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TE 4 Mock 2 - SS1

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 3hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Oliver Rae, CFA, is an individual investment adviser specializing in commercial real estate. Rae recently packaged a real estate limited partnership (RELP), which he sold in a private placement to his existing advisory clients. Prior to the private placement, the partnerships had purchased four properties in which Rae held a 5% minority interest. According to the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, Rae should:
a)
A. manage the partnership separately from his advisory business.
b)
B. disclose conflicts related to the real estate he sold to the partnership.
c)
C. return all profits earned from his minority interest to the limited partners.
2.
Rose, a portfolio manager for a local investment advisory firm, is planning to sell a portion of his personal investment portfolio to cover the costs of his child’s academic tuition. Rose wants to sell a portion of his holdings in Household Products, but his firm recently upgraded the stock to “strong buy.” Which of the following describes Rose’s options under the Code and Standards?
a)
A. Based on his firm’s “buy” recommendation, Rose cannot sell the shares because he would be improperly prospering from the inflated recommendation.
b)
B. Rose is free to sell his personal holdings once his firm is properly informed of his intentions.
c)
C. Rose can sell his personal holdings but only when a client of the firm places an order to buy shares of Household.
3.
Margie Germainne, CFA, is a risk management consultant who has been asked by a small investment bank to recommend policies to prevent bank employees from front-running client orders. These clients generally invest in one or more of the bank’s large cap equity unit trusts. To ensure compliance with the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct, Germainne should least likely recommend which of the following? Employees should be restricted from trading:
a)
A. equity related securities.
b)
B. without prior permission.
c)
C. during established time periods.
4.
What is the theory that best describes the process by which financial analysts combine material public information and nonmaterial nonpublic information as a basis for investment recommendations even if those conclusions would have been material inside information had they been communicated directly to the analyst by the company?
a)
A. Mosaic theory
b)
B. Economic theory
c)
C. Probability theory
5.
Lewis McChord, CFA, a research analyst at an investment bank, covers the auto industry. McChord recently read a report on an auto manufacturing company written by Pierce Brown. Brown’s report provided extensive coverage of the company’s newly launched products indicating that sales volume, not yet publicly available, would raise future profits. Intrigued by the report, McChord called a senior executive at the company whom she has known personally for years. The officer gave her specific details on new vehicle sales, indicating that profits would double in the current quarter. McChord added this data to Brown’s report and then circulated it within her firm as her own report. McChord least likely violated which of the following CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Misrepresentation
b)
B. Preservation of Confidentiality
c)
C. Material Nonpublic Information
6.
Alexandra Zagoreos, CFA, is the head of a government pension plan. Whenever Zagoreos hires a money management firm to work with the pension plan, she finalizes the deal over dinner at a nice restaurant. At these meals, Zagoreos also arranges for the money manager to provide her payments equal to 10% of the management fee the manager receives from the pension plan with no formal documentation of this agreement. Zagoreos keeps half of the payments for her own use and distributes the remainder as cash incentives to a handful of her most trusted staff. Zagoreos least likely violated which of the following CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Referral fees.
b)
B. Loyalty, Prudence and Care.
c)
C. Additional Compensation Arrangements.
7.
Which of the following is least likely a phase in an ethical decision-making framework?
a)
A. Multiple iterations of analysis
b)
B. Reflection on the outcome versus what was anticipated
c)
C. Consideration of situational influences, additional guidance, and alternative actions
8.
A large manufacturing company is seeking help finding a fund manager for its pension plan. After a comprehensive but unsuccessful search, Brett Arun, CFA, is hired to solicit proposals from various fund managers. The client pays Arun a lump sum fee for his services. The search concludes with Ramport Investments being hired as the pension plan’s manager. A year after Ramport is hired, the pension administrator sends Arun a letter telling him how satisfied the pension trustees are with the services provided by the fund manager. Subsequently, without the plan sponsor’s knowledge, Arun receives a payment from Ramport for successfully introducing it to the pension plan under an agreement Arun entered into with Ramport when the initial contact with the fund manager was made. With regard to the payment received, did Arun most likely violate the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, because he did not disclose the referral fee to the client.
c)
C. Yes, because he should have refused payment from the fund manager.
9.
Which of the following statements clearly conflicts with the recommended procedures for compliance presented in the CFA Institute Standards of Practice Handbook?
a)
A. Firms should disclose to clients the personal investing policies and procedures established for their employees.
b)
B. Prior approval must be obtained for the personal investment transactions of all employees.
c)
C. For confidentiality reasons, personal transactions and holdings should not be reported to employers unless mandated by regulatory organizations.
10.
Christy Pasley, CFA, is the Chief Investment Officer for Risen Investment Funds (RIF) a mutual fund organization. At a meeting between Homeland Builders (HB), a publicly traded company, Pasley learns HB sales are much slower than expected. In fact, HB sales declined more than 20% in the last quarter, but this information has not yet been widely disseminated. Immediately after meeting with HB, Pasley purchases put options on HB stock. Subsequently, HB issues a press release with their most recent sales figures. Has Pasley most likely violated the CFA Institute Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Yes.
b)
B. No, because the securities purchased were options.
c)
C. No, because the information was obtained directly from the company.
11.
Priscilla Moab, CFA, is the director of marketing at Red Lantern Investments. Red’s investment approach uses technical and fundamental analysis as well as portfolio construction to minimize risk. Moab plans to market an online investment newsletter to retail clients. Moab decides to let prospective clients have access to Red’s buy and sell recommendation list by posting this information on a social media site. The posting also provides information on Red’s basic investment process and logic. To avoid violating the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct, Moab should most likely:
a)
A. describe the investment approach in detail.
b)
B. update investment process changes annually.
c)
C. indicate that additional information and analysis are available.
12.
Under what circumstances could a client possibly win a lawsuit against a financial adviser despite the financial adviser abiding by all regulatory and legal requirements?
a)
A. The adviser benefiting more from the relationship than the client
b)
B. The adviser not being subject to a code of ethics
c)
C. The adviser violating his employer’s published code of ethics
13.
Can an asset management firm who follows the GIPS standards for select performance composites claim that it is GIPS compliant?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, but only if those composites meet GIPS performance reporting requirements.
c)
C. Yes, but only if it uses the GIPS required return calculation requirements for all composites.
14.
Grey recommends the purchase of a mutual fund that invests solely in long-term US Treasury bonds. He makes the following statements to his clients: “The payment of the bonds is guaranteed by the US government; therefore, the default risk of the bonds is virtually zero.”<br />“If you invest in the mutual fund, you will earn a 10% rate of return each year for the next several years based on historical performance of the market.”<br />Did Grey’s statements violate the CFA Institute Code and Standards?
a)
A. Neither statement violated the Code and Standards.
b)
B. Only statement I violated the Code and Standards.
c)
C. Only statement II violated the Code and Standards.
15.
Alexandra Smirnov, CFA, is a pension consultant to the Springwell Pension Fund. After reviewing Springwell’s three-year performance presentation showing the fund’s underperformance relative to its investment objectives and agreed benchmarks, Smirnov recommends that the fund hire new asset managers. Smirnov proposes that the fund hire Newday Managers on the basis of recent meetings she has had with the firm. Lengthy discussions at these meetings included Newday’s investment strategy, its suitability to manage pension funds, its ability to adhere to its stated strategy, the firm’s historical investment performance, and its adoption of the CFA Institute Code and Standards. Smirnov turned down Newday’s offer of an introduction fee when recommending its services, but did not inform Springwell trustees of this offer. Which of the following CFA Institute Standards does Smirnov most likely violate?
a)
A. Referral Fees
b)
B. Loyalty, Prudence, and Care
c)
C. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
16.
Specialized knowledge and skills, a commitment to serve others, and a shared code of ethics best characterize a(n):
a)
A. vocation.
b)
B. profession.
c)
C. occupation.
17.
The belief that one’s ethical standards are above average is most likely a reflection of which of the following behavioral biases?
a)
A. Overconfidence
b)
B. Short-term focus
c)
C. Situational influence
18.
Nicholas Bennett, CFA, is a trader at a stock exchange. Another trader approached Bennett on the floor of the exchange and verbally harassed him about a poorly executed trade. In response, Bennett pushed the trader and knocked him to the ground. After investigating the incident, the exchange cleared Bennett from any wrongdoing. Which of the following best describes Bennett’s conduct in relation to the CFA Institute Code of Ethics or Standards of Professional Conduct? Bennett:
a)
A. did not violate any Code or Standard.
b)
B. violated the Professional Misconduct Standard.
c)
C. violated both Misconduct and Integrity of Capital Markets Standards.
19.
Which of the following situations most likely helps to explain why the GIPS standards were created?
a)
A. Firms only including top performing funds to represent their performance history.
b)
B. Asset managers including the performance of all portfolios including those no longer managed in their performance history.
c)
C. Consistency amongst fund managers when making investment performance presentations.
20.
Firms claiming compliance with GIPS standards are most likely required to:
a)
A. comply with all updates, interpretations, and clarifications.
b)
B. make negative assurance disclosures when presenting the firm’s performance.
c)
C. meet at least 85% of the requirements before claiming compliance.
21.
An investment management firm that does not adopt the GIPS standards could mischaracterize its overall performance by presenting a performance history:
a)
A. that includes terminated portfolios.
b)
B. composed of a single top-performing portfolio.
c)
C. for an investment mandate over all periods since the firm’s inception.
22.
Carter works for Invest Today, a local asset management firm. A broker that provides Carter with proprietary research through client brokerage arrangements is offering a new trading service. The broker is offering low-fee, execution-only trades to complement its traditional full-service, execution-and-research trades. To entice Carter and other asset managers to send additional business its way, the broker will apply the commissions paid on the new service toward satisfying the brokerage commitment of the prior full-service arrangements. Carter has always been satisfied with the execution provided on the full-service trades, and the new low-fee trades are comparable to the fees of other brokers currently used for the accounts that prohibit soft dollar arrangements.
a)
A. Carter can trade for his accounts that prohibit soft dollar arrangements under the new low-fee trading scheme.
b)
B. Carter cannot use the new trading scheme because the commissions are prohibited by the soft dollar restrictions of the accounts.
c)
C. Carter should trade only through the new low-fee scheme and should increase his trading volume to meet his required commission commitment.
23.
Albert and Tye, who recently started their own investment advisory business, have registered to take the Level III CFA examination. Albert’s business card reads, “Judy Albert, CFA Level II.” Tye has not put anything about the CFA designation on his business card, but promotional material that he designed for the business describes the CFA requirements and indicates that Tye participates in the CFA Program and has completed Levels I and II. According to the Standards:
a)
A. Albert has violated the Standards, but Tye has not.
b)
B. Tye has violated the Standards, but Albert has not.
c)
C. Both Albert and Tye have violated the Standards.
24.
Solomon Sulzberg, CFA, is a research analyst at Blue Water Management. Sulzberg’s recommendations typically go through a number of internal reviews before they are published. In developing his recommendations, Sulzberg uses a model developed by a quantitative analyst within the firm. Sulzberg made some minor changes to the model but retained the primary framework. In his reports, Sulzberg attributes the model to both the quantitative analyst and himself. Before the internal reviews of his reports were completed, Sulzberg buys shares in one of the companies. After the internal review is complete he fails to recommend the purchase of the stock to his clients and erases all of his research related to this company. Sulzberg least likely violated the CFA Institute Code of Ethics and Standards of Professional Conduct related to:
a)
A. Record Retention.
b)
B. Misrepresentation.
c)
C. Priority of Transactions.
25.
Sue Kim, CFA, a US citizen, works as an analyst for a subsidiary of a US investment firm on a small island that attracts offshore investment accounts. Local securities laws allow insider trading. While having dinner with the CEO of a local company, Kim learns that the firm is in negotiations to be acquired for a significant premium. Would Kim most likely comply with the CFA Institute Standards if she purchased the company’s shares for her client accounts?
a)
A. No.
b)
B. Yes, local laws allow insider trading.
c)
C. Yes, if she receives permission from compliance department.
26.
Norman Bosno, CFA, acts as an outside portfolio manager to a Sovereign Wealth Fund. Raphel Palmeti, a Fund official, approaches Bosno to interest him in investing in Starlite Construction Company. He tells Bosno if he approves a two million dollar investment in Starlite by the Fund, Bosno will receive a “bonus” that will make him wealthy. Palmeti also adds if Bosno decides not to invest, he will lose the Fund account. After doing a quick and simple analysis, Bosno determines the investment is too risky for the Fund. If Bosno agrees to make the investment, what Standard is least likely to be violated?
a)
A. Loyalty, Prudence, and Care
b)
B. Diligence and Reasonable Basis
c)
C. Additional Compensation Arrangements
27.
Hezi Cohen, a CFA candidate, is a heavy user of social networking sites on the Internet. His favorite site only allows a limited number of characters for each entry so he has learned to abbreviate everything, including CFA trademarks. Cohen also enjoys professional networking sites and contributes regularly to blogs that discuss the broad topical areas covered within the CFA Program. In addition, he posts to these blogs pieces he has written in his area of expertise: retirement planning. By claiming to be an expert on retirement planning, he believes his stature within the investment community increases and he can gain more clients. Which internet activity can Cohen most likely continue to be in compliance with the CFA Standards of Professional Conduct?
a)
A. Use of abbreviations.
b)
B. Claiming retirement planning expertise.
c)
C. Blogging about broad topical areas within the CFA Program.
28.
a)
A. €150,980.
b)
B. €150,460.
c)
C. €149,820.
29.
a)
A. −1,726.
b)
B. −1,648.
c)
C. −1,674.
30.
Which of the following indicators is most appropriate in predicting a turning point in the economy?
a)
A. The Industrial Production Index
b)
B. The average bank prime lending rate
c)
C. Average weekly hours, manufacturing
31.
a)
A. Reject the null hypothesis.
b)
B. Do not reject the null hypothesis.
c)
C. Not enough information provided to answer.
32.
a)
A. No No 
b)
B. No Yes
c)
C. Yes No 
33.
a)
A. 57.9.
b)
B. 87.7.
c)
C. 74.7.
34.
If inventory unit costs are increasing from period-to-period, a LIFO liquidation is most likely to result in an increase in:
a)
A. gross profit.
b)
B. LIFO reserve.
c)
C. inventory carrying amounts.
35.
a)
A. −2.0.
b)
B. −2.3.
c)
C. −0.5.
36.
Red Road Company, a consulting company, reported total revenues of $100 million, total expenses of $80 million, and net income of $20 million in the most recent year. If accounts receivable increased by $10 million, how much cash did the company receive from customers?
a)
A. $90 million.
b)
B. $100 million.
c)
C. $110 million.
37.
Which of the following conditions conducive to issuing low-quality financial reports is most likely a result of poor internal controls?
a)
A. Rationalization
b)
B. Opportunity
c)
C. Motivation
38.
a)
A. 0.005
b)
B. 0.073
c)
C. 0.764
39.
a)
A. Double declining balance
b)
B. Straight line
c)
C. Units of production
40.
A European put option on stock conveys the right to sell the stock at a prespecified price, called the exercise price, at the maturity date of the option. The value of this put at maturity is (exercise price – stock price) or $0, whichever is greater. Suppose the exercise price is $100 and the underlying stock trades in ticks of $0.01. At any time before maturity, the terminal value of the put is a random variable.
a)
A. Discrete
b)
B. Continuous
c)
C. Not enough information provided to answer.
41.
a)
A. 0.250.
b)
B. 0.333.
c)
C. 0.583.
42.
The probability of an event given that another event has occurred is a:
a)
A. joint probability.
b)
B. marginal probability.
c)
C. conditional probability.
43.
a)
A.
b)
B.
c)
C.
44.
Which of the following ratios will most likely result in an increase in a company’s sustainable growth rate?
a)
A. Higher dividend payout
b)
B. Higher tax burden
c)
C. Lower interest burden
45.
a)
A. 12
b)
B. 14
c)
C. 13
46.
On 1 January 2010, Elegant Fragrances Company issues £1,000,000 face value, five-year bonds with annual interest payments of £55,000 to be paid each 31 December. The market interest rate is 6.0 percent. Using the effective interest rate method of amortisation, Elegant Fragrances is most likely to record:
a)
A. an interest expense of £55,000 on its 2010 income statement.
b)
B. a liability of £982,674 on the 31 December 2010 balance sheet.
c)
C. a £58,736 cash outflow from operating activity on the 2010 statement of cash flows.
47.
First-degree price discrimination is best described as pricing that allows producers to increase their economic profit while consumer surplus:
a)
A. is eliminated.
b)
B. increases.
c)
C. decreases.
48.
The impairment of intangible assets with finite lives affects:
a)
A. the balance sheet but not the income statement.
b)
B. the income statement but not the balance sheet.
c)
C. both the balance sheet and the income statement.
49.
Which of the following most accurately describes a distribution that is more peaked than normal?
a)
A. Leptokurtic
b)
B. Mesokurtic
c)
C. Platykurtic
50.
Which of the following inventory valuation methods best matches the actual historical cost of the inventory items sold to their physical flow?
a)
A. LIFO
b)
B. FIFO
c)
C. Specific identification
51.
At the beginning of the year, a company purchased a fixed asset for $500,000 with no expected residual value. The company depreciates similar assets on a straight-line basis over 10 years, whereas the tax authorities allow declining balance depreciation at the rate of 15% per year. In both cases, the company takes a full year’s depreciation in the first year. The tax rate is 40%. Which of the following statements concerning this asset at the end of the year is mostaccurate?
a)
A. The tax base is $500,000.
b)
B. The deferred tax asset is $10,000.
c)
C. The temporary difference is $25,000.
52.
Assume the following:The real risk-free rate of return is 3%.<br />The expected inflation premium is 5%.<br />The market-determined interest rate of a security is 12%.<br />The sum of the default risk premium, liquidity premium, and maturity premium for the security is closest to:
a)
A. 10%.
b)
B. 4%.
c)
C. 8%.
53.
An increase in sample size is most likely to result in a:
a)
A. wider confidence interval.
b)
B. decrease in the standard error of the sample mean.
c)
C. lower likelihood of sampling from more than one population.
54.
An expansionary fiscal policy is most likely associated with:
a)
A. crowding out of private investments.
b)
B. an increase in government spending on social insurance and benefits.
c)
C. an increase in capital gains tax rates.
55.
US and Spanish bonds have return standard deviations of 0.64 and 0.56, respectively. If the correlation between the two bonds is 0.24, the covariance of returns is closest to
a)
A. 0.086
b)
B. 0.67
c)
C. 0.781
56.
An increase in which of the following items would most likely result in an increase in a company’s quick ratio, all else being held equal?
a)
A. Current liabilities
b)
B. Receivables
c)
C. Inventory
57.
Interim reports most likely:
a)
A. are audited.
b)
B. are issued semi-annually or quarterly.
c)
C. include a full set of financial statements and notes.
58.
For its fiscal year-end, Sublyme Corporation reported net income of $200 million and a weighted average of 50,000,000 common shares outstanding. There are 2,000,000 convertible preferred shares outstanding that paid an annual dividend of $5. Each preferred share is convertible into two shares of the common stock. The diluted EPS is closest to:
a)
A. $3.52.
b)
B. $3.65.
c)
C. $3.70.
59.
a)
A. Company Y at the gross margin level and Company X at the operating margin level.
b)
B. Company Y at both the gross margin and operating margin levels.
c)
C. Company X at the gross margin level and Company Y at the operating margin level.
60.
a)
A. 0.
b)
B. 70,000.
c)
C. 60,000.
61.
a)
A. first-in, first-out (FIFO).
b)
B. last-in, first-out (LIFO).
c)
C. weighted average cost.
62.
A firm is operating beyond minimum efficient scale in a perfectly competitive industry. To maintain long-term viability the most likely course of action for the firm is to:
a)
A. operate at the current level of production.
b)
B. increase its level of production to gain economies of scale.
c)
C. decrease its level of production to the minimum point on the long-run average total cost curve.
63.
a)
A. Yes
b)
B. No
c)
C. Not enough information is provided to answer.
64.
Published ratings on stocks ranging from 1 (strong sell) to 5 (strong buy) are examples of which measurement scale?
a)
A. Ordinal
b)
B. Interval
c)
C. Nominal
65.
The goods and services produced by UK citizens who are working in the United States are most likely included in the:
a)
A. GDP of the United Kingdom and GNP of the United States.
b)
B. GNP of the United Kingdom and GDP of the United States.
c)
C. GNP of the United Kingdom and GNP of the United States.
66.
Which of the following elements of financial statements is most closely related to measurement of financial position?
a)
A. Equity.
b)
B. Income.
c)
C. Expenses.
67.
a)
A. 0.185.
b)
B. 0.225.
c)
C. 0.235.
68.
a)
A. 20.65%
b)
B. 26.03%
c)
C. 27.37%
69.
The short-term shutdown point of production for a firm operating under perfect competition will most likely occur when:
a)
A. price is equal to average total cost.
b)
B. marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.
c)
C. marginal revenue is equal to average variable costs.
70.
a)
A. Portfolio P is 4.5%.
b)
B. Portfolio Q is 4.0%.
c)
C. Portfolio R is higher than its arithmetic mean annual return.
71.
The gain or loss on a sale of a long-lived asset to which the revaluation model has been applied is most likelycalculated using sales proceeds less:
a)
A. carrying amount.
b)
B. carrying amount adjusted for impairment.
c)
C. historical cost net of accumulated depreciation.
72.
If companies earn economic profits in a perfectly competitive market, over the long run the supply curve will most likely:
a)
A. shift to the left.
b)
B. shift to the right.
c)
C. remain unchanged
73.
Galambos Corporation had an average receivables collection period of 19 days in 2003. Galambos has stated that it wants to decrease its collection period in 2004 to match the industry average of 15 days. Credit sales in 2003 were $300 million, and analysts expect credit sales to increase to $400 million in 2004. To achieve the company’s goal of decreasing the collection period, the change in the average accounts receivable balance from 2003 to 2004 that must occur is closest to:
a)
A. –$420,000.
b)
B. $420,000.
c)
C. $836,000.
74.
As the price level declines along the aggregate demand curve, the interest rate is most likely to:
a)
A. decline.
b)
B. increase.
c)
C. remain unchanged.
75.
In an industry comprised of three companies, which are small-scale manufacturers of an easily replicable product unprotected by brand recognition or patents, the most representative model of company behavior is:
a)
A. oligopoly.
b)
B. perfect competition.
c)
C. monopolistic competition.
76.
a)
A. $213 thousand.
b)
B. $306 thousand.
c)
C. $256 thousand.
77.
Which is the most accurate statement regarding central banks and monetary policy?
a)
A. Central bank activities are typically intended to maintain price stability.
b)
B. Monetary policies work through the economy via four independent channels.
c)
C. Commercial and interbank interest rates move inversely to official interest rates.
78.
a)
A. Company C
b)
B. Company B
c)
C. Company A
79.
a)
A. loss of 55,000.
b)
B. gain of 186,000.
c)
C. gain of 301,000.
80.
Which of the following is best described as a discrete random variable?
a)
A. The expected percentage change in a country’s gross national product for the next year
b)
B. The number of days on which the DJIA experienced an increase since 2013
c)
C. The expected annual return on the Nikkei 225 Index over the next year
81.
A decrease in both the labor force participation ratio and the unemployment rate is most likely caused by:
a)
A. an increase in discouraged workers.
b)
B. an increase in underemployed workers.
c)
C. a decrease in voluntarily unemployed persons.
82.
Which of the following items is most likely to be classified as a non-current asset?
a)
A. Inventories
b)
B. Prepaid insurance
c)
C. Machinery acquired within the past year
83.
The component least likely to be included in a measurement of gross domestic product (GDP) is:
a)
A. the value of owner occupied rent.
b)
B. the annual salary of a local police officer.
c)
C. environmental damage caused by production.
84.
a)
A. −4,087.
b)
B. −4,216.
c)
C. −4,345.
85.
Information about a company’s objectives, strategies, and significant risks are most likely to be found in the:
a)
A. auditor’s report.
b)
B. management commentary.
c)
C. notes to the financial statements.
86.
According to the Solow neoclassical growth model, sustained long-term growth in potential GDP is best explained by:
a)
A. capital deepening investments.
b)
B. technological change.
c)
C. growth in labor supply.
87.
a)
A. 0.43.
b)
B. 0.57.
c)
C. 1.00.
88.
In an effort to influence the economy, a central bank conducted open market activities by selling government bonds. This action implies that the central bank is most likely attempting to:
a)
A. contract the economy by reducing bank reserves.
b)
B. expand the economy through a lower policy interest rate.
c)
C. contract the economy through a lower policy interest rate.
89.
a)
A. operating profit margin.
b)
B. operating return on assets.
c)
C. total asset turnover ratio.
90.
A pooled estimator is used when testing a hypothesis concerning the:
a)
A. equality of the variances of two normally distributed populations.
b)
B. difference between the means of two at least approximately normally distributed populations with unknown but assumed equal variances.
c)
C. difference between the means of two at least approximately normally distributed populations with unknown and assumed unequal variances.