NEW
Font size
WorksheetsPra-Exam 1 IAM CERTIFICATE
Total questions: 60
Worksheet time: 3600secs
1. Which is the key component for ITAM success?
A) Good understanding of goal, motivation and key drivers from different stakeholders.
B) Maintain a good relationship with publishers, vendors, customers, legal and finance.
C) Manage and control all levels of IT assets.
D) Manage stakeholder expectations.
2. ISO/IEC 19770 is a related standard to ITAM. What is its purpose?
A) It is a set of processes for SAM to assist at the risk and cost minimization of IT assets.
B) It is an international standard for People and Information management to optimize availability, integrity and security.
C) It is a set of Best Practices to reflect best practice guidance contained within the ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library).
D) It is a specification for an information security management system (ISMS) to minimize risks of the IT Infrastructure.
3. Which are the required insights at the Asset Portfolio level for the CIO/CFO?
A) Investment planning and risk & sustainability
B) Optimization of the lifecycle and organizational strategic goals
C) System performance and process control
D) Utilization of assets, maintenance and supplier performance information
4. The ITAM process framework is a tiered framework combining, standards and Best Practices. What are Tools within this framework?
A) Auto discovery tools, database tooling, software recognition tools
B) Capacity plans and capacity tooling, end-to-end availability solutions
C) Risk assessment, tools, business case templates, RACI models
D) Service management systems, service monitoring tooling
5. Which is an outcome of the GAP analysis?
A) It delivers a project plan and the milestones in the SAM implementation.
B) It delivers the KPI's in order to determine the success of SAM.
C) It ensures commitment and confirms the key roles.
D) It points out useful processes already in place.
6. What does the Hardware Asset Manager need to deliver to the Software Asset Manager?
A) Documentation on relevant processes and procedures
B) Lists of assets including MAC addresses and IP addresses
C) Trustworthy and reliable data
D) Up-to-date data with valid sources
7. What is one of the first decisions an organization needs to take in Hardware Asset Management?
A) The manage methodology of all IT assets
B) The procurement process of all IT assets
C) The security level on IT assets
D) The IT asset types to be managed
8. What are the phases in the HAM Lifecycle?
A) Initiation, Design, Build, Migration, Transition, Closing
B) Requirements, Design, Implementation, Verification, Maintenance
C) Strategy, Design, Transition, Operations, Continual Service Improvement
D) Strategy, Request, Procure, Receive, Manage, Retire
9. Which type of IT assets should not be tracked and managed?
A) Assets like laptops or printers that are tied to a contract.
B) Assets that are very expensive.
C) Assets that bring specific value to the business because of its content.
D) Assets that do not belong to the organization.
10. What is the benefit of hardware standardization?
A) It enables all employees to work simultaneously.
B) It secures the optimal purchasing prices.
C) It simplifies the work of the Hardware Asset Manager.
D) It supports best-in-class service management processes.
11. Which is an objective for hardware disposal?
A) To prevent hardware from being reused by others.
B) To protect intellectual property and ensure software compliance.
C) To make sure that hardware that is written off financially, is not still in use.
D) To maintenance public property
12. Who are the stakeholders that IT Operations need feedback from, in relation to the hardware lifecycle process?
A) Contract Manager, Software Asset Manager, Financial Manager, IT Manager, Policy Manager
B) Contract Manager, Security Manager, Software Asset Manager, Financial Manager, Service Desk
C) Financial Manager, IT Manager, HR Manager, Policy Manager, Test Manager, Service Desk
D) Security Manager, Software Asset Manager, Service Desk, HR Manager, Test Manager
13. What is the correct purpose of using Hardware Asset management tooling?
A) To avoid discussions about what should be collected, because a tool provides all required information.
B) To be able to collect detailed information about the Hardware assets.
C) To collect hardware information every day, so the CMDB is continuously up-to-date.
D) To help manage and control the hardware throughout the lifecycle.
14. Which is a valid component of a software asset?
A) Distribution method
B) Infrastructure utilization
C) Purchase terms and currency
D) Terms and conditions of software
15. What is the purpose of Software Asset Management?
A) To avoid that personnel use shadow IT to achieve their business needs.
B) To achieve risk reduction, compliance and cost control.
C) To be able to demonstrate that software is legally obtained.
D) To enhance capacity and availability planning for strategic forecasting.
16. What creates a challenge for the IT Asset Manager when software needs upgrading?
A) Inadequate hardware specifications
B) Rigid installation process
C) Risk of loss of proof of purchase
D) Uneducated users
17. What is, for a company, one of the most important reasons to invest in a good SAM solution?
A) It guarantees that no software penalties will be imposed.
B) It helps achieving a good overview of the software in the company which leads to optimization of the IT Infrastructure.
C) It reduces legal and financial risk for the organization and its responsible management.
D) It makes efficient use of licenses and effectuates a well balanced portfolio.
18. Which is a potential problem in a SAM program?
A) Lack of clear responsibility
B) Non-upgraded software installations
C) Out-sourced IT
D) Rigid internal policies
19. Which is a key element in Software License terms and conditions?
A) End-of-life on individual products
B) Installation specifications and deployment methods
C) Named users (with relevant contact information)
D) Product names and relevant versions
20. What information is required in an audit?
A) A financial overview of purchase price on all software auditing vendor
B) Hardware listing with (at least) CPU, RAM, hard disk and manufacturer information
C) Software usage/deployment, with current user/computer
D) Visio (or equivalent) drawings of relevant infrastructure with IP specifications
21. What is the purpose of an external software audit?
A) To check if the correct versions of the software are in use, so that support and maintenance are in alignment with the contract.
B) To confirm compliance to copyright and contract to make sure the software is used correctly and the licenses are paid.
C) To make sure the software is used in compliance with the security policies of the organization.
D) To optimize the balance between software in use and the available licenses, so that software is used efficiently.
22. What are the common consequences of a contract violation brought up by an external audit?
A) It results in a warning and the company has to reduce the software in use.
B) It causes reputational damage, as it will be published that a corporation was not in control.
C) It leads to an additional fee that has to be paid to correct compliance, it can include a fine.
D) It leads to imprisonment of the responsible persons in the organization, as it is a crime by law.
23. In the cloud contract negotiations certain contract terms should be part of a Service Agenda and others should be included in an agreement on terms and conditions.
Which contract term should be included in a Services Agenda for Cloud contracts?
A) Meaningful penalties
B) Inventory information
C) Exit clauses
D) Data ownership
24. What is/are the most important benefit(s) of Cloud services?
A) Shared hardware so always cheaper than dedicated solutions
B) Easier safety procedures and simple connectivity
C) Higher availability of the services
D) Agility and scalability of the solution
25. What does a Platform as a Service (PaaS) include?
A) Provider network, servers, storage, business applications
B) Computers, virtual machines, Infrastructure, firewalls
C) Provider network, servers, storage, tools
D) Provider network, computer, virtual machines, firewalls
26. What are pitfalls of Cloud services?
A) Changing environment and lack of control.
B) Data safety cannot be provided, as it is unknown where data is stored.
C) Loss of control on compliance, version updates and influence.
D) Lower availability which cannot be upgraded.
27. What does Asset Management in SEAM encompass?
A) Availability, capacity, continual service improvement and service design
B) Configuration management database, asset management and the component lifecycle control
C) Contractual terms, deliverance, service levels and service components
D) Licenses, hard and software maintenance, performance
28. Which of the following should be included in a pre-analysis before negotiation?
A) Contractual terms, regulations and financial savings
B) Cost realization, environment structure and support channels
C) Financial savings/costs, risks and resources to negotiate a long term contract
D) How to plan the change, environmental structure and operational optimizations
29. Which is an important agreement term or condition to be negotiated?
A) Meeting agenda
B) Meaningful penalties
C) Pricing
D) Jobdesk
30. What is one of the most important key points in People and Information Asset Management (PINAM)?
A) Control of the license structure in (cloud) identity management systems
B) Managing the user account synchronization in the hybrid environment
C) The balance between information agility and information security
D) The capacity management for the cloud based document management systems
31. What is an important direct benefit of People and Information Asset Management (PINAM)?
A) It increases employee satisfaction by managing the employee lifecycle.
B) It provides Information control including mobile content and risk reduction.
C) It provides better compliance and cost control for the organization.
D) It helps achieving higher grip on the organizations procedures and processes by Internal auditing and control.
32. Which is a correct USB stick policy?
A) Decrypted and company owned
B) Encrypted and company owned
C) Firewall disabled and company owned
D) Firewall enabled and company owned
33. The PINAM principles are to provide: access anywhere, a rich platform and cohesive collaboration.
Which important aspects of PINAM should not be sacrificed when following these principles?
A) Continuity, availability and compliance
B) Control, security and visibility
C) Cost, performance and compliance
D) Procedures, type of hardware and internet connectivity
34. Which is one of the important aspects of information categorization?
A) Which information is defined as HR/Finance/IT/Procurement?
B) Which information is directly accessible from all computers?
C) Which information is important/valuable in the company?
D) Which information is required by management?
35. Which are the 3 types of authentication an Access Control System uses?
A) Something the user knows, has and finds
B) Something the user knows, has and is
C) Something the user knows, seeks and is
D) Something the user knows, hide and seek
36. How can Shadow IT compromise the company’s integrity?
A) Shadow IT is always illegal software that causes non-compliance.
B) Shadow IT is possibly not according to the company’s security procedures.
C) Shadow IT is not very stable and has a low availability so causes a lower productivity.
D) Shadow IT is not maintained by the company’s IT department and therefore not acceptable.
37. Which is the advantage of BYOD for a company?
A) It increases variety, so the organization can easily experience software on all platforms.
B) It provides employees with the device of choice, which increases motivation and productivity.
C) It saves the company time as they do not have to develop hardware standards.
D) All above true
38. IT Asset Management is part of the IT ECO system.
With what process management framework should IT Asset Management be primarily aligned?
A) To the business lean process model, because this aims a maximizing customer value.
B) To the Risk IT framework, as this framework focuses on IT risks based upon business risks.
C) To the project in changing environment framework, as projects normally take care of installing or removing assets.
D) To the IT Service management framework because this has a big role in managing and controlling the IT assets.
39. In what way should the IT specialist be aware of IT Asset Management?
A) Consider updated and corrected inventory information.
B) Consult the IT Asset Manager for standards when deploying a hardware update.
C) Ask the Asset Manager for a change impact analysis when a change is considered.
D) Make sure that all software is licensed according to the contractual terms.
40. The role of an IT Asset Manager has a lot of challenges.
What is the biggest challenge for a starting IT Asset Manager?
A) To be compliant and to produce a monthly overview of all IT assets and their status.
B) To clean up and dispose all overdue IT assets.
C) To get in control of all the IT assets in cooperation with all specialists involved.
D) To organize SAM tooling and to have it installed correctly.
41. How many roles are there in the IAM Competences Framework?
a) Five
b) Six
c) Seven
d) Three
42. What is PAS 55?
a) A BSI Publically Available Specification for the optimized management of physical assets
b) A BSI Previously Available Specification for the optimized management of physical assets
c) A BSI Publically Available Specification for the optimized management of financial assets
d) A BSI Previously Available Specification for the optimized management of financial assets
43. A definition of asset management is:
a) The optimal maintenance an organisation undertakes on its assets?
b) The optimal life cycle management of physical assets to sustainably achieve the stated business objectives?
c) A clear understanding of the linkages between each stage in the asset lifecycle?
d) a grouping of investments that exhibit similar characteristics and are subject to the same laws and regulations
44. Which of these is NOT a key principle of asset management?
a) Linking decisions to the overall business objectives
b) Applying a whole-life perspective
c) Reducing the costs of investments
d) All of above false
45. How many elements does the IAM Asset Management Conceptual Model contain?
a) Seven
b) Four
c) Six
d) Five
46. Asset Management should deliver:
a) The organisation’s strategic objectives
b) The maximum dividends for the organisation’s shareholders
c) The maximum level of service for the organisation’s customers
d) All false
47. What is the correct top-down hierarchy order for the following PAS 55 defined documents?
a) Asset Management Policy, Strategy, Objectives and Plans
b) Asset Management Strategy, Policy, Objectives and Plans
c) Asset Management Policy, Plans, Strategy and Objectives
d) Asset Management Policy, Objectives, Strategy and Plans
48. Which statement is INCORRECT?
a) The Asset Management Policy should be consistent and aligned with all other relevant organisational policies
b) The Asset Management Policy should be consistent and aligned with the corporate objectives and strategy
c) The Asset Management Policy should be derived from all other relevant organisational policies
d) All above true
49. What is an Asset Management System as defined by PAS 55?
a) The asset information technology system used for collating and analysing asset data
b) The management system which organises and drives all asset management activities
c) The system by which organisations can manage and influence stakeholder requirements
d) The asset system which organises all data management activities
50. Which of the following is best described as an Asset Management Objective?
a) A risk-based approach to renewal and maintenance will be adopted
b) Risk-based maintenance will deliver an improvement in the failure rate of assets of 10% for no increase in cost by September 2011
c) Risk-based maintenance will be introduced at Depot A in September 2011 with the following work volumes
d) Risk based provide direction for Asset and Non-Asset Class Plannin
51. External stakeholders can influence asset management activities within an organisation by:
a) Defining the renewal and maintenance policies which govern the creation of the asset management plan
b) Having the power of veto over what the organisation does
c) Influencing the Organisational Strategic Plan through structured engagement
52. Which of the following statements is true:
a) Corporate objectives are derived from the Asset Management strategy
b) Corporate objectives drive the activities within the Asset Management system
c) Corporate objectives should be set by comparing the organisation’s performance to its most closest associated peer
53. Which of the following phrases describes best the key advantage of asset management over traditional approaches?
a) Asset management ensures all asset interventions (for example maintenance or renewal intervals) are optimised with respect to risk
b) Asset management takes an optimised whole-life view of the work required on the asset portfolio to ensure current and future required levels of service are delivered
c) Asset management is primarily concerned with ensuring that resources are optimally used by putting into place effective planning regimes and processes to continually improve staff competence
54. What is the purpose of whole-life cost analysis?
a) To determine the option for a particular decision which has the lowest costs over the life of the asset
b) To determine the most important costs associated with an asset
c) To determine the renewal costs at the end of an asset’s life
55. What are the main cost elements of a whole-life cost approach?
a) Installation, failure and refurbishment costs
b) Asset deterioration and reliability costs
c) maintenance, associated financing costs refurbishment, and disposal costs
d) Installation, maintenance and operations, and disposal costs
56. When undertaking whole-life cost analysis it is important to remember that:
a) It is impossible to get the right answer unless all the data and information are understood
b) The analysis should be completed without reference to other organisational functions to ensure independence
c) As many costs as possible should be included in the analysis ensuring these are consistently derived between analyses
57. Which of these statements is true:
a) Asset information should be collected on all measurable aspects of an asset’s function and performance
b) Asset information should be guided by the relevance of the information to the asset management decisions that need to be made about the asset
c) Asset information requirements should be derived according to the requirements set out in the IT department’s procurement specification
58. The purpose of an Asset Information Strategy is to:
a) Collate the standards which define the collection, storage and use of asset information
b) Provide the overall framework and plan for asset information which will deliver the organisation’s asset information requirements
c) Specify the requirements for procuring the organisation’s asset information system
d) Calculating the lowest cost options for the entire commercial life of a building
59. Which of these statements is UNTRUE?
a) Asset information is always worth collecting regardless of cost
b) Asset information has maintenance costs as well as collection costs
c) Asset information can be treated as an asset in its own right
60. Which of the following types of information would NOT normally be required for the development of an asset management plan?
a) Asset Register
b) Asset Critically
c) Asset Condition
d) Organisation’s share price
