolescence

b)

Young adult

c)

Middle adult

d)

Old adult

61.

Which of the following characteristics is not typical of adolescents?

a)

They tend to move at a slower pace

b)

They fear threats to their physical appearance

c)

Modesty and privacy are of paramount importance

d)

They are capable of understanding abstract concepts.

62.

The most likely cause of a fire in an imaging department is:

a)

spontaneous combustion

b)

open flames

c)

cigarette smoking

d)

an electrical problem

63.

The federal agency governing workplace safety in the United States is _

a)

OSHA

b)

ARRT

c)

FDA

d)

CCD

64.

Which of the following is not a typical component of a spill kit?

a)

nitrile gloves

b)

mop

c)

kitty litter

d)

plastice bags

65.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the radiographer in case of fire?

a)

Assess the situation and direct the activities of others.

b)

Evacuate the immediate area.

c)

Report the fire using the proper procedure.

d)

Reassure patients so that they do not become an alarmed

66.

The most common types of workplace disabilities reported by health care workers are:

a)

vision problems

b)

respiratory disorders

c)

musculoskeletal disorders

d)

allergies

67.

MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of:

a)

a fall

b)

a fire

c)

a chemical spill

d)

an electrical problem

68.

The study of workplace injury prevention is called:

a)

body mechanics

b)

ergonomics

c)

environmental protection

d)

material data safety

69.

Fires start when three elements occur in the same place at the same time. These three elements are oxygen, excessive heat, and:

a)

electricity

b)

water

c)

fuel

d)

smoke

70.

Eighty percent of imaging technologists experience some form of work-related injury, usually in the form of RMIs and RSIs affecting the shoulder, arm, or wrist, if their area of specialization is:

a)

sonography

b)

radiography

c)

computed tomography

d)

magnetic resonance imaging

71.

Stress due to repetitive motion, overreaching, or maintaining the same positions for long periods causes:

a)

back strain

b)

vision problems

c)

carpal tunnel syndrome

d)

microtrauma to the muscle tissue

72.

Which of the following substances is most readily penetrated by x-rays?

a)

Air

b)

Water

c)

Fat

d)

Bone

73.

What is a rad?

a)

A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

b)

radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air

c)

A radiation unit used to measure patient dose

d)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

74.

An electron cloud surrounding a hot cathode is referred to as a(n):

a)

ampere

b)

filament

c)

focusing cup

d)

space charge

75.

X-rays are a type of:

a)

electromagnetic energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

microwave

d)

electricity

76.

An x-ray machine designed for direct viewing of the x-ray image is called a(n):

a)

control console

b)

transformer

c)

fluoroscope

d)

image receptor

77.

Which of the following statements best describes the current knowledge regarding the effects of exposure to low doses (<20 rad) of ionizing radiation?

a)

It causes cancer after a certain amount of radiation has been received.

b)

Birth defects will occur if the patient is pregnant.

c)

There is increased risk of cancer, leukemia, birth defects, and cataracts.

d)

Depression of the white blood cell count is followed by acute gastrointestinal distress.

78.

Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?

a)

X-rays

b)

Ultraviolet light

c)

Visible light

d)

Radio waves

79.

The current across the x-ray tube is measured in units of:

a)

kilovolts

b)

roentgens

c)

rads

d)

milliamperes

80.

What is meant by WF?

a)

A radiation unit used to measure patient dose

b)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

c)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

d)

A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

81.

The access point for the radiographer to determine the exposure factors and to initiate the exposure is called the:

a)

image receptor unit

b)

transformer

c)

control console

d)

stationary grid

82.

What is a Gy?

a)

A radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air

b)

A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

c)

A radiation unit used to measure patient dose

d)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

83.

An imaginary photon that is emitted from the center of the focal spot, perpendicular to the long axis of the x-ray tube, is called the:

a)

electron stream

b)

x-ray beam

c)

central ray

d)

radiation field

84.

The effective dose limit for whole-body radiation in 1 year for a nonpregnant radiation worker over the age of 18 is:

a)

5 millirem

b)

5 rem

c)

50 rem

d)

0.5 rem

85.

The frequency of an electromagnetic sine wave is defined as:

a)

the velocity at which the wave travels through space.

b)

the distance from trough to crest.

c)

the distance from one crest to the next.

d)

the number of times per second that a crest passes a given point.

86.

What is a TLD?

a)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

b)

A radiation unit used to measure patient dose

c)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

d)

A radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air

87.

What is an Sv?

a)

A radiation unit used to measure patient dose

b)

A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

c)

A radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air

d)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

88.

The function of an x-ray grid is to:

a)

decrease patient radiation dose.

b)

increase radiographic resolution.

c)

increase radiographic density.

d)

increase radiographic contrast by reducing scatter radiation fog.

89.

X-rays were discovered in 1895 by:

a)

Roentgen

b)

Crookes

c)

Coolidge

d)

Edsiion

90.

What is an rem?

a)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

b)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

c)

A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

d)

A radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air

91.

The container for the vacuum of the x-ray tube is made of:

a)

glass

b)

aluminum

c)

carbon

d)

tungsten

92.

A physician specialist in medical imaging who interprets diagnostic images and provides reports to referring physicians is called a(n):

a)

radiologist

b)

hospitalist

c)

imagist

d)

oncologist

93.

Which of the following offers a valid choice?

a)

“Would you mind lying down on this table?”

b)

“What is your doctor’s name?”

c)

“Would you like to use the restroom before we begin?”

d)

“Please hold your breath.”

94.

The first phase of experience in the grieving process is usually the stage of:

a)

denial

b)

acceptance

c)

depression

d)

anger

95.

A negative and destructive response to the chronic strain of dealing with the demands and problems of others that is characterized by exhaustion, dissatisfaction, anxiety, and eventually apathy is called:

a)

burnout

b)

empathy

c)

objectivity

d)

sympathy

96.

Formal education beyond the minimum needed to practice radiography is NOT usually required to obtain a position as a:

a)

nuclear medicine technologist

b)

radiology manager

c)

radiography educator

d)

lead technologist

97.

Which of the following organizations provides accreditation for health care institutions?

a)

OSHA

b)

JRCERT

c)

ASRT

d)

TJC

98.

If you observe unethical or unprofessional conduct during the course of your work, you should first report your observations to:

a)

the police

b)

the American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT)

c)

the hospital administrator

d)

your immediate supervisor

99.

The failure to use reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed:

a)

malpractice

b)

battery

c)

slander

d)

misdemeanor

100.

Which of the following listings does NOT accurately complete the sentence? Written communications among hospital workers must be _____.

a)

legible

b)

pertinent

c)

in complete sentences

d)

accurate

101.

Mrs. Burns has been waiting to hear the results of the magnetic resonance imaging scan that has been performed on her daughter. Her continuous rude interruptions and loud demands for information are very annoying. Her behavior is most likely a reflection that:

a)

the procedure is taking too long

b)

the staff is incompetent

c)

she does not understand medical procedures

d)

she is frightened

102.

A profession might be thought of as:

a)

a job that requires an advanced academic degree.

b)

any occupation that has a long history.

c)

an organized occupational group that applies specialized knowledge to benefit others.

d)

a group of health care workers with similar job descriptions.

103.

When communication has been validated, this means that the speaker has:

a)

spoken clearly

b)

received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension

c)

reviewed the material

d)

presented the information accurately

104.

Which of the following would you NOT expect to find in a patient chart using the problem-oriented medical record (POMR) charting system?

a)

A problem list

b)

A treatment plan

c)

Chronological nurses' notes concerning the patient's condition

d)

A statement of allergies

105.

Which of the following is an example of appropriate assertiveness by a radiographer?

a)

“You take this case; I’ve already done my share.”

b)

“Someone has got to help with this case.”

c)

“I hate cases like this!”

d)

“Please come now. I need help with this case.”

106.

If a radiographer attempts to gain a patient’s cooperation by threatening harm, this offense is termed:

a)

assault

b)

battery

c)

slander

d)

invasion of privacy

107.

When a patient becomes hostile and threatening, which of the following strategies is NOT appropriate?

a)

Maintain a safe path between yourself and the door.

b)

Leave the room.

c)

Say loudly, “Stop this now or I’ll call the police.”

d)

Call for assistance.

108.

When a patient has impaired hearing, which of the following strategies is LEAST likely to be helpful?

a)

Shout loudly with your lips close to the patient’s ear.

b)

Face the patient while speaking.

c)

Provide written instructions.

d)

Speak in a quiet place to minimize background noise.

109.

An attitude that involves hostility or anger is termed:

a)

aggressiveness

b)

rudeness

c)

aggressiveness

d)

empathy

110.

A law enacted under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to protect the privacy rights of patients is called the:

a)

Healthcare Privacy Act (HPA).

b)

Privacy and Confidentiality Assurance Act (PCAA).

c)

Consumer Assurance of Radiologic Excellence (CARE).

d)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA).

111.

Which of the following is the most effective way to meet legal requirements when obtaining an informed consent from a patient who does not speak English?

a)

Ask the patient’s family to help.

b)

Provide a pen and point to the correct signature line.

c)

Use facial expressions and gestures to explain.

d)

Obtain a qualified interpreter.

112.

When a fire extinguisher is needed, you should:

1. pull the pin and squeeze the handle.

2. aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.

3. aim steadily where the fire appears hottest.

4. use a sweeping motion from side to side.

a)

1 and 3 only

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 4 only

d)

1, 2, and 4 only

113.

The voluntary peer review process in which an agency grants recognition to an institution in meeting an established criterion is known as

a)

Justification

b)

Paternalism

c)

Certification

d)

Accreditation

114.

A patient has the right to revoke consent with regard to a risky procedure:

a)

before the procedure begins

b)

after the procedure ends

c)

during the procedure

d)

both A and B

115.

Incident reports should be completed for any fall, accident, or occurrence that results in injury involving:

1. patients.

2. visitors.

3. members of hospital staff.

a)

1, 2, and 3

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

1 and 2 only

116.

Mrs. Elizabeth Dunbar is 86 years old and a bit confused. She is most likely to respond appropriately if you address her as:

a)

Betty

b)

Elizabeth

c)

Sweetie

d)

Mrs. Dunbar

117.

An electrolarynx is a device that assists communication for some who have:

a)

organic brain syndrome.

b)

an inability to speak normally.

c)

congenital deafness.

d)

amnesia

118.

If there is a fire in your immediate area, the FIRST thing you should do is:

a)

close the fire doors.

b)

shout “Fire!”

c)

call a fire code.

d)

evacuate the area.

119.

Which of the following is the most effective way to meet legal requirements when obtaining an informed consent from a patient who does not speak English?

a)

Use facial expressions and gestures to explain.

b)

Ask the patient’s family to help.

c)

Obtain a qualified interpreter.

d)

Provide a pen and point to the correct signature line.

120.

The most common cause of back strain is:

a)

lifting more than 30 pounds.

b)

pushing heavy equipment on wheels.

c)

bending and twisting while lifting.

d)

lifting while keeping the back straight.

121.

When a qualified interpreter is used for non–English-speaking patients, the interpreter will:

a)

edit the conversation to save valuable time.

b)

insist that the family remain in the room for legal protection.

c)

tell the patient what is likely to happen.

d)

translate only what is said by and to the patient.

122.

During a patient transfer from a stretcher to an x-ray examination table, the technologist fails to secure the side rail of the stretcher and the patient falls to the floor fracturing her hip. This action would constitute a/an

a)

Battery

b)

Res Ipsa Loquitor

c)

Tort

d)

Both A and D

123.

A valid choice when interacting with patients would include the following except

a)

Use nonverbal communication to alleviate fears

b)

Focus on their ailment only and radiograph the disease

c)

Treat patient with dignity and as individuals allowing them to make valid choices

d)

Provides patient with a sense of participation in his or her care

124.

Which of the following hospital departments provides support services?

a)

Purchasing

b)

Surgery

c)

Pediatrics

d)

Radiology

125.

The acronym RACE is a helpful way to remember:

a)

the steps involved in cleaning up a hazardous spill

b)

the basic principles of body mechanics

c)

the steps to follow in the event of a fire

d)

the steps for using a fire extinguisher

126.

When possible, what is the best way to move a heavy object?

a)

Drag

b)

Push

c)

Lift

d)

Pull

127.

MSDS documents are likely to be needed in the event of

a)

a fall

b)

a fire

c)

a chemical spill

d)

an electrical problem

128.

The hypothetical center of gravity in a human being is located at the approximate level of

a)

L1

b)

S2

c)

T12

d)

L4

129.

A profession might be thought of as:

a)

any occupation that has a long history

b)

group of healthcare workers with similar job descriptions

c)

a job that requires an advanced academic degree

d)

an organized occupational group that applies specialized knowledge to benefit others.

130.

In the language of body mechanics, the center of gravity refers to:

a)

an imaginary horizontal line passing through the shoulders.

b)

an imaginary vertical line passing through the center of the body.

c)

a line between the points of contact with a horizontal surface.

d)

the point around which body weight is balanced.

131.

A legal charge of battery may result if a patient is:

a)

verbally threatened.

b)

slapped.

c)

restrained without a physician’s order.

d)

allowed to fall.

132.

The term ethics refers to:

a)

the need for confidentiality.

b)

legal responsibility.

c)

professional liability.

d)

moral principles or values.

133.

Which of the following statements is true with regard to comatose patients?

a)

They do not need side rails because they cannot move.

b)

They may hear and comprehend while apparently unconscious.

c)

They are unable to swallow.

d)

They are always confused when first awakened.

134.

When an Asian patient is apprehensive about the examination, you should:

a)

use sign language to communicate.

b)

show friendliness by placing your arm around his shoulders.

c)

maintain eye contact while providing reassurance.

d)

maintain a respectful distance, use a calm voice, and smile while minimizing eye contact.

135.

The Pigg-O-Stat is used to immobilize infants for:

a)

gastrointestinal radiography.

b)

extremity radiography.

c)

upright chest radiography.

d)

supine abdomen radiography.

136.

If you smell smoke and smoldering insulation in the area of an x-ray control panel, the first thing you should do is:

a)

evacuate the area.

b)

call for an x-ray service engineer.

c)

call a fire code.

d)

turn off the main power switch.

137.

If you smell smoke and smoldering insulation in the area of an x-ray control panel, the first thing you should do is:

a)

evacuate the area.

b)

call for an x-ray service engineer.

c)

call a fire code.

d)

turn off the main power switch.

138.

Which of the following sources of fire hazard has the greatest potential of occurring in radiology departments?

a)

Cigarette smokers

b)

Spontaneous combustion

c)

Open flames

d)

Electricity

139.

Fire marshals state that common infractions of fire safety rules in hospitals involve:

1. improper storage of flammables.

2. fire doors blocked open.

3 unapproved extension cords.

4 storing equipment in corridors.

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

1, 2, 3, and 4

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

1, 2, and 3 only

140.

When family members make angry and persistent demands on the staff, this is most likely the result of:

a)

a lack of confidence in your ability.

b)

habitual rudeness.

c)

normal frustration with the hospital system.

d)

fear over the condition of their relative.

141.

Intentional Torts would include the following except

a)

Invasion of privacy

b)

Violation of licensing regulation

c)

Defamation

d)

Fraud

e)

False imprisonment

142.

The acronym PASS is a helpful way to remember:

a)

the basic principles of body mechanics.

b)

the steps in preparing a patient for transport.

c)

the steps involved in cleaning up a hazardous spill.

d)

the steps for using a fire extinguisher.

143.

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations?

1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation

2. Performing an examination on a wrong patient

3. Discussing a patient’s condition with a third party

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 only

c)

1 and 2 only

d)

2 and 3 only

144.

The term recumbent refers to a position in which the patient is:

a)

seated

b)

upright

c)

lying down

d)

supine with the head elevated

145.

The age level where a child has increasing social and verbal activity is:

a)

Toddler

b)

Pre-school years

c)

Infant

d)

Adolescents

146.

Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Ultraviolet light

b)

X-rays

c)

Radio waves

d)

Visible light

147.

The process in which the healthcare professional consciously influences a client or helps the client to a better understanding through verbal or nonverbal communication is called

a)

Subjective phrases

b)

Therapeutic

c)

Non-therapeutic

d)

Objectivity

e)

Informed consent

148.

When communicating with pediatric patients, we must remember to address them at eye level, maintain eye contact and:

a)

Speak with authority in your regular tone of voice

b)

Use as many immobilization devices as possible to ensure an optimal radiograph

c)

Move the equipment in a fashion that will seem intimidating to ensure cooperation

d)

Have a family member present during the exam to reinforce instructions

149.

In the language of body mechanics, the base of support refers to:

a)

the floor.

b)

a perpendicular line through the center of gravity.

c)

a line between the points of contact with a horizontal surface.

d)

the bottom of an object being lifted.

150.

______ is the national public institute that sets standards for the work safety.

a)

EPA

b)

FDA

c)

CDC

d)

OSHA

151.

When instructions are given to a non-English speaking patient, it is best to:

a)

Use a trained interpreter

b)

Speak English slowly and firmly

c)

Use a sympathetic family member who speaks English

d)

Draw detailed pictures e. Show empathy and use sign language

152.

What is the effect of grid use on image quality, as compared to an exposure made without a grid?

a)

Contrast is increased

b)

Image distortion is decreased

c)

Image detail is increased

d)

Optical density is increased

153.

The federal health insurance program in the United States that covers a portion of the medical care costs for those over age 65 is called:

a)

HMO

b)

Medicaid

c)

Medicare

d)

Eldercare

154.

Safety precautions for a pregnant radiographer should include:

1. wearing a fetal radiation monitor badge.

2. working assignments that permit her to stand behind a lead barrier during exposures.

3. working in an area of the hospital where radiation is not used.

a)

1 and 2 only

b)

3 only

c)

2 only

d)

1 only

155.

The organization that establishes minimum standards for certification in various imaging specialties and radiation therapy, conducts qualifying examinations, and certifies those who pass is called:

a)

ASRT

b)

AMA

c)

ARRT

d)

ACR

156.

The next logical step for an able and experienced radiographer to take without acquiring additional education, degrees, or certification when moving up the career ladder would likely be:

a)

lead technologist

b)

department manager

c)

special imaging technologist

d)

none. they all require further learning/certification

157.

The employment outlook for radiographers in the United States is:

a)

discouraging because of decreasing demand

b)

stable for the foreseeable future

c)

promising because of increasing demand

d)

impossible to judge

158.

The primary purpose of intensifying screens is to:

a)

protect the film from light and damage during radiography.

b)

reduce the quantity of radiation required to produce a satisfactory image.

c)

reduce the possibility of artifacts on the film.

d)

improve the definition on the radiograph.

159.

The purpose of the RadCARE bill is to ensure:

a)

the public is protected from inadequately trained workers

b)

patients know where to go to file a complaint

c)

all patients are treated promptly and efficiently

d)

radiographers wages are competitive

160.

An image receptor that contains a photostimulable plate that is converted to an image by processing with a laser is part of a system called:

a)

a film/screen system.

b)

digital fluoroscopy.

c)

computed radiography (CR).

d)

digital radiography (DR).

161.

When measuring occupational radiation dose, the type of unit used is:

a)

a radiation dose equivalent unit

b)

a radiation dose unit

c)

a radiation unit

d)

a radiation dose weighing unit

162.

If a technologist has a question about the imaging orders for a patient, who would be the best person to ask for clarification?

a)

The ordering doctor

b)

The unit secretary

c)

The patient's nurse

d)

The radiologist

163.

Radiation exposure is directly proportional to:

a)

SID

b)

mAs

c)

kVp

d)

OID

164.

Mandatory, specific, and enforceable standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all registered technologists are called:

a)

the Code of Ethics

b)

the Hippocratic Oath

c)

the Laws of Practice

d)

the Rule of Ethics

165.

What is an Sv?

a)

A radiation unit in the British system used to measure patient dose

b)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

c)

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

d)

A radiation unit in the SI system that is determined by measuring ionization of air

166.

An approach to healthcare in which the client seeks help only when unable to manage alone is called a(n) _______________approach.

a)

urgency care

b)

health maintenance

c)

preferred provider

d)

crisis intervention

167.

What is meant by R?

a)

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure patient dose

b)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

c)

A radiation unit in the British system that is determined by measuring ionization of air

d)

A device containing a crystal that absorbs radiation energy and discharges it in the form of light when heated

168.

What is a rad?

a)

A radiation unit in the British system used to measure patient dose

b)

A radiation unit in the British system that is determined by measuring ionization of air

c)

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

d)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

169.

A device used to control the size of the radiation field is a:

a)

filter

b)

detent

c)

collimator

d)

tube housing

170.

In order to increase the penetration of the x-ray beam, which of the following factors should be increased?

a)

Milliamperage

b)

Kilovoltage

c)

Exposure time

d)

mAs

171.

In order to increase the penetration of the x-ray beam, which of the following factors should be increased?

a)

Milliamperage

b)

Kilovoltage

c)

Exposure time

d)

mAs

172.

A physician who specializes in tumor identification and treatment is called a(n):

a)

toxicologist

b)

otologist

c)

podiatrist

d)

oncologist

173.

Which of the following does NOT represent a responsibility of the radiographer?

a)

Providing patients with complete and accurate information regarding diagnosis and treatment

b)

Providing the patient with considerate and respectful care

c)

Avoidance of discrimination in professional practice

d)

Keeping patient information confidential

174.

Magnification is affected by:

a)

OID only

b)

SID only

c)

both OID and SID

d)

neither OID and SID

175.

A four-step process for evaluating situations where the correct action is in question so that one can act appropriately and defend one’s actions is called:

a)

ethics consultation

b)

professional ethics.

c)

ethical analysis.

d)

ethical problem-solving.

176.

What is a Gy?

a)

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure patient dose

b)

A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types of radiation

c)

A radiation unit in the British system that is determined by measuring ionization of air

d)

A radiation unit in the SI system used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure

177.

A proprietary hospital is one that:

a)

is run by a charitable organization.

b)

is a business run for profit.

c)

is owned by the government.

d)

provides free healthcare for veterans.

178.

Which of the following will result in the lowest patient dose?

a)

Low kVp and high mAs

b)

High kVp and low mAs

c)

Long exposure time and short SID

d)

Low kVp and long exposure time

179.

An increase in OID will result in:

1. increased magnification.

2. decreased image detail.

3. increased image detail.

a)

2 only

b)

1 and 2

c)

1 only

d)

1 and 3

180.

The anode or positive end of the x-ray tube is the end that contains the:

a)

target

b)

filament

c)

space charge

d)

focusing cup

181.

A health maintenance organization provides:

a)

healthcare on a fee-for-service basis.

b)

preventive healthcare and other needed health services.

c)

free choice of physician and hospital.

d)

reduced rates for care by specialists.

182.

An image that is black in the darkest areas and white in the lightest areas is said to have:

a)

sharp detail

b)

high contrast

c)

low contrast

d)

poor detail

183.

Your friend is scheduled to have an arteriogram and is concerned about the safety of this procedure. She asks for your opinion. You should:

a)

encourage her to discuss her questions with her physician.

b)

look up information in her chart and call her later.

c)

tell her about the hazards of radiation exposure.

d)

tell her not to worry because the procedure is perfectly safe.

184.

Grids or buckys are generally used for body parts that measure greater than:

a)

30 cm

b)

10 - 12 cm

c)

18 - 20 cm

d)

2 - 4 cm

185.

Which of the following devices is NOT employed to reduce the hazards of radiation exposure to the patient?

a)

Gonad shield

b)

Collimator

c)

Bucky

d)

Intensifying screen

186.

Which of the following factors is used to control image contrast?

a)

mA

b)

SID

c)

OID

d)

radiation intensity