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Worksheets

PBS 1.1 Review

Total questions: 182

Worksheet time: 2hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

___________ is the application of scientific knowledge to resolve questions of civil and criminal law.

a)

Forensic Science

b)

Biomedical Science

c)

Criminal Justice

2.

___________combines the fields of biology and medicine to develop knowledge, interventions, or technology that are of use in healthcare or public health.

a)

Forensic Science

b)

Biomedical Science

c)

Criminal Justice

3.

The _________ is the person who has died in forensic investigations and medical cases.

a)

Witness

b)

Decedent

c)

Medical Examiner

4.

Why is it important to have precise measurements when investigating a case?

a)

to come to a conclusion

b)

to avoid miscalculations

c)

so you can recreate the scene later

d)

all of the above

5.

Which crime scene search method is shown in the diagram?

a)

zone

b)

link

c)

wheel

d)

line

6.

Which crime scene search method is shown in the diagram?

a)

zone

b)

link

c)

line/strip

d)

wheel/ray

7.

Which are included in crime scene sketches? (choose all that apply)

a)

time of death

b)

scale

c)

evidence

d)

cause of death

e)

location

8.

What search method is being described: searchers begin at the center and move outward in straight lines.

a)
a) Strip Method
b)
b) Spiral Method
c)
c) Wheel Method 
d)
d) Grid Method 
9.

What was found on Anna's shirt that could be evidence?

a)

Flies

b)

White powder

c)

Strand of hair

d)

red fibers

10.

Which characteristic is important for the biomedical sciences professions?

a)

collaborative

b)

Critical thinker

c)

ethical

d)

all of these options are important

11.

When you arrive at the crime scene, what should be done first?

a)

Check the body for vital signs.

b)

Secure the crime scene.

c)

Start collecting evidence.

d)

Interview any witnesses

12.

What components should be included in the legend? Check all that apply.

a)

Date

b)

Time

c)

Location

d)

Temperature

e)

Altitude

13.

What was the best search method used to investigate Anna's crime scene?

a)

grid method

b)

spiral method

c)

line (strip) method

d)

Zone and/or Link method

14.

Which of the following is NOT a search method used to sift through a crime scene?

a)

Spiral Method

b)

Wheel/Ray Method

c)

Grid Method

d)

List Method

15.
What is this crime scene sketch missing?
a)

A scale to show size

b)

Legend with time and date

c)

Key showing numbered evidence

d)

Nothing!

16.
Which crime scene search method is the image demonstrating?
a)
Wheel method
b)
Ray method
c)
Spiral method
d)
Link method
17.
Which type of crime scene search method is shown below?
a)
zone
b)
quadrant
c)
numbered
d)
strip
18.

What are the parts to processing a crime scene

a)

collect evidence, sketch, interview, examine, photograph

b)

photograph, measurements, the scene

c)

collect evidence, sketch, interview, explain, photograph,

d)

Secure scene, photograph, sketch, interview, collect evidence for analysis

19.

The amount of breaths someone takes per min

a)

Heart Rate

b)

Skin Conductivity

c)

Respiration Rate

d)

Blood Pressure

20.

The amount of times the heart beats per min

a)

Heart Rate

b)

Skin Conductivity

c)

Blood Pressure

d)

Respiration Rate

21.

What is a polygraph test?

a)

A test to see how well you can adapt and control your physiological responses in a high stress environment.

b)

A test that determines your age.

c)

A test that determines how much you weigh without stepping on a scale.

d)

A test used to determine whether you are a truther or a liar.

22.

What does a polygraph measure?

a)

Detects eye movement

b)

Detects lies from physiological responses

c)

Detects the severity of an emotion

d)

Detects differences in brain activity

23.

When analyzing polygraph results, what is the investigator looking for?

a)

The person's heart rate will increase when telling a lie.

b)

The person's breathing rate will increase when telling a lie.

c)

The person's breathing rate will decrease when telling a lie.

d)

The results of the relevant question are different from the results of the control question.

24.

Match the fingerprint.

a)

Whorl

b)

Loop

c)

Arch

d)

Helix

25.

Match the fingerprint

a)

Loop

b)

Whorl

c)

Helix

d)

Arch

26.

Match the fingerprint.

a)

Loop

b)

Whorl

c)

Helix

d)

Arch

27.

Other than ridge patterns scientists also have to use another pattern to identify and match fingerprints. What are these patterns called?

a)

Medulla

b)

Keratin

c)

Whorls

d)

Minutiae

28.
Which component of blood is responsible for helping to stop bleeding?
a)
platelets
b)
red blood cells
c)
white blood cells
d)
plasma
29.
The fluid portion of blood that carries blood cells, glucose, proteins, fats, and wastes throughout the body.
a)
red blood cells
b)
white blood cells
c)
plasma
d)
platelets
30.
Red blood cells are
a)
thrombocytes
b)
neutrophils
c)
monocytes
d)
erthryocytes
31.

Which of the following is not a major component of blood in humans?

a)

Epithelial cells

b)

Red blood cells

c)

White blood cells

d)

Plasma

e)

Platelets

32.

Detection of sweat

a)

Heart Rate

b)

Skin Conductivity

c)

Blood Pressure

d)

Respiration Rate

33.

The innermost layer of hair is the

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

34.

The outermost layer of hair is the

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

35.

The middle layer of hair is the

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

36.

Contains natural pigment (melanin)

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

37.

Core of hair

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Medulla

38.

True or False: No two people have been found with the exact same fingerprint pattern.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The diameter of a blood drop can be used to estimate the

a)

height blood fell.

b)

blood type.

c)

amount of blood.

d)

direction of blood letting.

40.

What is the purpose of presumptive testing?

a)

Find out who the blood belongs to.

b)

Find out the blood type of the blood sample.

c)

Find out if a substance may be or is not blood.

d)

Make the cotton swabs turn pretty colors.

41.

The proteins found on the surface of RBCs that allow us to type blood as A, B, O or AB are called

a)

Rh factors

b)

Antigens

c)

Antibodies

d)

Aggluntates

42.

What is produced by your body in response to foreign antigens, such as the wrong type of blood?

a)

Agglutinates

b)

Clotting factors

c)

Antibodies

d)

Phagocytes

43.

Which blood type has Type B antibodies? CHECK ALL THAT APPLY

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

44.

If a person’s blood is exposed to anti-B serum and it clumps, but does not clump when exposed to anti-A serum, then the blood is

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

45.

The point of origin is ...

a)

the location from which all measurements are taken.

b)

a bird's eye view of a crime scene.

c)

framing the scene with police tape.

d)

documenting any evidence.

46.

When completing a polygraph test, _______ data is taken by asking control questions to provide a reference point for all physiological responses during the test.

a)

baseline

b)

relevant

c)

dependent

d)

independent

47.

Other than ridge patterns scientists also have to use another pattern to identify and match fingerprints. What are these patterns called?

a)

Medulla

b)

Keratin

c)

Whorls

d)

Minutiae

48.
Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen?
a)
red blood cell
b)
white blood cell
c)
platelets
d)
plasma
49.
Which component of blood is responsible for helping to stop bleeding?
a)
platelets
b)
red blood cells
c)
white blood cells
d)
plasma
50.

The force of blood on the vessels during contraction and relaxation of the heart.

a)

Heart Rate

b)

Skin Conductivity

c)

Blood Pressure

d)

Respiration Rate

51.
What is the correct order of processing evidence and analysis of a crime scene?
    1-collect evidence
    2-conduct interviews
    3-protect the crime scene
    4-photograph the crime scene
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
3, 4, 1, 2
c)
4, 3, 1, 2
d)
2, 3, 4, 1
52.

What part of the hair is represented by letter C?

a)

cuticle

b)

cortex

c)

medulla

d)

root

53.

What part of the hair is represented by letter B?

a)

cuticle

b)

cortex

c)

medulla

d)

root

54.

What part of the hair is represented by letter A?

a)

cuticle

b)

cortex

c)

medulla

d)

root

55.

Which method of searching a crime scene is BEST for an area that  does NOT have any easily definable areas/ sections  such as a river or the ocean

a)

Link method 

b)

Spiral method 

c)

Line method 

d)

Zone method

56.

What view do you want to use for your crime scene sketch?

a)

View from window

b)

View from door

c)

View from the decedent's perspective

d)

View from above

57.

Which part of the hair is the right arrow pointing at?

a)

Cortex

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

split end

58.
Name this minutiae type
a)
Enclosure
b)
Island (pick me! pick me! you know you want to)
c)
Bifurcation (fork) 
d)
Ridge ending 
59.
Name this minutiae type
a)
Bridge 
b)
Island (dot) 
c)
Bifurcation (fork) 
d)
Pore
60.

Which of the following steps to processing a crime scene is NOT performed by a crime scene investigator?

a)

Photographing the scene

b)

Sketching the scene

c)

Interviewing witnesses

d)

Collecting the evidence

61.

Which of the following physiological responses are measured during a polygraph test? (check all that apply)

a)

Respiration rate

b)

Heart rate

c)

Digestion rate

d)

Blood pressure

62.
What pattern is this?
a)
Loop
b)
Arch
c)
Whorl
63.
When a fingerprint expert takes the witness stand and says he's absolutely certain two fingerprints match, he means he's found
a)
at least 8 or more matching minutiae
b)
at least 12 or more matching minutaie
c)
at least 20 or more matching minutiae
d)
at least 50 or more matching minutiae
64.

Classify the print

a)

Double Loop

b)

Plain Whorl

c)

Plain Arch

d)

Central Pocket Loop

65.

What is Loccard's Exchange Principle?

a)

Perpetrators always leave evidence behind.

b)

Every contact leaves a trace.

c)

All touches leave evidence.

d)

Long, violent confrontations leave evidence.

66.

Identify the type of minutiae circled in the picture.

a)

Ridge ending

b)

Dot

c)

Double Fork

d)

Fork

67.
An invisible print that must be developed using powder or chemicals is called
a)
plastic
b)
latent
c)
patent
d)
underdeveloped
68.

Data such as phone, text, and internet use is called

a)

digital forensics

b)

trace forensics

c)

confirmed forensics

d)

speculative forensics

69.

Is the fingerprint on the left (taken from a crime scene) a match for the one on the right (taken from a suspect)?

a)

Confirmed match

b)

No match

70.

Is the fingerprint on the left (taken from a crime scene) a match for the one on the right (taken from a suspect)?

a)

Confirmed match

b)

No match

71.

Is the fingerprint on the left (taken from a crime scene) a match for the one on the right (taken from a suspect)?

a)

Confirmed match

b)

No match

72.
An invisible print that must be developed using powder or chemicals is called
a)
plastic
b)
latent
c)
patent
d)
underdeveloped
73.

The Kastle-Meyer Test is a

a)

negative test for DNA.

b)

positive test for bacteria.

c)

presumptive test for blood.

d)

confirmatory test for blood.

74.

An appropriate example of a positive control for an experiment that tests for COVID-19 is

a)

blood.

b)

a sample of a virus that causes the flu.

c)

water.

d)

a sample of the virus that causes COVID-19.

75.

A swab was taken of a red stain on the floor of a crime scene. The result of a Kastle-Meyer test performed on this swab is shown here. What does this result indicate?

a)

The result is negative, meaning that the stain is blood.

b)

The result is positive, meaning that the stain may be blood.

c)

The result is negative, meaning that the stain is not blood.

d)

The result is positive, meaning that the stain is most certainly blood.

76.

A presumptive test

a)

usually is done first, is quick and indicates a possible positive result.

b)

is always negative.

c)

usually is done at the lab, takes longer and indicates a 100% certainty positive result.

d)

usually is done first, is quick and indicates a 100% certainty positive result.

77.

According to the chart shown here, which patient has blood type AB?

a)

Patient 1

b)

Patient 2

c)

Patient 3

d)

Patient 4

78.

Agglutination also means

a)

the antibodies that are circulating in blood.

b)

clumping of red blood cells.

c)

presumptive blood tests.

d)

blood type.

79.

Which blood type would most likely be considered a "universal donor" meaning that this blood type can be given to any person that needs blood?

a)

type A

b)

type AB

c)

type B

d)

type O

80.

If a person has blood type A, what would be circulating in their blood?

*It is possible that there are more than one correct answer. You must select ALL the correct answers to get the point.

a)

anti-A antibody

b)

anti-B antibody

c)

antigen A

d)

antigen B

81.

"+" means there is a positive result. "-" means there is a negative results.

Patient D has blood type

a)

A

b)

AB

c)

O

d)

B

82.

According to the graph shown here, what is the independent variable of this experiment?

a)

average blood diameter

b)

blood spatter diameter

c)

angle of blood spatter

d)

height of blood dropped

83.

Which component of blood makes up the majority (over 50%) of total blood volume?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

platelets

c)

plasma

d)

lymphocytes

84.

A blood spatter analyst examines

a)

the location of blood stains.

b)

the distribution of blood pools.

c)

the distribution of blood droplets.

d)

the shape of blood stains and puddles.

85.

Procedures should

a)

only make sense to the people who are writing them.

b)

be specific, with measurements, numbers and details.

c)

be reproducible when other people perform them.

d)

be more than 20 steps.

86.

A stain such as the one shown here would most likely be classified as

a)

falling droplet.

b)

elongated tail.

c)

radial spatter.

d)

transfer.

87.

Which blood spatter pattern represents a gravity spatter, dropped from a near 90 degree angle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

88.

A fast or high velocity blood spatter stain is usually indicated by

a)

a large, round pattern.

b)

a smeared pattern.

c)

a long tail.

d)

a long oval shape.

89.

Passive or gravity blood stain patterns would usually be caused by

a)

a blunt force trauma injury.

b)

a gunshot.

c)

walking over a puddle of blood and leaving prints.

d)

dropping straight down from a source of bleeding.

90.

The purpose of plasma in blood is to

a)

transports oxygen from the lungs to other parts of the body.

b)

fight infections.

c)

make blood red.

d)

acts as the major medium that holds, carries and transports all the other components of blood, including nutrients, antibodies, food, waste and other cells.

e)

clot cuts and damaged blood vessels.

91.

Thrombocytes are also known as

a)

plasma.

b)

platelets.

c)

red blood cells.

d)

white blood cells.

92.
Type ____ blood is considered the universal donor blood type because of the lack of __________ in it.
a)
O
b)
antigens
c)
AB
d)
A
e)
B
93.
Type ____ blood is considered the universal recipient blood type because of the lack of __________ in it.
a)
AB
b)
antibodies
c)
A
d)
O
e)
B
94.
A person with type A blood can safely receive which of these blood types? Select all correct answers.
a)
A
b)
O
c)
AB
d)
B
95.
A antibodies would cause clumping if added to WHICH of these samples? Select all correct answers.
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
O
96.
What part of blood is responsible for fighting infections?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
97.
What type of blood can receive any type of blood?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
AB
d)
0
98.
Mike has type O blood. Mike can receive blood from someone who has Type A or Type B.
a)
True
b)
False
99.
Someone with type A blood can receive blood from someone who is type AB.
a)
True
b)
False
100.
Someone who has Type O blood has what for antibodies (clumping proteins)?
a)
No antibodies
b)
A antibodies
c)
B antibodies
d)
A and B antibodies
101.
What antigens are present in a person with type B- blood?
a)
B, only
b)
B and Rh
c)
A and Rh
d)
A, only
102.

In the Kastle-Meyer presumptive blood test, which color indicates that blood is present?

a)

Pink

b)

Yellow

c)

Blue

d)

Gold

103.

What happens when blood agglutinates (clots) in response to an anti-body?

a)
It becomes clear
b)
It clumps
c)
It turns blue
d)
It turns yellow
104.

Red blood cells are also called?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Platelets

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Lymphocytes

105.

White blood cells are also called?

a)

Leukocytes

b)

Erythrocytes

c)

Platelets

d)

Lymphocytes

106.

A substance on the surface of red blood cells that can trigger the production of antibodies

a)

agglutinates

b)

antigens

c)

anemia

d)

Rh Factor

107.
In identifying an unknown substance, ______tests like gas chromatography and mass spectrometry are specific tests that can determine the exact identity of the substance
a)
Confirmatory 
b)
Gel Electrophoresis
c)
Eliminating
d)
Presumptive
108.
The main purpose of Red Blood Cells is to 
a)
carry gases, wastes, and nutrients
b)
attack and destroy pathogens
c)
clot the blood
d)
digest food
109.

Luminol would be considered a presumptive test for blood.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

Blood typing cannot be used on dried blood.

a)

True

b)

False

111.
An individual's blood type is determined by
a)
environment
b)
genetics
c)
both environment and genetics
d)
your children's blood type
112.

Which of the following is the most common presumptive blood test that uses phenolphthalein which reacts with hemoglobin?

a)

Luminol

b)

Leucocrystal Violet

c)

Kastle-Meyer

113.

What is the blood type of #1?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

114.

What is the blood type of #4?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

115.

What is the blood type of #3?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

116.

What is the blood type of #2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

117.

This protein (which comes from bacteria) searches for certain sequences in DNA cuts them at certain places

a)

Restriction Enzyme

b)

Molecular Cutters

c)

PCR cleaver

d)

Digesters

118.

After DNA has been cut into pieces by restriction enzymes, it is considered to be...

a)

snipped

b)

amplified

c)

digested

d)

Cut up

119.

EcoRI, HaeIII, HindIII are examples of...

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

digestion sites

c)

DNA strands

d)

restriction enzymes

120.

This process produces millions of copies of a DNA sequence from a small amount of DNA.

a)

Amplification

b)

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)

c)

DNA Digestion

d)

Transcription

121.

Removing DNA from the nucleus of a cell is known as...

a)

Endonuclease

b)

Site Charging

c)

DNA Amplification

d)

DNA extraction

122.

The location where restriction enzymes cut DNA is called a..

a)

nucleotide

b)

recognition site

c)

phosphate

d)

molecular clevage site

123.

The location where restriction enzymes cut DNA is called a..

a)

nucleotide

b)

recognition site

c)

phosphate

d)

molecular clevage site

124.

Check all the places from where you can collect DNA.

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

Clothing

c)

Bone

d)

Hair with a follicle

e)

Body Fluids

125.

A person's unique individual DNA code is called a ...

a)

identity sequence

b)

code or organization

c)

DNA Profile

d)

nucleotide fingerprint

126.

This laboratory procedure is known as

a)

CLONING

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

chromatography

d)

use of a dichotomous key

127.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

128.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

129.
Restriction Enzymes . . . 
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
130.
What charge is DNA?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
131.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
132.
In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear
a)
closest to the starting wells
b)
farthest from the starting wells
c)
three quarters away from the starting wells
d)
it depends on how many fragments there are
133.
During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the ___ end to the ___ end.
a)
positive, negative
b)
negative, positive
134.

How many fragments resulted from the cut above?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

135.

"bp" stands for...

a)

Blood Pressure

b)

Base Pair

c)

Body Pressure

d)

Body Pair

136.

How many restriction sites appear in the picture?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

137.

How many restriction sites appear in the picture?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

138.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
139.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
140.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
141.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
142.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
143.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
144.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
145.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
146.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
147.

What makes up the SIDES of a DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

sugars & phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

148.

What makes up the rungs (steps) of a DNA ladder?

a)

sugars & phosphates

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

genes & chromosomes

149.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
150.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
151.
What sugar is in DNA?
a)
deoxyribose
b)
ribose
c)
oxyribose
d)
deoxyose
152.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
153.
What is the function of a primer?
a)
To identify the particular region of DNA to be copied by PCR.
b)
To copy DNA.
c)
To create DNA nucleotides.
d)
To maintain the temperature of the PCR reaction.
154.
What are the base-pairing rules in DNA?
a)
A-C, G-T
b)
A-U, G-C
c)
A-T, G-C
d)
A-C, G-U
155.

How many copies of DNA are made after 1 cycle of PCR? (we did 30 cycles during the last block period).

a)

1

b)

2

c)

1 million

d)

4

156.

Is DNA found inside a Red Blood Cell?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

157.

Where on a hair can DNA be extracted?

a)

Follicle

b)

Cuticle

c)

Medulla

d)

Cortex

158.

Proteins which DNA winds around in order to compress into a small space are...

a)

corpuscles

b)

histones

c)

nucleic acids

d)

enzymes

159.

DNA takes on this "X" shape when the cell is getting ready to divide.

a)

chromosome

b)

histone

c)

chromatin

d)

X cell

160.

This type of cell that has organized membrane bound organelles inside of it.

a)

prokaryotic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

red blood cells

d)

hemoglobulin

161.

These cells are unorganized and lack organelles with membranes.

a)

prokaryotic cells

b)

eukaryotic cells

c)

white blood cells

d)

potent cells

162.

What is the purpose of a DNA ladder/standard in gel electrophoresis?

a)

To determine the size of unknown DNA fragments

b)

To visualize DNA fragments

c)

To compare DNA sequences

d)

To create a DNA profile

163.

Which suspect is linked to the crime scene by this DNA analysis

a)

Suspect A

b)

Suspect C

c)

Suspect D

d)

Suspect B

164.
Why do you use a new pipette tip on the micropipette every time you get a new sample?
a)
To avoid contaminating the other samples
b)
To use as many tools as you can.
c)
The pipette tips disappear after being used.
d)
None of these reasons
165.
Biologists need additional copies of a DNA fragment. What tool should they use?
a)
Gel Electrophoresis
b)
PCR
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
This isn't possible
166.
Which DNA strands move the fastest through the gel when the electricity is turned on?
a)
The long strands
b)
The short strands
c)
The medium strands
d)
They all move the same
167.
If base-pairing rules state that Adenine always pairs with Thymine, and Cytosine pairs with Guanine, what would be the complementary strand to ACGGT?
a)
ACGGT
b)
TGGCA
c)
TGCCA
d)
ACCGT
168.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
169.

Which RE's from above make blunt cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

170.

Which RE's from above make sticky cuts?

a)

Alul

b)

HaeIII

c)

BamHI

d)

HindIII

e)

EcorRI

171.

How many bp's make up each fragment?

a)

11

b)

14

c)

7

d)

22

e)

28

172.

1. If the recognition sequence of the restriction enzyme HindIII is AAGCTT, then how many covalent bonds will be broken by the enzyme in the following DNA molecule?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

173.

What kind of cuts were made in the scenario above?

a)

Blunt

b)

Sticky

c)

No cuts were made

d)

Palindrome

174.

Restriction enzymes produce random cuts along the DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

175.

Blunt ends created by restriction enzymes are ends that do have an overhang

a)

true

b)

false

176.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
177.
Which of the following CANNOT be determined from blood spatter?
a)
Exact Weapon Used
b)
Manner of Death
c)
Velocity
d)
Area of Origin
178.
What blood spatter pattern is seen in the picture?
a)
Transfer/Contact
b)
Swipe
c)
Wipe
d)
Saturation
179.

Which blood spatter pattern represents a gravity spatter, dropped from a near 90 degree angle?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

180.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
181.

There is a standard at either end of the gel. The 2nd column from the left is the crime scene DNA. Counting from the Left which suspect can we place at the crime scene? All remaining columns are suspects, no victim DNA here.

a)

1 & 9

b)

1, 3, 5, 7

c)

Just 9

d)

None of them

182.

Which blood-spatter pattern is an example of a TRANSFER?

a)

b)

c)

d)

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