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Biotechnology Review

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident.  Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate.  Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
2.
A boy moves to another country to live with his father.  Years later, the boy decides to move back to live with the woman who raised him.  Immigration officials suspected that the boy was the woman’s nephew, not her son, and therefore not legally entitled to residency.  Based on the DNA fragments, is it possible that she is the boy’s mother?
a)
Yes
b)
No
3.
Bob was found dead in his home.  Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle.  Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects.  Which suspect likely committed the crime? 
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
4.
Which male is the father of this child?
a)
Male 1
b)
Male 2
c)
Neither could be the father
d)
Either could be the father
5.
Which man is the father of this baby?
a)
Father 1
b)
Father 2
c)
Father 3
d)
None of them
6.
Which man is the father of the child?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
7.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
8.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
9.
Which is the likely 'sire' (dog's dad) of the given puppy?
a)
Sire A
b)
Sire B
c)
Sire C
d)
Sire D
10.
Which man is the father of child #2 (5th Column)?
a)
Male #1
b)
Male #2
c)
Neither Is likely
11.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
12.
What is the relationship between this child and parents?
a)
Biological to mom
b)
Biological to dad
c)
Biological to both
d)
Biological to neither
13.
DNA fingerprinting works because
a)
Most genes are dominant
b)
All organisms contain RNA
c)
The most important genes are different among most people
d)
No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA 
14.
Which is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes in gel electrophoresis?
a)
It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing
b)
It restricts the number of base pairs that can be tested in a sample
c)
It makes the testing simpler by moving the strands into the gel faster
d)
It charges the DNA strands
15.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
16.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
17.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
18.

Which chemicals are used to cut DNA into fragments for a gel electrophoresis procedure?

a)

enzymes

b)

molecular bases

c)

hormones

d)

ATP molecules

19.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
20.
Why do bacteria have restriction enzymes?
a)
To prevent being infected by viruses
b)
To help DNA get into the cell
c)
To be able to grow in an incubator
d)
They don't - viruses have restriction enzymes
21.

Which RE's from above make blunt cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

22.

Which RE's from above make sticky cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

23.
Restriction Enzymes are . . . 
a)
proteins
b)
DNA
c)
fats
d)
carbohydrates
24.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
25.
Restriction Enzymes come from . . . 
a)
viruses
b)
bacteria
c)
goats
d)
spiders
26.

"transgenic" refers to an animal that:

a)

Has DNA from another organism spliced into its genome

b)

Has undergone DNA modification

c)

Has unique genes for its species

27.

In which ways can genetic engineering can improve crops

a)

Make them pest or drought resistant

b)

Make them more nutritious

c)

Make them larger

d)

All answers are correct

28.

A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, is called:

a)

A plasmid

b)

mRNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleotide

29.

Humans with genetic diseases can have a gene inserted into their body using a virus. This is called:

a)

Gene therapy

b)

Cloning

c)

DNA fingerprinting

30.
Which term refers to a farmer choosing the best corn from this year to plant next year?
a)
natural selection
b)
selective breeding
c)
genetic engineering
d)
genetic transformation
31.

What does this image represent?

a)

Genetic Engineering techniques

b)

Genetically modified organism

c)

Recombinant DNA tecnology

d)

DNA mechanism of tranmission

32.

Complete the sentence: Recombinant DNA consists of____________a __________of an organism and___________it into a different one.

a)

gene, inserting,isolating

b)

gene,isolating,inserting

c)

inserting,isolating,gene

d)

isolating,gene,inserting

33.

Recombinant DNA objective is ......

a)

To give a new characteristic

b)

To eliminate a characteristic

c)

To give a manipuation

d)

To eliminate a protein

34.

DNA sequencing is a technique used to

a)

Identify the bases if tRNA

b)

Identify the bases of the mRNA

c)

Identify the bases of RNA

d)

Identify the order of DNA bases

35.

This one recieves a new gene from another organism.

a)

Transgenic organisms

b)

Host cell

c)

Receptor DNA

d)

Host DNA

36.

Decide whether the following is True or False: The DNA that is going to be transferred and the DNA of the plasmid are cut using a different restriction enzyme.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Decide whether the following sentence is TRUE or FALSE: The DNA ligases join the individual vector fragment of DNA to the DNA of the vector forming a molecule of recombinant DNA.

a)

False

b)

True

38.

Decide whether the following sentence is TRUE or FALSE: For many years humans have manipulated the reproduction of human being in order to heal some illnesses.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Recombinant DNA technology is the most used in genetic engineering.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Set of techniques used to obtain identical copies of an adult organism from its somatic cells.

a)

Cloning

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

PCR

41.

PCR stands for

a)

polymerase chain reaction

b)

polymerase coal reaction

c)

polymerase cloning reaction

42.
What is the purpose of PCR?
a)
To produce millions of copies of DNA.
b)
To produce millions of copies of a specific region of DNA
c)
To add nucleotides to a DNA sequence
d)
To watch polymerase work.
43.

Human cloning is completely ethical and legal all around the world.

a)

True

b)

False

44.
What process is shown in the picture?
a)
Gene therapy
b)
Cloning
c)
DNA Fingerprinting
d)
Gene Splicing
45.

What do we call the science of using the genetic makeup living things to create products?

a)

Biotechnology

b)

Genealogy

c)

Pharmacology

d)

Neurology

46.

DNA made from two (2) or more sources is called...

a)

Recombinant DNA

b)

Bacterial DNA

c)

Messenger DNA

d)

Artificial DNA

47.

An organism's complete set of genes is called its...

a)

Genome

b)

DNA

c)

Chromosome

d)

Chromatin

48.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a genome sequencing project?

a)

Human Genome Project (HGP)

b)

1000 Genomes Project

c)

ENCODE Project

d)

23 and Me Project

49.

Which of the following is used to create recombinant DNA?

a)

Restriction Enzymes

b)

Amino Acids

c)

Genetic Proteins

d)

Messenger RNA

50.

Which genetic engineering technique amplifies the number of DNA pieces in a lab setting?

a)

PCR

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Therapy

d)

CRISPR

51.

Which genetic engineering technique separates DNA fragments based on their size?

a)

PCR

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

CRISPR

52.

Which genetic engineering technique allows us to produce multiple, identical copies of a single gene?

a)

Cloning

b)

PCR

c)

Gene Therapy

d)

CRISPR

53.

Which of the following examples of genetic engineering repairs existing abnormal genes?

a)

CRISPR

b)

PCR

c)

Gel Electrophoresis

d)

Cloning

54.

Inserting a normal gene or editing an existing gene is called...

a)

Genetic Engineering

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

Gene Sequencing

55.

Undifferentiated cells that can become any cell in the body are called...

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Gametes

d)

Zygotes

56.

Which of the following is NOT a form of selective breeding?

a)

GMOs

b)

Hybridization

c)

Inbreeding

d)

Natural Selection

57.

Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs) are...

a)

Always biologically modified in a lab

b)

Always bad for you

c)

Always free of pesticides

d)

Always selectively bred

58.

Hybridization is...

a)

Selective Breeding between two unrelated organisms

b)

Selective Breeding between two inbred organisms

c)

Selective Breeding within a species

d)

Selective Breeding within a population

59.
Genetic engineering has been used to produce
a)
medicines.
b)
food animals.
c)
improved crops.
d)
all of these.
60.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
61.
During transformation, a cell
a)
is treated with radiation.
b)
has two genetically different parents.
c)
has foreign DNA inserted in its chromosome.
d)
has parents of different species.
62.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
63.
molecular scissors that "cut' DNA
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzymes
c)
recombinant DNA
d)
gene
64.

What process is used to allow organisms (plants/animals) with desired characteristics to produce the next generation?

a)

Selective Breeding

b)

Hybridization

c)

Generation Time

d)

Inbreeding

65.

When cell transformation is successful, the recombinant DNA...

a)

Undergoes mutation

b)

Is treated with antibiotics

c)

Becomes part of the transformed cell's genome

d)

Becomes a nucleus

66.

Bacteria often contain small circular molecules of DNA known as...

a)

Clones

b)

Mutagenes

c)

Plasmids

d)

Hybrids

67.

Organisms that contain genes from other organisms are called...

a)

Transgenic

b)

Mutagenic

c)

Donor Organisms

d)

Cloned Organisms.

68.

During __________ a cell takes in DNA from outside the cell.

a)

Mutation

b)

Distillation

c)

Recombination

d)

Transformation

69.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

70.

This technique used to analyze DNA involves the

a)

synthesis of new DNA strands from subunits

b)

separation of DNA fragments based on size

c)

production of genetically engineered DNA molecules

d)

removal of defective genes from DNA

71.
Which two bat species are most closely related?
a)
 Bat 1 and Bat 2
b)
Bat 1 and Bat 3
c)
Bat 2 and Bat 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
72.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
73.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
74.
DNA fingerprinting works because
a)
Most genes are dominant
b)
All organisms contain RNA
c)
The most important genes are different among most people
d)
No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA 
75.

The parents of a new baby believe they brought the wrong child home from the hospital. Gel electrophoresis was performed using DNA samples from the parents and the child. A section of the gel

electrophoresis results is shown below. Which conclusion is valid based on the gel electrophoresis results?

a)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information is identical to that of the father.


b)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information does not match that of either parent.

c)

They have the correct child, because her genetic information came from both parents.


d)

They have the wrong child, because her genetic information matches only that of the mother.

76.

DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier. Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?

a)

Parents C and D

b)

Parents E and F

c)

Parents A and B

d)

Parents G and H

77.

Which suspect is linked to the crime scene by this DNA analysis

a)

Suspect A

b)

Suspect C

c)

Suspect D

d)

Suspect B

78.
Shannon does not know who her father is.  There are three possibilities:  Jack, Daniel and Bill.  Who is the father?
a)
Jack
b)
Daniel
c)
Bill
79.

Study the DNA Fingerprint shown here. Who committed the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Victim

d)

None of the above. Everyone is innocent here

80.

Which male is the father of the child?

a)

Male 1

b)

Male 2

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