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Ag Leadership EOPA- Agriscience & Agbusiness

Total questions: 183

Worksheet time: 2hrs 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A scientist performs an experiment to see if acids have an effect on the health of a particular type of plant. Three sets of plants were treated with acidic solutions of known pH while the control set was treated with a solution of neutral pH 7.Which is the best conclusion for this experiment?
a)
Acid has no effect on the health of this type of plant.
b)
B. High acidity is helpful to this type of plant.
c)
C. Low acidity is harmful to this type of plant.
d)
High acidity is harmful to this type of plant.
2.
The graph below shows atmospheric carbon dioxide levels since the year 1880.Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph
a)
 Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels are responsible for global temperature change.
b)
 Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been rising at about the same rate for the past century.
c)
Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have remained the same over the past century.
d)
 Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels have been rising at an increasingly higher rate as the past century has progressed.
3.
A research group has discovered that damselflies, a type of dragonfly, are being infected by a particular type of aquatic protozoan. Both young and adult damselflies are not directly infected by the protozoan but contract the infection from the prey they eat. The graph shows the percentage of adult damselflies infected by protozoans during the summer and early fal
a)
Infection in embanked ponds increased during the sampling period.
b)
Protozoans were more common in creek-fed ponds than embanked ponds.
c)
Protozoans reproduce more quickly in embanked ponds than creek-fed ponds.
d)
Infection in creed-fed ponds remained constant throughout the sampling period.
4.
Carmen conducted an experiment to determine if listening to different types of music would affect a person’s pulse. Her hypothesis was that pulse rate would change with different types of music. Each person listened to seven different selections of music for 30 seconds each. Each person’s pulse was taken before the music and then after each 30-second interval of music. The pulses were taken again after the music selections were completed. Based on her experiment, Carmen concluded that a person’s pulse rate changed when the person listened to different types of music.  Which component is missing from Carmen’s experiment?
a)
a question
b)
a hypothesis
c)
a control group
d)
a description of the experiment
5.
An osmosis investigation was conducted using chicken eggs to represent cells with semipermeable membranes. The mass of each egg was measured to determine how much water diffused into or out of the eggs. The eggs were first soaked in vinegar to dissolve the shell. Each egg was then placed in one of three different solutions for 24 hours. The table below shows the results of the investigation. Based on this experiment, which of the following should be inferred about cells with semipermeable membranes?
a)
Substances other than water may also cross the cell membrane.
b)
Substances other than water may block pores in the cell membrane.
c)
 Water enters the cell when placed in environments of high water concentration.
d)
Water leaves the cell when placed in environments with a low concentration of solutes
6.
In order to be accepted, a scientific theory must be
a)
 widely tested and supported by extensive data
b)
 based on the results of a single experiment
c)
 controversial and cause debate
d)
 in line with all previous historical ideas
7.
In an appropriately designed experiment, a scientist is able to test the effect of
a)
 a single variable
b)
 multiple variables
c)
 the hypothesis
d)
 scientific observations
8.
Which statement best expresses a basic scientific assumption?
a)
Interpretation of experimental results has provided explanations for all natural phenomena.
b)
If a conclusion is valid, similar investigations by other scientists should result in the same conclusion.
c)
For any conclusion to be valid, the design of the experiment requires that only two groups be compared.
d)
After a scientist formulates a conclusion based on an experiment, no further investigation is necessary.
9.
Conclusions based on an experiment are most likely to be accepted when
a)
they are consistent with experimental data and observations
b)
 they are derived from investigations having many experimental variables
c)
 scientists agree that only one hypothesis has been tested
d)
 hypotheses are based on one experimental design
10.
An experiment was carried out to determine whether drinking caffeinated soda increases pulse rate. The pulse rates of two groups of people at rest were measured. Group A was then given caffeinated soda and group B was given caffeine-free soda. One hour after drinking the soda, the pulse rates were measured. The participants in the experiment were all the same age, and they were all given the same amount of soda. The dependent variable in this experiment is the
a)
type of soda given to each group
b)
amount of soda given to each group
c)
 pulse rate of each group
d)
age of participants in each group
11.
A series of steps used by scientists to solve a problem or answer a question. 
a)
scientific method
b)
recipe
c)
data collection
d)
metric system
12.
Which is NOT a step in the scientific method?
a)
Make observation
b)
Form a theory
c)
Collect data
d)
Form a hypothesis
13.
A testable explanation to a problem that has not yet been tested. 
a)
data
b)
theory
c)
hypothesis
d)
fact
14.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

15.

This is the practice of producing a genetically identical cell or organism

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

16.

This is the practice of cutting DNA and separating it by the size of the pieces

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

17.

This is the process of creating a unique image of an individual's alleles based on their size and using that image to identify an individual's DNA

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

18.

What is the name of the international effort to sequence a human's DNA sequence?

a)

The Gene Sequencing Project

b)

The DNA Fingerprinting Project

c)

The Nuremberg Trials

d)

The Human Genome Project

19.

Which of these is NOT a use for DNA Fingerprinting?

a)

Identifying the person whose DNA was left at a crime scene

b)

Determining the father of a child

c)

Finding the likelihood of inheriting a genetic disorder

d)

Figuring out which species are more closely related

20.

Why did scientists edit the genes of bacteria to produce insulin?

a)

Because the bacteria were diabetic

b)

Because bacteria have simple DNA that is easier to manipulate, making it easy to produce insulin in a lab

c)

Because bacteria's complex DNA was perfect for insulin production

d)

Because insulin has no use outside of a lab setting

21.

This is the practice of choosing individuals of a species to mate based on their desirable characteristics

a)

Bacterial recombination

b)

Natural selection

c)

Genetic modification

d)

Selective breeding

22.

Which of these is the correct definition of genetic modification/genetic engineering?

a)

Choosing individuals to mate based on desired characteristics

b)

Observing genetic changes in populations over time based on adaptive traits

c)

Extracting stem cells to differentiate into specialized tissues

d)

Altering the DNA of an organism at the molecular level

23.

What is the process in which an unspecialized stem cell turns into a specialized body cell?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Differentiation

c)

Respiration

d)

Genetic Modification

24.

During gel electrophoresis, the _______ pieces of DNA move farthest down the gel

a)

lightest

b)

heaviest

c)

ugliest

d)

deadliest

25.
What do balance sheets measure?
a)
Health of a business or individual
b)
Structure of a business
26.
What is an asset?
a)
What you own
b)
What you owe
c)
Prize possession
27.
Which is an example of an asset?
a)
Land
b)
Bank Loan
c)
Note
28.
What is a liability?
a)
What you owe
b)
What you own
29.
What is an example of a liability?
a)
Charge account
b)
Land
c)
Market Steer
d)
Pickup
30.
What is the owner's equity?
a)
Net worth
b)
Asset
c)
Liability
d)
Current
31.
Liquidity is the same as what financial term?
a)
Current
b)
Non-current
c)
Asset
d)
Liability
32.
What is a current asset?
a)
Can be sold without affecting long term profit generating capacity
b)
Can't be sold without affecting long term profit generating capacity
33.
What is an example of a current asset?
a)
Bank account balance
b)
Credit card bill
c)
Land
d)
Tractor
34.
What is the length of time current covers?
a)
0-12 months
b)
12+ months
c)
36+ months
d)
24+ months
35.
What is the length of non-current?
a)
2 months
b)
6 months
c)
12+ months
d)
0-12 months
36.
What is the definition of a non-current asset?
a)
Something that cannot be sold without harming the long-term profit generation capacity
b)
Some that can be sold without harming the long-term profit gernation capacity
37.
What is an example of a non-current asset?
a)
Fertilizer
b)
Land
c)
Bill for Lumber
d)
Feed
38.
What is an example of a current liability?
a)
Credit Card Bill
b)
Property mortgage
c)
Trailer
d)
Tractor
39.
What is a current liability?
a)
Long-term debt you owe within 12 months
b)
long-term debt you owe past 12 months
c)
What you own within 12 months
40.
What is a non-current liability?
a)
Long-term debt due in 12+ months
b)
Debt due within 12 months
c)
Debt due within 2 months
d)
Debt due within 1 week
41.
What is the equation for calculating owner's equity?
a)
Total Assets-Total Liability
b)
Total Assets + Total Liability
c)
Total Assets X Total Liability
d)
Total Assets/ Total Liability
42.
What does a cost-basis balance sheet measure?
a)
Measures business' performance over time
b)
Measures liquidation value of a business
c)
Only measures business' failures
d)
Only measures business' success
43.
What does a market-basis balance sheet measure?
a)
Measures the liquidation value of a business
b)
measures business' performance over time
c)
Only measures business' failures
d)
Only measures business' success
44.

An enterprise which derives a significant portion of its revenue.

a)

Agribusiness

b)

Business Mangement

c)

Business

d)

Agricultural Services

45.

Develop products for distribution from raw goods, such as forestry, farming & mining

a)

Producers

b)

Processors

c)

Intermediaries

d)

Service Firms

46.

Change raw goods into a more finished form using facilities such as cotton mils, oil refineries, textile mills

a)

Processors

b)

Producers

c)

Manufacturers

d)

Intermediaries

47.

Change raw or processed goods using facilities such as boot factories, furniture factories, cotton processing and citrus fruit processing

a)

Producers

b)

Processors

c)

Manufacturers

d)

Intermediaries

48.

Move finished goods from one business to another, also known as the "middlemen"

a)

Processors

b)

Manufacturers

c)

Producers

d)

Intermediaries

49.

Provide intangible goods to consumers and other businesses

a)

Intermediaries

b)

Service firms

c)

Intangible good

d)

Agricultural Co-op

50.

A good which cannot be physically touched; usually involving a service, such as going to the doctor

a)

Manufactured good

b)

Intangible good

c)

Tangible good

d)

Processed good

51.

Organization in which agriculturalists bring together their resources in a specific area of activity

a)

Non-Profit Organizations

b)

Service Firms

c)

Agricultural Co-ops

d)

Ag businesses

52.

Provides goods and services to individuals and operates on donations, volunteers, and philanthropists

a)

Non-Profit Organizations

b)

Service Firms

c)

Agricultural Co-ops

d)

Ag businesses

53.

Encourages appropriate standards of conservation, restoration management and the proper use of soil, water and natural resources

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

54.

Enhances profit opportunities for cattle & beef producers by increasing business and creating consumer demand

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

55.

Supports the members management of the financial risks of everyday life and successfully recover from any insured loss

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

56.

Increases opportunities for the success of US pork producers and other industry stakeholders

a)

National Cattlemen's Beef Association

b)

Farm Bureaus

c)

National Pork Producers Council

d)

The Association of Soil and Water Conservation Districts

57.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that price is determined by?

a)

Supply of the item

b)

Demand of the item

c)

Time the item has been manufactured

d)

General price level

58.

The quantity of a product that is available to buyers at a given time

a)

Supply

b)

Credit

c)

Demand

d)

Economics

59.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that influences the supply of products?

a)

Weather

b)

Ability to buy items needed to produce that product

c)

Cost & availability of credit

d)

Quantity of delivery trucks

60.

Defined as the quantity of a product that buyers will purchase at a specific given price at a given time

a)

Supply

b)

Demand

c)

Quantity

d)

Service

61.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects demand?

a)

Desire to purchase

b)

Weather

c)

Quantity available and price

d)

Population growth

62.

a physical count of all assets in a business

a)

revenue

b)

liabilities

c)

inventory

d)

assets

63.

the amount of money received from selling a product or providing a service

a)

income

b)

expense

c)

asset

d)

liability

64.

any costs associated with producing a product

a)

income

b)

expense

c)

asset

d)

liability

65.

reduced value of an asset over time from wear and tear

a)

variable

b)

depreciation

c)

inventory

d)

fixed

66.

Which of the following is a depreciable asset?

a)

equipment

b)

fertilizer

c)

seed

d)

market livestock

67.

Which of the following is a depreciable asset?

a)

hay/grass

b)

breeding livestock

c)

grain

d)

market livestock

68.

Which of the following an depreciate or appreciate in value?

a)

crops

b)

buildings

c)

equipment

d)

land

69.

To find profits, a business owner takes...

a)

income - expenses

b)

depreciation - income

70.

depreciation is considered an

a)

income

b)

expense

71.

expenses that are predictable and occur from month to month are called...

a)

fixed

b)

variable

c)

static

d)

depreciable

72.

expenses that change in value from month to month are called...

a)

fixed

b)

variable

c)

static

d)

depreciable

73.

The selection of a product or service to be sold for profit is called the:

a)

buying function

b)

distribution function

c)

promoting function

d)

selling function

74.
The science of the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services.
a)
Economics
b)
Needs
c)
Wants
d)
Agribusiness
e)
Debt
75.
Things that you must have to live a safe and healthy life.
a)
Needs
b)
Economics
c)
Wants
d)
Agribusiness
e)
Debt
76.
Something you would like to have or something that you enjoy.
a)
Wants
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Agribusiness
e)
Debt
77.
The exchange of goods and services in the agriculture, food, and natural resource system.
a)
Agribusiness
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Wants
e)
Debt
78.
Something that is owed or that one is bound to pay or perform for another.
a)
Debt
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Wants
e)
Agribusiness
79.
The monetary payment received for goods or services or other sources, such as rents or investments.
a)
Income
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Wants
e)
Agribusiness
80.
Financial obligation (debt) that must be paid at some future time.
a)
Liabilities
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Wants
e)
Agribusiness
81.
Physical or financial property that has value and is owned by a business or individual.
a)
Assets
b)
Economics
c)
Needs
d)
Wants
e)
Agribusiness
82.
Business organization in which profits are distributed as patronage refunds and all members have a single vote.
a)
Cooperative (Co-op)
b)
Corportation
c)
Limited Liability Company (LLC)
d)
Sole Proprietorship
e)
Partnership
83.
A business organization in which the owners have shares in a separate legal entity that itself can own assets and borrow money.
a)
Cooperative (Co-op)
b)
Corportation
c)
Limited Liability Company (LLC)
d)
Sole Proprietorship
e)
Partnership
84.
A business organization similar to a partnership but offering its owners the advantage of limited financial liability.
a)
Cooperative (Co-op)
b)
Corportation
c)
Limited Liability Company (LLC)
d)
Sole Proprietorship
e)
Partnership
85.
Two or more persons as co-owners of a profit-making business. The co-owners of a partnership are participating in management, sharing profits, sharing losses, owning assets together, a single joint bank account, and a single set of records.
a)
Cooperative (Co-op)
b)
Corportation
c)
Limited Liability Company (LLC)
d)
Sole Proprietorship
e)
Partnership
86.
Simplest, oldest, and most common form of business ownership in which only one individual has all the benefits and risks of running an enterprise. In a sole proprietorship, there is no legal distinction between the assets and liabilities of a business and those of its owner.
a)
Cooperative (Co-op)
b)
Corportation
c)
Limited Liability Company (LLC)
d)
Sole Proprietorship
e)
Partnership
87.
A part of the value chain, after determining trends in consumer preferences, that create innovative new processes, products, and solutions to solve problems.
a)
Research & Development (R&D)
b)
Pre-Production
c)
Production
d)
Supply Chain
e)
End Product
88.
A part of the value chain, products like seed, machinery, and data analysis are just some of the things needed to carry out the duties of the rest of the chain.
a)
Pre-Production
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Production
d)
Supply Chain
e)
End Product
89.
A part of the value chain, raw materials needed for end products are produced. Crops are grown, livestock is raised, oil is drilled and coal is mined.
a)
Production
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Supply Chain
e)
End Product
90.
A part of the value chain, raw materials needed for end products are produced. Crops are grown, livestock is raised, oil is drilled and coal is mined.
a)
Production
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Supply Chain
e)
End Product
91.
A channel of distribution beginning with the supplier of materials or components, extending through a manufacturing process to the distributor.
a)
Supply Chain
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Production
e)
End Product
92.
A part of the value chain, food, fuel, fiber, lumber or pharmaceuticals is ready, it is stocked for public use.
a)
End Product
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Production
e)
Supply Chain
93.
A part of the value chain, advertising, and marketing are used to inform consumers of their purchase options and lead them to stores.
a)
Sales, Service, & Support
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Production
e)
Supply Chain
94.
A person or organization that uses a commodity or service. The final step of the value chain.
a)
Consumers
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Production
e)
Supply Chain
95.
A multi-step process that adds value to a commodity starting with research & development and ending with the consumer.
a)
Value Chain
b)
Research & Development (R&D)
c)
Pre-Production
d)
Production
e)
Supply Chain
96.
What is the name of the one page summary of information about a job applicant?
a)
resume
b)
interest survey
c)
job application
d)
letter of recommendation
97.
Into what lending agency was the Production Credit Agency and the Federal Land Bank merged?
a)
Commodity Credit Corporation
b)
Farmers Home Administration
c)
Fannie Mae/Fannie Mac
d)
Farm Credit Services
98.
What law refers to the amount of profit generated by additional inputs (i.e.., at what point does the cost of adding more fertilizer outweigh the benefit of getting a higher yield)?
a)
Law of Diminishing Returns
b)
Law of Comparative Advantage
c)
Law of Opportunity Costs
d)
Law of Resource Substitution
99.
On what document does a borrower sign to indicate the loan will be paid on or before a specified date?
a)
registration form
b)
promissory note
c)
installment document
d)
reliability voucher
100.
When seeking a production loan, what information must you provide to a potential credit source?
a)
personal resume
b)
letters of recommendation
c)
list of items you will purchase with the borrowed money
d)
personal financial statement and cash flow projections
101.
If a farmer is deciding whether to rent additional land, this would fall under what decision making category?
a)
operational
b)
capital outlay
c)
organizational
d)
long-term
102.
What type of organization is licensed to manage the buying and selling of goods using a licensed broker?
a)
direct sales agency
b)
trade exchange
c)
commodity exchange
d)
wholesale market
103.
As an agribusiness manager, what is one of the best ways to minimize risk?
a)
fail to pay loans on time
b)
maintain a proper debt to income relationship
c)
increase the amount of loan if given the opportunity
d)
take out multiple lines of credit through different credit sources
104.
Where do food retailers (grocery stores) primarily purchase their food?
a)
food stores
b)
farm outlets
c)
food cooperatives
d)
food wholesalers
105.
Which economic factors determine the price a producer receives for his or her products?
a)
supply and demand
b)
amount invested in the crop
c)
futures market
d)
breakeven prices
106.
What is the major reason agribusinesses fail?
a)
poor management
b)
death of the manager
c)
labor problems
d)
lack of capital
107.
What is a disadvantage of being an employee instead of an owner?
a)
receiving overtime pay
b)
working regular hours
c)
getting fringe benefits
d)
having little or no control over our future
108.
Which is a major advantage of owning your own agribusiness?
a)
shorter work week
b)
financial responsibility
c)
control over your own destiny
d)
use personal money for business expenses
109.
Which is the business function that involves selecting a product or service to be marketed for profit?
a)
selling function
b)
buying function
c)
promoting function
d)
financing function
110.
What are the five basic ways American business is organized?
a)
buy, sell, profit, distribution, finance
b)
buy, sell revenue, marketing, finance
c)
buy, sell, promote, distribution, financing
d)
buy, sell, marketing, profit, financing
111.
What are the three main types of cooperatives?
a)
market, purchase, and service based
b)
market, sales, and serviced based
c)
sales, purchasing, and service based
d)
market, purchasing, and sales based
112.
Approximately 75% of the milk sold in the US is sold through farmer-owned, milk-marketing organizations known as what?
a)
direct sellers
b)
terminal marketers
c)
cooperatives
d)
vertical integrators
113.
Which type of business is inexpensive to set up, but has personal liability?
a)
sole proprietorship
b)
corporation
c)
LLC
d)
sub-chapter S corporation
114.
What type of business is expensive to set up, but has no personal liability?
a)
sole proprietorship
b)
corporation
c)
LLC
d)
partnership
115.
If a farmer is deciding whether to sell cattle this week or next, this would fall under what decision making category?
a)
organizational
b)
operational
c)
capital outlay
d)
short-term
116.
Which business function includes studying the product or service to determine the reasons that customers will want and need the product or service?
a)
buying
b)
distribution
c)
promoting
d)
selling
117.
As a financial record, what is the role of a cash flow statement?
a)
project costs and other expenses
b)
availability of funds
c)
identify the units of product on hand
d)
verify the business makes a profit each year
118.
At one time, New York state raised sheep. Today those farms produce milk because the popularity of milk and the potential profit that can be generated from milk products is greater than that of sheep production. This scenario is an example of what economic law?
a)
Law of Comparative Advantage
b)
Law of Diminishing Returns
c)
Law of Opportunity Costs
d)
Law of Supply and Demand
119.
What government owned credit source provides loans for specific crops like grain and peanuts?
a)
Commodity Credit Corporation
b)
Fannie Mae
c)
Farmers Home Administration
d)
Freddie Mac
120.
Which type of cooperative receives products from its members and then resells those products for the best possible price?
a)
market based
b)
purchasing based
c)
service based
d)
sales based
121.
Loans used to purchase land and buildings are classified as what type of loan?
a)
short-term
b)
intermediate-term
c)
long-term
d)
non-risk
122.
What should a proper debt-to-net worth ratio not exceed?
a)
1:1
b)
2:1
c)
3:1
d)
4:1
123.
What type of organization is created, owned, and controlled by its members?
a)
cooperative
b)
entrepreneurial
c)
mid-marketing
d)
small business
124.

Humans have the ability to learn and know. This is known as

a)

achievement

b)

intelligence

c)

intuition

d)

spontaneity

125.

The percentage of an average US worker's pay that is used for food is

a)

9.4 percent

b)

14.5 percent

c)

50 percent

d)

74 percent

126.

The best term to describe the application of scientific principles and new technologies to agriculture is

a)

agribusiness

b)

renewable resources

c)

farming

d)

agriscience

127.

Harmful insects, rodents, and diseases are all referred to as

a)

animasl

b)

plants

c)

pests

d)

parasites

128.

Agriscience encompasses

a)

Wildlife and Fish

b)

Ornamental plants and trees

c)

Farms and Agribusinesses

d)

All of the above and More

129.

Irrigated lands are generally used for

a)

Intensive crop production

b)

Wildlife Refuges

c)

Forests

d)

Boating and Fishing

130.

One relationship of agriscience with many other sciences is that

a)

Agriscience is the application of many other sciences

b)

Agriscience is entirely different from all other sciences

c)

Agriscience is an old term an is unlike other sciences

d)

Agriscience is a narrow science and is easily defined

131.

The career and job outlook in Agriscience is

a)

A strong demand for college graduates

b)

A shortage of 4,000 trained workers per year

c)

Higher salaries are being offered

d)

All of the above

132.

Commercial firms in agriculture

a)

Chemistry

b)

Agribusiness

c)

Biology

d)

Environmental

133.

Basic science of plants and animals

a)

Biology

b)

Agribusiness

c)

Aquaculture

d)

Environment

134.

A ______ resource is one that can replace itself.

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

135.

Sierra writes down what happened in her science notebook.


What step is this?

a)

asking a question

b)

flower

c)

collecting data

d)

planning

136.

Shelby creates an educated guess or inference of what she think will happen.


What step is this?

a)

2-D model

b)

hypothesis

c)

asking questions

d)

computer model

137.

Colt wonders what would happen if he added baking soda and vinegar together.


What step is this?

a)

asking a question

b)

sharing results

c)

making a plan

d)

collecting data

138.

Chris gets the materials he needs and write down the steps of his experiment.


What step is this?

a)

making a plan

b)

sharing results

c)

3-D model

d)

mind model

139.

Cheyenne conducts the experiment according to her steps.


What step is this?

a)

hypothesis

b)

analyzing data

c)

carrying out a plan

d)

collecting data

140.

AJ shares with others the results of his experiment.


What step is this?

a)

asking questions

b)

mind model

c)

computer model

d)

sharing results

141.

The scientific model is ALWAYS conducted in the same manner?

a)

true

b)

false

c)

not sure

d)

of course

142.

analyze means...

a)

in an experiment, a group that is kept under normal or ideal conditions while others are changed

b)

to predict

c)

to figure out what data or information means

d)

to use correctly

143.

Data means...

to figure out what information means

a)

true

b)

false

c)

not sure

d)

maybe

144.

Experiment means...

one way of testing a hypothesis OR

a series of steps used to figure out the effects of a certain factor on another factor

a)

true

b)

false

c)

not sure

d)

maybe

145.

Hypothesis means...

a)

to study something

b)

in an experiment, a group that is kept under normal or ideal conditions while others are changed

c)

to figure out what data or information means

d)

a prediction based on background knowledge

146.

Investigation means...

a)

to organize data

b)

to predict

c)

to figure things out

d)

to learn about something

147.

Observation means...

a)

to figure out what data means

b)

to study something using your senses

c)

to predict

d)

to look at something

148.

Scientific Method is...

A plan of inquiry that uses science skills to gather, organize, analyze, and communicate information.

a)

true

b)

false

c)

not sure

d)

maybe

149.
____ made from bacteria is (are) used to help control blood sugar in people with diabetes.
a)
Genes
b)
Insulin
c)
DNA
d)
Cells
150.
What is the genetic material found in cells that contain the code of life, usually called DNA?
a)
A trait
b)
A mutation
c)
chromosome
d)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
151.
Molecular biologists study ______ to help figure out their processes.
a)
cells
b)
plants
c)
atoms
d)
fossils
152.
When humans use biological processes to solve a problem, they are using______.
a)
biochemistry
b)
biotechnology
c)
molecular biology
d)
gene therapy
153.
Specific areas of DNA that code for certain traits are called _________.
a)
genes
b)
mutations
c)
enzymes
d)
cells
154.
_____ are proteins that can be added to laundry soap to make them dissolve stains better.
a)
Genes
b)
Traits
c)
Enzymes
d)
DNA
155.
In sexual reproduction, offspring inherit equal amounts of DNA from both _____.
a)
offspring
b)
cells
c)
atoms
d)
parents
156.
______ is a field of science that uses both chemistry and biology.
a)
Biochemistry
b)
Biology
c)
Chemistry
d)
Botany
157.
The process where humans breed certain animals together to get certain traits is called _____.
a)
natural selection
b)
evolution
c)
artificial selection
d)
mutation
158.
Cystic fibrosis is a lung disease that can be treated by _____ therapy.
a)
trait
b)
gene
c)
bacteria
d)
fossil
159.

Animal feed products enhanced with proteins to boost nutrition and control diseases.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

160.

Contact lens cleaner with enzymes that break down proteins that build-up on lenses.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

161.
The Human Genome Project.
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
162.
Microbes capable of cleaning up gas spills a gas stations. 
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
163.

Using to microbes to clean up waste water before it enters streams and lakes.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

164.
Lactaid milk Lactaid milk products made using the enzyme lactase. 
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
165.
Corn with a BT gene that protects it from pests like the corn ear worm. 
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
166.

Using methane-producing bacteria to heat homes in third-world countries.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

167.

Laundry detergent that is more effective because of the addition of enzymes to their active ingredients.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

168.

Using amino acids from microbes to make Equal sweetener.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

169.

Using oil-eating bacteria to help clean up major oil spills in oceans and on shorelines.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

170.

Monoclonal antibodies that fight cancer cells.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

171.
Customizing the genetic makeup of crops so they can grow in dry or wet climates. 
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
172.
New tests that diagnose inherited diseases and common illnesses.
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
173.

Using a fungus to break down wood preservatives that contaminates the soil near old sawmills.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

174.

Fruit juices made using the enzyme pectinase, which breaks the pulp down into juice.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

175.

Inserting genes for therapeutic proteins into crops like tobacco, corn and soybeans.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

176.

Using the naturally occurring hormone BST, to improve the amount of milk cows can produce.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

177.

Sewage plants collecting methane gas to fuel generators or air compressors.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

178.
Soybeans that are resistant to the application herbicides.
a)
Agricultural
b)
Environmental 
c)
Consumer Goods
d)
Medical 
179.
Which area of biotechnology is used to improve how we produce food and fiber?
a)
Agricultural 
b)
Environmental 
c)
Food & Consumer Goods
d)
Medical
180.

Which area of biotechnology is used to help reduce our negative impact on the environment?

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Food & Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

181.

Which area of biotechnology is used to improve the products we use everyday?

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Food & Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

182.

Which area of biotechnology is used to improve the medical field and our health?

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Food & Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

183.

Roundup® Ready cotton that is resistant to applications of Roundup® herbicide which is used to kill weeds.

a)

Agricultural

b)

Environmental

c)

Consumer Goods

d)

Medical

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