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A&P Lecture Test 1 Review

Total questions: 186

Worksheet time: 9hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Explain how the structure of the cell membrane contributes to its function in regulating the movement of substances into and out of the cell.

a)

The cell membrane is rigid, preventing any movement of substances.

b)

The cell membrane is composed of a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins, allowing selective permeability.

c)

The cell membrane is made of a single layer of lipids, which allows all substances to pass freely.

d)

The cell membrane is impermeable, blocking all substances from entering or leaving the cell.

2.
When a group of organs work together to perform a particular function they create a/an
a)
organ system
b)
organism
c)
tissue
d)
organ
3.
A group of similar cells that come together to perform a specific function is a/an
a)
organ
b)
organism
c)
organ system
d)
tissue
4.
The smallest level of organization of life in an organism
a)
tissue
b)
cell
c)
organ
d)
organ system
5.
Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?
a)
a.  Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system
b)
a.  Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism
c)
a.  Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
a.  Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
6.

A doctor shines a light into your mouth to observe your tonsils

a)

gross anatomy

b)

cytology

c)

developmental anatomy

d)

systemic physiology

7.

Using an MRI to view the brain

a)

pathological anatomy

b)

systemic physiology

c)

histology

d)

radiographic anatomy

8.

A physician observes the fingers and joints of an elderly man's hand

a)

microscopic anatomy

b)

histology

c)

surface anatomy

d)

radiographic anatomy

9.

learning how bones store and release calcium and support our bodies is an example of

a)

systemic physiology

b)

systemic anatomy

c)

cytology

d)

embryology

10.

This is an example of

a)

cytology

b)

histology

c)

embryology

d)

radiographic anatomy

11.

A scientist studying ___ would use terminology like mitochondria, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum

a)

surface anatomy

b)

cytology

c)

histology

d)

embryology

12.

Taking a biopsy of muscle

a)

regional anatomy

b)

cytology

c)

histology

d)

embryology

13.
Find the correct order.
a)
Tissue / Organ / Organ System
b)
Cell / Organ System / Organism
c)
Organ / Cell / Organ System
14.

What is A?

a)

upper right quadrant

b)

lower right quadrant

c)

upper left quadrant

d)

lower left quadrant

15.

What is B?

a)

upper right quadrant

b)

lower right quadrant

c)

upper left quadrant

d)

lower left quadrant

16.

What is C?

a)

upper right quadrant

b)

lower right quadrant

c)

upper left quadrant

d)

lower left quadrant

17.

What is D?

a)

upper right quadrant

b)

lower right quadrant

c)

upper left quadrant

d)

lower left quadrant

18.

What is 1?

a)

right hypocondriac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

19.

What is 3?

a)

right hypocondriac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

20.

What is 4?

a)

right hypocondriac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

21.

What is 6?

a)

right iliac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

22.

What is 7?

a)

right iliac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

23.

What is 9?

a)

right iliac

b)

left hypochondriac

c)

right lumbar

d)

left lumbar

e)

left iliac

24.

What is 2?

a)

epigastric

b)

hypogastric

c)

umbilical

25.

What is 5?

a)

epigastric

b)

hypogastric

c)

umbilical

26.

What is 8?

a)

epigastric

b)

hypogastric

c)

umbilical

27.

Which of the following describes homeostasis?

a)

keeps variables exactly at the set point

b)

organism's ability to maintain steady(stable) internal conditions

c)

acts to keep values outside of a desired range

d)

operates through positive feedback

28.

Label this image of a plasma membrane.

29.

A nurse is reviewing lab reports. The nurse recalls blood plasma is located in which of the following fluid compartments?

a)

Intracellular fluid (ICF)

b)

Extracellular fluid (ECF)

c)

Interstitial fluid

d)

Intravascular fluid

30.

The ability of an organism to maintain internal stability by reacting to situations in order to return the body to normal function is considered what?

a)

Homeostatic state

b)

Negative feedback mechanism

c)

Positive feedback mechanism

d)

None of the above

31.

increases or speeds up original change

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

endotherm

d)

ectotherm

32.

reverses the direction of change

a)

positive feedback

b)

effector

c)

hypothalamus

d)

negative feedback

33.

regulation of body temperature in the face of changes in the temperature of the environment

a)

blood glucose regulation

b)

thermoregulation

c)

homeostasis

d)

control center

34.

Loops that cause a response to build up and build up until something big happens are called ____________ loops

a)

positive

b)

negative

35.

The heater kicks on and the house warms up, so it kicks off. Then the house cools a bit and the heater kicks back on. This continues all day. It's a _____________ loop.

a)

positive

b)

negative

36.

Most of the body's feedback loops are ____________ loops.

a)

positive

b)

negative

37.

Body temperature regulation is an example of a ______________ loop

a)

positive

b)

negative

38.

A bright light makes you blink. What is the sensory receptor?

a)

skin

b)

eyes

c)

ears

d)

tongue

e)

nose

39.

A bright light makes you blink. What is the effector?

a)

arm muscle

b)

leg muscle

c)

sweat gland

d)

tear gland

e)

eye muscle

40.

The room you are in gets very hot so your body starts to sweat. What is the effector?

a)

leg muscle

b)

tear gland

c)

adrenaline gland

d)

sweat gland

e)

arm muscle

41.

The room you are in gets very hot so your body starts to sweat. What is the sensory receptor?

a)

eyes

b)

nose

c)

skin

d)

tongue

e)

ears

42.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
43.
a body system that controls growth and homeostasis by secreting hormones from glands.
a)
skeletal system
b)
nervous system
c)
endocrine sytem
d)
integumentary system
44.

According to the feedback loop, what does high blood sugar promote?

a)

Insulin Release

b)

Glucagon Release

c)

Insulin Uptake

d)

Glycogen Uptake

45.

Determines the level (set point) at which a variable is to be maintained, analyzes the information it receives and then determines the appropriate response or course of action

a)

Control Center

b)

Receptor

c)

Effector

46.

What is an effector ?

a)

also known as nerve impulse

b)

part of body that carry out response example muscle and gland

c)

organ or cell that respond to stimuli example eyes and skin

d)

the signal that travel along the nerve cell

47.

What is a receptor ?

a)

the signal that travel along the nerve cell

b)

also known as nerve impulse

c)

organ or cell that respond to stimuli example eyes and skin

d)

part of body that carry out response example muscle and gland

48.

Describes the front or direction toward the front of the body

a)

Anterior

b)

superior

c)

posterior

d)

Inferior

49.

describes a position above or higher than another part of the body proper.

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

50.

describes a position closer to the surface of the body.

a)

Distal

b)

Medial

c)

Lateral

d)

Superficial

51.

It describes a position in a limb that is nearer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

a)

Inferior

b)

Proximal

c)

Superior

d)

Anterior

52.

It describes the middle or direction toward the middle of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Anterior

d)

Superior

53.

Describes the back or direction toward the back of the body.

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Superior

d)

Inferior

54.

It describes a position below or lower than another part of the body

a)

Superior

b)

Anterior

c)

Inferior

d)

posterior

55.

It describes the side or direction toward the side of the body.

a)

Medial

b)

Superficial

c)

Lateral

d)

Deep

56.
Body is standing straight, facing forward, upper limbs at side and palms facing forward. 
*right and left refer to "right" and "left" of the body in position.
a)
Sagittal
b)
Anatomical Position
c)
Anterior Position
d)
Anatomical Plane
57.
Towards the Front. 
[The eyes are _______ to the brain].
a)
Inferior
b)
Deep
c)
Lateral
d)
Anterior
58.
Divides body into top and bottom portions (superior-head; inferior-feat)
a)
Medial Plane
b)
Sagittal
c)
Proximal 
d)
Transverse Plane
59.

What is the definition of the sagittal plane?

a)

divides the body into left and right

b)

divides the body into front and back

c)

divides the body into top and bottom

60.
Which body plane is pictured?
a)
sagittal
b)
frontal (coronal)
c)
transverse
61.
This body cavity is created by the bones of the skull to protect the brain.
a)
cranial
b)
spinal
c)
vertebral
62.
The heart is contained within this cavity (most specific)
a)
mediastinum
b)
pericardial
c)
pleural
d)
thoracic
63.

A coronal plain will divide the body into which sections?

a)

left and right

b)

superior and inferior

c)

anterior and posterior

d)

cranial and caudal

64.

What is A?

a)

Dorsal/posterior

b)

spinal

c)

cranial

d)

ventral/anterior

65.

What is B?

a)

Dorsal/posterior

b)

spinal

c)

cranial

d)

ventral/anterior

66.

What is C?

a)

Dorsal/posterior

b)

spinal

c)

cranial

d)

ventral/anterior

67.

What is L?

a)

Dorsal/posterior

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

ventral/anterior

68.

What is K?

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

ventral/anterior

69.

What is J?

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

pelvic

70.

What is i?

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

pelvic

71.

What is H?

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

diaphragm

72.

What is G?

a)

abdominal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominopelvic

d)

diaphragm

73.

Label the Body Cavities

74.

The head is _________________ to the navel.

a)

anterior

b)

superior

c)

posterior

d)

inferior

75.
Anything that takes up space and has mass is...
a)
Matter
b)
Work
c)
Power
d)
Newton's 1st Law
76.
Energy that causes a change in temperature between materials
a)
Physical State
b)
Thermal Energy
c)
Mass
d)
Solubility
77.
The amount of stuff in something, measured in kg
a)
Matter
b)
Mass
c)
Solubility
d)
Conductor
78.
Movement of a substance from one place to another. 
a)
Chemical Energy
b)
Gravitational Energy
c)
Mechanical Energy
d)
Sound Energy
79.

What is energy?

a)

The ability to do work

b)

A force

c)

Electricity

d)

The ability to transform work

80.
What kind of energy is represented in the picture?
a)
Thermal
b)
Chemical
c)
Sound
d)
Nuclear
81.
Heat is another name for-
a)
thermal energy
b)
magnetic energy
c)
electrical energy
d)
mechanical energy
82.

What form of energy does the sun give?

a)

sound and thermal

b)

light and thermal

c)

mechanical and light

d)

thermal and mechanical

83.

___________________ is the type of energy that is stored in an object; energy that an object has because of its position relative to other objects. (Example: pulled back rubber band)

a)

Kinetic Energy

b)

Potential Energy

c)

Solar Energy

d)

Mechanical Energy

84.

_____________________ is the energy that is stored in the bonds between atoms. (Examples: food, batteries)

a)

Chemical Energy

b)

Nuclear Energy

c)

Potential Energy

d)

Electrical Energy

85.

Another word for Light Energy is ...

a)

Real Energy

b)

Radar Energy

c)

Radiant Energy

d)

Rational Energy

86.

Which type of energy is represented in the image?

a)

Sound

b)

Mechanical

c)

Electrical

d)

Magnetic

87.

Small particle that is a building block of matter.


a)

Molecule

b)

Atom

c)

Matter

d)

Element

88.
Which two particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
Protons and Electrons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Molecules and Compounds
d)
Neutrons and Electrons
89.
What is the mass number?
a)
the number of protons
b)
the sum of the number of protons and the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom 
c)
the number of electrons
d)
the number of neutrons
90.

Atomic number equals ______________ and _______________

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Elements

91.

What goes in place of the question marks?

a)

Element name

b)

Atomic Mass

c)

Atomic Number

d)

Electrons

92.
What quantities vary between isotopes of an element?
a)
protons, electrons, and atomic mass
b)
protons, electrons, and atomic number
c)
neutrons and electrons
d)
neutrons and atomic mass
93.
An atom is electrically neutral when
a)
protons and neutrons are the same
b)
protons and electrons are the same
c)
neutrons and electrons are the same
d)
neutrons balance the protons and electrons
94.
Ions are: 
a)
atoms with a positive or negative charge
b)
atoms with no charge
c)
atoms with ONLY a positive charge
d)
atoms with ONLY a negative charge
95.

A valence electron is what?

a)

The electron in the outer shell of an atom.

b)

The electron in the inner shell of an atom.

c)

The last electron.

d)

The first electron.

96.

If an ion gains an electron, it becomes

a)

Positive

b)

Stable

c)

Atomic

d)

Negative

97.

If an electron is removed, an ion becomes

a)

An atom

b)

Positive

c)

Negative

d)

Neutral

98.

What is the name for an ion when it gains an electron.

a)

Anion

b)

Cation

99.

Cations have what type of charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

100.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
101.
How are covalent bonds explained?
a)
When one atom takes the other atom's electron
b)
When the atom shares an electron with an another atom
c)
When the two nucleus merge
d)
When the neutrons leave the nucleus
102.

Mg + F

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Neither

103.

Mg + C

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Neither

104.

Cl + Br

a)

Covalent

b)

Ionic

c)

Neither

105.
O3  ----> O. + O2
a)
Synthesis (or combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
106.
2 NH3+ 1 H2SO4 ----> 1 (NH4)2SO4
a)
Synthesis (or combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single displacement
d)
Double displacement
107.

What forms when two or more elements combine chemically?

a)

Compounds

b)

Elements

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Proteins

108.

Organic compounds contain ___ while inorganic compounds do not.

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon

c)

oxygen

d)

sulfur

109.
When dissolved in water, acids produce:
a)
bases
b)
salts
c)
hydrogen ions
d)
hydroxide ions
110.

Neutralization is the process of an acid and a base reacting to form what? Select all that apply

a)

An ionic salt

b)

Hydronium ions

c)

NaCl

d)

Water

111.
Pure water has a pH of 7. Pure water _______.
a)
is a base
b)
is a neutral substance
c)
could be either an acid or a base
d)
is an acid
112.

Greater than ​​ (a)   is a strong ​​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
10
3
acid
base
113.

Less than ​ (a)   is a strong​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
3
10
base
acid
114.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Produces OH-

Exist as a crystalline when not dissolved

Tastes bitter

Can neutralize acids

Feel slippery

Produces H+ ions

Taste sour

Can neutralize bases

Corrosive to metals

Contains at least one hydrogen atom that can be removed

Both form electrolytes

Both are corrosive to skin and tissues

Properties of Bases
Properties of Acids
Properties of Acids AND Bases
115.

Which macromolecule gets and stores energy?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

116.

Nuts, butter, and waxes are examples of...

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Carbohydrates

117.

Which macromolecule contains genetic information?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

118.

What organic compounds are made from Carbon and Hydrogen only?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Hydrocarbons

c)

Nucleic Acids

d)

Proteins

119.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
120.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
121.

What is the common name for lipids?

a)

fats

b)

oils

c)

waxes

d)

lubes

122.

Which of the following is a source of unsaturated fat?

a)
b)
c)
d)
123.

Which of the following is a source of saturated fat?

a)
b)
c)
d)
124.

What type of lipid makes up the plasma membrane of the cell?

a)

Steroid

b)

Wax

c)

Phospholipid

d)

Cortisol

125.

Label the parts of the diagram

126.

Which type of molecule is shown?

a)

saturated fatty acid

b)

unsaturated fatty acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

starch

127.

What is the following molecule?

a)

glucose

b)

saturated fat

c)

unsaturated fat

d)

peptide

128.

What is the following molecule?

a)

triglyceride

b)

phospholipid

c)

steroid

d)

protein

129.

Identify the macromolecule in the picture

* cholesterol and triglycerides

a)

lipid

b)

protein

c)

nucleic acid

d)

carbohydrate

130.

Which is an example of a lipid?

a)

candy

b)

olive oil

c)

meat

d)

DNA

131.

Match the following

a)
1.

Carbohydrate structure

b)
2.

Lipid structure

c)

Monosaccharide

3.

Carbohydrate monomer

d)

Fatty acids

4.

Lipid monomer

132.
When something is 'water fearing' it is....
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydrochloric
133.
When something is 'water loving' it is.....
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
134.

What is the special type of bond that forms between two amino acids?

a)

hydrogen bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

peptide bond

135.

What is the name for a chain of amino acids?

a)

Polypeptide chain

b)

Triglycerides

c)

Polysaccharides

d)

Nucleotides

136.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

137.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
138.

What are 2 types of nucleic acids?

a)

Fatty Acids and Glycerol

b)

DNA and RNA

c)

Amino Acids and Enzymes

d)

Monosaccharides and Polysaccharides

139.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
140.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
141.
Every enzyme has a optimal temperature and pH. True or False?
a)
True 
b)
False
142.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
143.
Most of the cell membrane is made of...
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrates
c)
Proteins
d)
Nucleic acids
144.
What is embedded in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
proteins
b)
salt
c)
water
d)
trapped animals
145.
Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?
a)
E
b)
B
c)
C
d)
146.
Hydrophilic portion of cell membrane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
147.

Diffusion is a form of __________ transport.

a)

Passive

b)

Active

c)

Easy

d)

Free

148.

Passive Transport uses ____ energy

a)

no

b)

a lot of

c)

a little bit of

d)

some

149.

_____________ is the free movement of particles across the membrane with the concentration gradient

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

fusion

150.

What is the movement of particles with the concentration gradient using protein "helpers"?

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

enzymatic reactions

151.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
152.

Some cells move large particles out of the cell through the process of:

a)

Protein Synthesis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Exocytosis

d)

Cytoplasmic Streaming

153.
In this image, the cell is using which type of molecular transport?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion 
c)
Endocytosis
d)
Exocytosis 
154.

Which process moves molecules from low to high concentration?

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Active transport

155.

What type of transport is occurring in the diagram?

a)

diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

156.

What is the opposite of diffusion?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Active transport

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Passive transport

157.

What is required for active transport to occur?

a)

Carrier protein

b)

ATP

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

158.

What is the most common source of energy for active transport?

a)

Carrier protein

b)

ATP

c)

Facilitated diffusion

d)

Osmosis

159.

Which type of cells in your body use protein pumps for active transport?

a)

Muscle cells

b)

Blood cells

c)

Nerve cells

d)

Skin cells

160.

What role do enzymes play in phagocytosis?

a)

they destroy/digest pathogens

b)

they contain lysosomes

c)

they are destroyed by pathogens

161.

Match the bulk transport method

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Receptor Mediated endocytosis

d)

Receptor Mediated

exocytosis

162.

Match the bulk transport method

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Receptor Mediated endocytosis

d)

Receptor Mediated

exocytosis

163.

Match the bulk transport method

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Pinocytosis

c)

Receptor Mediated endocytosis

d)

Receptor Mediated

exocytosis

164.

What is the main function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

a)

Energy production

b)

Waste elimination

c)

Cell division

d)

Protein and lipid synthesis, and transportation

165.

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in a cell?

a)

It helps with cell movement

b)

It stores genetic material

c)

It processes and packages proteins and lipids.

d)

It produces energy for the cell

166.

The transfer of genetic info from DNA to RNA is called

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

initiation

d)

elongation

167.

Translation consists of which of the following?

a)

conversion of genetic info from the language of nucleic acids to the language of proteins

b)

conversion of genetic info from DNA to RNA

c)

addition of nucleotides to a DNA template

d)

DNA replication

168.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Lysosome

d)

Golgi apparatus

169.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

170.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
171.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
172.
Which of the following is the correct order for the phases of the cell cycle?
a)
G1, M, G2, C, S
b)
S, G1, G2, M, C
c)
G1, G2, S, M, C
d)
G1, S, G2, M, C
173.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
174.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
175.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
176.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
177.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
178.
During which part of the cell cycle does the cell divide?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
S phase
179.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
180.

Cell programmed self destruction is called

a)

Atopic

b)

Apoptosis

c)

Abi-normal

d)

Anticellular

181.

A non-cancerous tumor is

a)

Malignant

b)

Metastatic

c)

Benign

d)

Malign

182.

Any substance that is known to cause cancer is called a

a)

Pathogen

b)

Biopsy

c)

Carcinogen

d)

Retrovirus

183.

What is the term for the spreading of cancerous cells?

a)

metastasis

b)

carcinogenesis

c)

angiogenesis

d)

homeostasis

184.

The spread of cancer cells beyond their original site

a)

tumor

b)

cancer

c)

tumor-suppressor gene

d)

metastasis

185.

Tumors that grow in bone and muscle tissue

a)

Carcinogen

b)

carcinoma

c)

sarcoma

d)

lymphoma

186.

Solid tumors that grow in the tissues of the lymphatic system

a)

Carcinogen

b)

carcinoma

c)

sarcoma

d)

lymphoma