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Worksheets

Normality and Abnormality Question Collection

Total questions: 186

Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the biopsychosocial model propose about health and illness?

a)

A) Health is determined only by biological processes

b)

B) Health is the result of interactions between biological, psychological, and social factors

c)

C) Illness is purely caused by environmental stressors

d)

D) The mind and body function independently of each other

2.

Who first proposed the biopsychosocial model as an alternative to the biomedical model?

a)

A) Carl Rogers

b)

B) George Engel

c)

C) Sigmund Freud

d)

D) Abraham Maslow

3.

Which of the following best describes a biological factor in the BPS model?

a)

A) Negative thought patterns and coping mechanisms

b)

B) Social isolation and cultural expectations

c)

C) Genetics, brain chemistry, and physical health

d)

D) Financial stress and poor social support

4.

Which of the following is a psychological factor that can affect mental health?

a)

A) Hormone imbalance

b)

B) Low self-esteem and maladaptive thinking

c)

C) Family conflict

d)

D) Cultural stigma

5.

A social factor in the biopsychosocial model could include:

a)

A) Neurochemical imbalance

b)

B) Childhood trauma

c)

C) Access to education and community support

d)

D) Personality traits

6.

The biopsychosocial model is considered more ______ than the biomedical model because it treats psychological and social influences as equally important to

a)

A) Narrow

b)

B) Clinical

c)

C) Holistic

d)

D) Experimental

7.

According to the BPS model, treatment for depression would most likely involve:

a)

A) Only prescribing antidepressant medication

b)

B) Addressing biological, psychological, and social contributors to the disorder

c)

C) Focusing exclusively on cognitive restructuring

d)

D) Ignoring environmental stressors

8.

Which of the following scenarios best demonstrates the BPS approach?

a)

A) A doctor prescribes painkillers without discussing the patient’s stress or lifestyle

b)

C) A psychiatrist focuses only on brain imaging results

c)

D) A teacher refers a student to a counselor without any follow-up

d)

B) A therapist explores how stress, thought patterns, and social relationships affect a client’s anxiety

9.

In the biopsychosocial model, “family expectations and cultural beliefs about mental health” are considered ______ factors.

a)

A) Biological

b)

B) Psychological

c)

C) Social

d)

D) Cognitive

10.

Which of the following statements aligns with the BPS model’s view of human health?

a)

A) Humans are purely biological organisms

b)

B) Mental health is independent of social and cultural influences

c)

C) Biological, psychological, and social dimensions are interdependent and influence one another

d)

D) Illness should be treated without considering the patient’s emotions or environment

11.

Who introduced the concept of flow>

a)

Benjomen sligh

b)

B.F. Skinner

c)

Mihaly Csikszentmihalyi

d)

Sigmund Freud

12.

Flow is best described as:

a)

A feeling of total absorption and focus during an activity

b)

A state of physical exhaustion

c)

A temporary burst of happiness

d)

A lack of motivation

13.

Flow Occurs When:

a)

The challenge is much higher than the person’s skill level

b)

The Challenge and Skill level are in balance

c)

The Challenge and Skill level are in bolonce

d)

The challenge is much lower than the person's skill

14.

The complete opposite of flow is apathy

a)

True

b)

False

15.

During flow, individuals tend to lose the sense of time

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Flow happens when skill and (a)   are balanced.

17.

What feeling often follows a flow experience

a)

satisfaction

b)

confusion

c)

fatigue

d)

fear

18.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of flow?

a)

Deep concentration

b)

Loss of self-awareness

c)

Clear goals

d)

Distorted sense of time

e)

Strong self-consciousness

19.

What emotional state occurs when challenge is higher than skill level?

a)

Flow

b)

Boredom

c)

Anxiety

d)

Relaxation

20.

People who frequently experience flow often report higher life satisfaction

a)

true

b)

false

21.

spell flow

(a)  

22.

What field is Kelly McGonigal best known for?

a)

Economics

b)

Psychology

c)

Physics

d)

Literature

23.

According to Kelly McGonigal, how does viewing stress as harmful affect your health?

a)

It helps you manage stress more effectively

b)

It strengthens your immune system

c)

It increases the risk of stress-related health problems

d)

It has no effect

24.

Kelly McGonigal suggests that stress can be beneficial if:

a)

You avoid it entirely

b)

You view it as a challenge rather than a threat

c)

You ignore your feelings

d)

You suppress your stress responses

25.

McGonigal emphasizes that one way to reduce the negative impact of stress is:

a)

Isolating yourself from others

b)

Connecting with other people

c)

Exercising only occasionally

d)

Avoiding all stressful situations

26.

Which hormone does Kelly McGonigal highlight as being released during stress and helping you respond to challenges?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Cortisol

c)

Oxytocin

d)

Serotonin

27.

McGonigal’s research suggests that people who help others when stressed:

a)

Increase their own stress levels

b)

Experience less negative impact from stress

c)

Become more isolated

d)

Do not benefit from social support

28.

Kelly McGonigal emphasizes that the way you think about stress can:

a)

Make no difference to your health

b)

Influence whether stress helps or harms you

c)

Only affect your mood, not your body

d)

Be controlled through medication alone

29.

Kelly McGonigal reframes stress as an opportunity to:

a)

Quit challenging tasks

b)

Avoid responsibilities

c)

Connect, grow, and strengthen resilience

d)

Eliminate pressure from life

30.

McGonigal’s work suggests that one of the most important factors in how stress affects health is:

a)

Your genetics alone

b)

Your social connections and attitude toward stress

c)

How much money you have

d)

The time of day stress occurs

31.

McGonigal explains that seeing stress as helpful can change your body’s response by:

a)

Reducing the harmful effects of stress on the heart

b)

Increasing blood pressure dangerously

c)

Making you ignore stress signals

d)

Eliminating adrenaline production

32.

What is the definition of SISU?

a)

A Finnish law outlining how people must interact with one another.

b)

A Finnish concept representing extraordinary determination, resilience, and courage in the face of adversity.

c)

A Finnish concept representing a state of complete calmness.

d)

A Norwegian concept representing extraordinary determination, resilience, and courage in the face of adversity.

33.

Finland has been ranked the happiest country for how many years in a row?

a)

2

b)

10

c)

5

d)

8

34.

Which of these values is most aligned with SISU?

a)

Wealth

b)

Persistence

c)

Power

d)

Comfort

35.

How does Finland’s social system contribute to its happiness rankings?

a)

Finland’s strong welfare system, free education, universal healthcare, and trust in government create social equality and security are key contributors to national happiness.

b)

By focusing mainly on competition and wealth accumulation the people of Finland become richer and have money to participate in more activities.

c)

By limiting access to education and healthcare to promote independence.

d)

By discouraging community support and encouraging self-reliance only. Allowing for residents to learn how to live their own individual lives without the reliance of their peers.

36.

True or False: SISU is about individualism and personal success above community wellbeing.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

What is the work-life balance like in Finland?

a)

They have moved toward an AI led workforce where no longer do the people need to work at all, rather they can spend time on their hobbies.

b)

They work more so that they can function so well as a collective nation.

c)

Its the same as in Australia.

d)

Employers often encourage flexible working hours, telecommuting, ample vacation time.

38.

School is a common topic in Finland life satisfaction, how long are school days in Finland compared to Australia?

a)

They are longer.

b)

They are the exact same.

c)

They are shorter.

39.

Finish the phrase attached to SISU.

When others give up, the Finns..............

a)

Keep going

b)

Stop

c)

Never give up

d)

Work harder

40.

Finland has been ranked the world’s happiest country for several years according to which global report?

a)

Human Development Index

b)

Global Peace Report

c)

World Happiness Report

d)

World Happiness Survey

41.

What everyday Finnish habit is believed to boost happiness and resilience?

a)

Spending hours on social media.

b)

Sauna culture and connection to nature.

c)

Working without breaks.

d)

Avoiding outdoor activities.

42.

What do the four P's in the 4P Factor Model stand for

a)

Predisposing, Precipitating, Perpetuating, Protective

b)

Predictive, Potential, Positive, Protective

c)

Predisposing, Potential, Purpose, Precipitating

d)

Positive, Potential, Precipitating, Perpetuating

43.

Which of the following is an example of a Precipitating risk factor?

a)

Quality Sleep

b)

Regular exercise

c)

Death of a loved one

d)

Family history of Anxiety

44.

What does the 4P Factor Model Describe?

a)

Only risk factors

b)

Patterns of Psychological Abnormality

c)

The four influence on mental health, occurrence or re-occurrence of a mental health disorder

d)

Only protective factors

45.

The Predisposing Risk factors in the 4P model primarily refer to

a)

Events that trigger the onset of a disorder

b)

Long-term factors that increase vulnerability to a disorder

c)

Actions that maintain a disorder

d)

Strengths that reduce the likelyhood of occurrence or re-occurrence of a disorder

46.

Perpetuating factors are best described as

a)

Factors that help someone recover from a disorder

b)

Factors that keep a disorder going or make it worse over time

c)

Factors that cause the initial onset of a disorder

d)

Factors that occur after recovery has been achieved

47.

Protective factors serve to

a)

Increase severity of symptoms

b)

Prevent occurrence or re-occurence of disorders

c)

Trigger the onset of a disorder

d)

Act as warning signs of illness

48.

A person’s genetic makeup is considered a Precipitating factor

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following could be a protective factor against depression?

a)

Strong social support network

b)

Poor sleep quality

c)

Chronic stress

d)

Genetic vulnerability

50.

The 4P model focuses only on biological factors affecting mental health

a)

True

b)

False

51.

In the 4P model, high workload and poor coping strategies that continue after a depressive episode are examples of

a)

Predisposing factors

b)

Precipitating factors

c)

Perpetuating factors

d)

Protective factors

52.

What do the dimensions of wellness aim to achieve?

a)

The dimensions of wellness aim to make people focus mainly on physical health rather than emotional wellbeing.

b)

The dimensions of wellness aim to achieve a balanced, healthy, and fulfilling life by improving wellbeing in all areas of a person’s life.

c)

They aim to create a standardised checklist to rate how healthy someone is compared to others.

d)

They aim to promote short-term happiness instead of long-term life balance.

53.

How many wellness dimensions are there?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

10

54.

The holistic approach on wellness began after WW1 because society’s health needs changed

a)

True

b)

False

55.

It’s about resilience, self-awareness, and keeping a balanced outlook even when life gets messy.

a)

Spiritual Wellness

b)

Social Wellness

c)

Emotional Wellness

d)

Financial Wellness

56.

Keeping your mind active through new ideas, creativity, and critical thinking strengthens your overall wellbeing.

a)

Social Wellness

b)

Intellectual Wellness

c)

Environmental Wellness

d)

Occupational Wellness

57.

It means taking steps to prevent illness, manage stress physically, and build strength and stamina.

a)

Physical Wellness

b)

Emotional Wellness

c)

Environmental Wellness

d)

Financial Wellness

58.

The focus on wellness
draws attention to the fact that health is a resource
for everyday living; emphasizing factors that enhance
our abilities to thrive

a)

False

b)

True

59.

It’s about connection to something bigger than yourself.

a)

Physical Wellness

b)

Occupational Wellness

c)

Social Wellness

d)

Spiritual Wellness

60.

It’s about having balance between career goals, personal growth, and leisure.

a)

Occupational Wellness

b)

Social Wellness

c)

Emotional Wellness

d)

Spiritual Wellness

61.

Why is wellness considered a lifelong process rather than a fixed goal?

a)

Because once you achieve wellness, you stop needing to take care of yourself.

b)

Because wellness requires continuous growth and balance as life circumstances, needs, and challenges change over time.

c)

Because wellness is only measured by how old you are.

d)

Because wellness ends once you’ve learned all eight dimensions.

62.

What are the 6 approaches to abnormality?

a)

Cultural, Functional, Historical, Situational, Preventative, Statistical

b)

Psychological, Functional, Historical, Situational, Medical, Statistical

c)

Sociocultural, Functional, Historical, Situational, Medical and Statistical

d)

Societal, Functional, Historical, Circumstantial, Medical, and Statistical

63.

Which of the following describes the sociocultural approach?

a)

Abnormal thoughts, feelings or behavior are viewed as having an underlying biological cause

b)

What is considered normal and abnormal depends on the period
(or ‘era’)

c)

Thoughts, feelings and
behavior that are viewed as
normal if the individual is able to cope with living
independently (‘function’) in society

d)

Thoughts, feelings and
behavior that are
appropriate or acceptable in
a particular society or culture

64.

Which of the following best describes the functional approach?

a)

Any behavior or characteristic in a large group of
individuals is distributed in a particular way

b)

Within a society or culture, thoughts, feelings and
behavior that may be considered normal in one
situation may be considered abnormal in another

c)

Thoughts, feelings and behavior are viewed as
normal if the individual is able to cope with living
independently in society

d)

An individuals ability to talk and socialize amongst their peers and friends.

65.

The statistical approach is defined as "Any behavior or characteristic in a large group of
individuals is distributed in a particular way"

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The sociocultural approach uses...

a)

Cultural values and beliefs of a particular society to make a
judgement on normality

b)

The context or situation in which the behavior is made to inform a
judgement regarding normality

c)

The physical wellbeing of an individual to make a judgement if their
behavior is normal or not

d)

Small groups of the population to make a judgement if behavior is
normal

67.

"The approach to defining normal behavior can change over
time, so that a behavior that was considered normal 50
years ago may now be considered abnormal. This
is the (a)   approach"

68.

Crying at a funeral instead of laughing hysterically is
considered normal behaviour in this context. Which of the
approaches to defining normality is used to reach this
judgement?

a)

Functional

b)

Sociocultural

c)

Historical

d)

Situational

69.

The (a)   approach to abnormality suggests that mental illness results from imbalances in brain chemistry, genetics, or damage to the nervous system.

70.

The medical approach to abnormality explains abnormal behavior as the result of physical illness or biological malfunction.

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Which approach defines abnormality as behavior that is rare or significantly different from what is statistically typical in a population?

a)

Historical

b)

Functional

c)

Statistical

d)

Sociocultural

72.

Which of the following best describes “deviance” in the 4 D’s of abnormality?

a)

Behavior that causes personal suffering or upset

b)

Behavior that interferes with daily functioning

c)

Behavior that goes against social norms or expectations

d)

Behavior that poses a risk to oneself or others

73.

“Distress” refers to which of the following?

a)

Behavior that violates the rights of others

b)

Emotional pain or suffering experienced by an individual

c)

Difficulty following social rules

d)

Sudden changes in mood and motivation

74.

A person who can no longer perform basic daily activities, like working or maintaining hygiene, is showing which “D”?

a)

Danger

b)

Deviance

c)

Dysfunction

d)

Distress

75.

Which “D” focuses on whether a person’s behavior could harm themselves or others?

a)

Danger

b)

Distress

c)

Deviance

d)

Dysfunction

76.

A man who enjoys collecting insects is not considered abnormal unless his behavior causes him or others distress. This example shows the importance of which “D”?

a)

Dysfunction

b)

Distress

c)

Deviance

d)

Danger

77.

A woman believes she can communicate with aliens. Her family is concerned, but she feels happy and functions well at work. Which “D” is missing for her behavior to be considered abnormal?

a)

Deviance

b)

Distress

c)

Dysfunction

d)

Danger

78.

Which statement best captures how the 4 D’s are used in psychology?

a)

They are legal definitions of mental illness

b)

They are strict diagnostic criteria

c)

They help professionals judge whether behavior might be psychologically abnormal

d)

They replace the need for DSM-5 diagnosis

79.

A soldier experiences nightmares and flashbacks after combat that disrupt his sleep and relationships. Which two D’s apply most clearly?

a)

Deviance and Danger

b)

Distress and Dysfunction

c)

Danger and Deviance

d)

Dysfunction and Deviance

80.

Why might “deviance” alone not be enough to label behavior as abnormal?

a)

Because all deviant behaviors are harmless

b)

Because social norms change across cultures and time

c)

Because everyone shows deviance occasionally

d)

Because deviance only applies to criminal acts

81.

Which of the following examples best illustrates “danger”?

a)

A student who fails most classes

b)

A person who isolates themselves from friends

c)

A person attempting self-harm or threatening others

d)

A person who has unusual beliefs but no harm occurs

82.

1. According to Sonja Lyubomirsky, approximately what percentage of a person’s happiness is determined by intentional activities?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

40%

d)

70%

83.

2. Lyubomirsky’s research suggests that about what percentage of happiness is determined by life circumstances (e.g., wealth, health, status)?

a)

10%

b)

25%

c)

40%

d)

50%

84.

3. What percentage of happiness is believed to be due to genetic factors, according to Lyubomirsky’s model?

a)

10%

b)

40%

c)

50%

d)

70%

85.

4. Which of the following is NOT one of the intentional activities Lyubomirsky recommends to increase happiness?

a)

Practicing gratitude

b)

Helping others

c)

Complaining about problems

d)

Setting personal goals

86.

5. Sonja Lyubomirsky’s “happiness pie chart” illustrates what main idea?

a)

That happiness is mostly due to luck

b)

That happiness depends equally on all life areas

c)

That happiness is influenced by genetics, circumstances, and intentional activities

d)

That happiness cannot be changed

87.

Which of the following best describes Lyubomirsky’s definition of happiness?

a)

A temporary emotional state of pleasure

b)

The experience of frequent positive emotions and an overall sense of life satisfaction

c)

The absence of sadness and anxiety

d)

A personality trait determined entirely by genetics

88.

Which activity has Lyubomirsky’s research shown to consistently increase happiness?

a)

Regularly expressing gratitude

b)

Comparing oneself to others

c)

Ignoring emotions

d)

Seeking constant external rewards

89.

Lyubomirsky’s studies emphasize the importance of:

a)

Focusing only on wealth to achieve happiness

b)

Engaging in positive intentional behaviours

c)

Avoiding social interactions

d)

Suppressing negative emotions

90.

Which book by Sonja Lyubomirsky summarizes her research on happiness and how to increase it?

a)

The How of Happiness

b)

The Art of Happiness

c)

Flourish

d)

Happier Now

91.

According to Lyubomirsky, why do people often fail to sustain happiness gains?

a)

Because happiness is impossible to change

b)

Because they adapt quickly to positive changes (hedonic adaptation)

c)

Because genetics prevent emotional change

d)

Because they don’t experience enough stress

92.

Fight or flight is the biological response of animals to a stressor

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Which of the following can be affected by stress?

a)
School performance
b)
Family relationships
c)
Health
d)
All of the above
94.

What are some positive effects of stress?

a)
It causes change in appetite, resulting in weight loss
b)
It improves performance and efficiency
c)
It causes sleep loss, giving you more hours to get things done
d)
It forces you to slow down
95.

What is the main purpose of the fight-or-flight response?

a)

To increase digestion and relaxation

b)

To prepare the body to face or escape a threat

c)

To calm the mind during stressful situations

d)

To slow the heart rate and conserve energy

96.

Which of the following is a potential danger of chronic stress?

a)

Increased focus and motivation

b)

Better sleep quality

c)

Higher risk of heart disease and high blood pressure

d)

Improved immune function

97.

Which of the following best defines stress management?

a)

Using techniques to cope with and reduce stress levels

b)

Ignoring problems until they go away

c)

Trying to avoid all emotional reactions

d)

Taking on more work to build resilience

98.

Short-term stress can sometimes be beneficial because it..

a)

Damages brain cells and weakens memory

b)

Increases alertness and focus

c)

Causes fatigue and loss of motivation

d)

Slows down reaction times

99.

Which hormone is primarily released during stressful situations?

a)

Insulin

b)

Serotonin

c)

Dopamine

d)

Cortisol

100.

What is one negative coping strategy for stress?

a)

Talking to a friend

b)

Going for a walk

c)

Using alcohol or drugs

d)

Practicing mindfulness

101.

When someone experiences too much stress for a long time, what can occur?

a)

Improved performance

b)

Burnout and fatigue

c)

Stronger immune system

d)

Better concentration

102.

Which of the following is not a healthy way to manage stress?

a)

Getting enough sleep

b)

Talking to someone you trust

c)

Exercising regularly

d)

Ignoring the source of stress

103.

What is the Cantril Ladder

a)

A scale used to measure an individual’s level of physical fitness and endurance

b)

A psychological tool that ranks levels of happiness and life satisfaction from worst to best possible life

c)

A model that describes the stages of cognitive development across the human lifespan

d)

A physical tool to help measure and analyse a person's fitness abilities

104.

Who developed the Cantril Ladder?

a)

Abraham Maslow

b)

Carl Jung

c)

Hadley Cantril

d)

Martin Seligman

105.

How many steps does the Cantril Ladder have?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

10

d)

11

106.

In Cantril Ladder, what does the top step represent?

a)

The best possible life

b)

The most successful career

c)

The worst possible life

d)

The least successful career

107.

The Cantril Ladder only asks participants about their present life

a)

True

b)

False

108.

What does the bottom step (0) of the Cantril Ladder represent?

a)

A neutral life

b)

The worst possible life

c)

Life satisfaction at its average level

d)

The best possible life

109.

What is another name for the Cantril Ladder?

a)

The Life Goals Index

b)

The Global Happiness Survey

c)

The Cantril Self-Anchoring Striving Scale

d)

The Social Progress Scale

110.

According to data from the Cantril Ladder, most people around the world rate their future life as:

a)

Worse than their current life

b)

The same as their current life

c)

Impossible to predict

d)

Better than their current life

111.

Which of the following is NOT one of the questions asked in the Cantril Ladder?

a)

On which step do you think you will stand about five years from now?

b)

On which step of the ladder would you say you personally feel you stand at this time?

c)

How satisfied are you with your daily meals and sleep?

112.

What makes the Cantril Ladder unique compared to other well-being measures?

a)

It uses only financial data

b)

It asks people to rate themselves from their own point of view

c)

It’s only used in Australia

d)

It measures physical activity levels as well

113.

Which of the following best defines stigma?

a)

A coping mechanism for stress

b)

A positive label that enhances a persons reputation

c)

A mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality or person

d)

A type of self-esteem improvement strategy

114.

According to Erving Goffman, stigma is primarily

a)

a biological reaction to social rejection

b)

A social process that discredits an individual in the eyes of others

c)

A psychological disorder

d)

A form of discrimination in workplaces only

115.

Which type of stigma refers to negative attitudes held by the general public toward a group?

a)

Self-Stigma

b)

Structural Stigma

c)

Public Stigma

d)

Courtesy Stigma

116.

What is Structural Stigma?

a)

Discrimination within laws, policies, or institutions

b)

A persons shame about their illness

c)

Peer rejection within social groups

d)

Media representation of mental health

117.

Self-Stigma occurs when

a)

People reject others with mental illness

b)

Institutions create unfair policies

c)

Individuals internalize society's negative stereotypes

d)

Friends of someone with mental illness face discrimination

118.

Which of the following best describes Courtesy Stigma?

a)

Stigma experienced by professionals who work in mental health

b)

Stigma directed at individuals because of their association with a stigmatized person

c)

Stigma that disappears when someone hides their condition

d)

Stigma experienced by individuals in minority groups

119.

Which strategy is most effective in reducing public stigma?

a)

Avoidance and silence

b)

Increased media coverage of violence and mental illness

c)

Contact-based education that promotes interaction with affected individuals

d)

Isolating people with mental illness from society

120.

The "Its okay not to be okay" campaign primarily aims to

a)

Promote diagnosis of new mental disorders

b)

Encourage silence around mental health

c)

Reduce stigma and normalise help-seeking

d)

Increase fear of mental illness

121.

Which psychological impact is most associated with internalised stigma?

a)

Increased self-efficacy

b)

Lower self-esteem and self-worth

c)

Enhanced motivation to seek help

d)

Improved coping and resilience

122.

What does labelling theory suggest about stigma?

a)

Labels have no real impact on identity

b)

Once labeled as 'mentally ill', individuals may be treated according to stereotypes, shaping their self identity

c)

Stigma only arises in educational settings

d)

Stigma affects physical but not mental health

123.

Engagement, as conceptualised by Seligman, refers to

a)

A) Immersion and absorption in challenging yet enjoyable activities

b)

B) Frequent social interaction with others

c)

C) Setting measurable and realistic personal goals

d)

D) Expressing gratitude and mindfulness

124.

The concept of Meaning in Seligman’s model involves:

a)

A) Acting in accordance with societal expectations

b)

B) Engaging in activities that foster purpose and contribute to something larger than oneself

c)

C) Avoiding challenging or distressing experiences

d)

D) Pursuing constant pleasure and comfort

125.

According to Seligman, which combination of PERMA elements most directly contributes to a sense of “flourishing”?

a)

A) Positive emotion and engagement

b)

B) Engagement, meaning, and achievement

c)

C) Relationships and meaning

d)

D) All five elements working in balance

126.

In Seligman’s PERMA framework, the “P” represents which key component of wellbeing?

a)

A) Productivity

b)

B) Positive Emotion

c)

C) Purpose

d)

D) Personal Growth

127.

Within the PERMA model, the “E” signifies:

a)

A) Energy

b)

B) Empathy

c)

C) Engagement

d)

D) Excitement

128.

The “R” dimension of the PERMA model pertains to:

a)

A) Reflection

b)

B) Relationships

c)

C) Resilience

d)

D) Rewards

129.

In the PERMA model, the “M” stands for:

a)

A) Motivation

b)

B) Meaning

c)

C) Mindfulness

d)

D) Mastery

130.

The “A” in PERMA refers to:

a)

A) Achievement

b)

B) Acceptance

c)

C) Awareness

d)

D) Action

131.

Sophie begins keeping a daily gratitude journal, recording three things she’s thankful for each night. Over time, she notices a significant increase in her overall mood and optimism.
Which PERMA component does Sophie’s behaviour primarily enhance?

a)

A) Engagement

b)

B) Positive Emotion

c)

C) Meaning

d)

D) Achievement

132.

While painting, Marcus becomes so absorbed in his work that he loses track of time and feels deeply focused and energised. This experience best represents which concept within the PERMA model?

a)

A) Meaning

b)

B) Flow, a key aspect of Engagement

c)

C) Achievement through persistence

d)

D) Relationship development

133.

What was the main aim of Rosenhan's study?

a)

To test new treatments for schizophrenia

b)

To investigate the validity of psychiatric diagnoses

c)

To observe patient-staff interactions in psychiatric hospitals

d)

To examine the effects of medication on mental health patients

134.

How many pseudopatients participated in the study?

a)

4

b)

18

c)

8

d)

6

135.

What symptom did all pseudopatients report to gain admission to hospitals?

a)

Hearing voices that said “empty,” “hollow,” and “thud”

b)

Seeing visions of dead people

c)

Feeling extreme anxiety

d)

Having suicidal thoughts

136.

How do the pseudopatients behave one admitted

a)

They continued pretending to be unwell

b)

They became genuinely distressed

c)

They refused to cooperate with hospital staff

d)

They acted normally and reported no further symptoms

137.

What diagnosis did most pseudopatients receive upon admission?

a)

Bipolar disorder

b)

Schizophrenia

c)

Major depressive disorder

d)

Personality disorder

138.

How did hospital staff interpret the pseudopatients’ normal behaviors?

a)

As signs of recovery

b)

As manipulative and hostile acts

c)

As symptoms of their mental illness

d)

As irrelevant to their diagnosis

139.

. What did Rosenhan’s follow up study involve?

a)

Sending real patients to hospitals and asking staff to identify them

b)

Warning a hospital that pseudopatients would be sent, but actually sending none

c)

Using fake medical records to test diagnostic systems

d)

Observing patient treatment outcomes over time

140.

What were the main conclusions of Rosenhan’s study?

a)

Psychiatric hospitals need better funding

b)

It is easy to feign mental illness convincingly

c)

Psychiatric diagnoses are unreliable and influenced by context

d)


Medication is ineffective in treating mental illness

141.

What did the fake patients have to do before they could leave the hospital?

a)

Prove they were healthy by taking a test

b)

Admit they were mentally ill and agree to take medication

c)

Wait for the doctors to realise they were pretending

d)

Escape without being caught

142.

What did Rosenhan’s study show about life inside psychiatric hospitals?

a)

Patients were treated with kindness and respect at all times

b)

Staff spent a lot of time talking with patients

c)

Patients often felt ignored and powerless

d)

The hospitals were clean and well organised

143.

Which of the following best explains abnormal behaviour from a humanistic perspective?

a)

It results from unconscious conflicts and childhood trauma

b)

It is learned through reinforcement and punishment

c)

It stems from a lack of self-actualization and incongruence between self-concept and experience

d)

It is caused by imbalances in brain chemistry

144.

According to the behavioural perspective, which process best explains the development of a phobia?

a)

Cultural expectations

b)

Classical conditioning

c)

Faulty thinking patterns

d)

Genetic predisposition

145.

Which of the following is a key assumption of the cognitive perspective on abnormality?

a)

Mental illness is caused by distorted or irrational thought patterns

b)

Behaviour is shaped by reinforcement histories

c)

Abnormality results from a failure to meet basic needs

d)

Brain structure abnormalities are the root cause of disorders

146.

How would the sociocultural perspective explain higher rates of depression in marginalized communities?

a)

Due to inherited genetic vulnerabilities

b)

As a result of neurotransmitter imbalances

c)

From maladaptive thought processes

d)

Because of societal inequality and discrimination

147.

Which of the following best represents the biomedical approach to treating schizophrenia?

a)

Challenging irrational beliefs through cognitive therapy

b)

Using antipsychotic medication to regulate dopamine levels

c)

Encouraging self-reflection and personal growth

d)

Modifying behaviour through reinforcement

148.

Which treatment approach is most consistent with the behavioural perspective?

a)

Using exposure therapy to reduce maladaptive behaviours

b)

Exploring unconscious conflicts through free association

c)

Identifying and restructuring cognitive distortions

d)

Prescribing selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

149.

Which of the following is a criticism of the biomedical model of abnormality?

a)

It overemphasizes cultural influences

b)

It ignores the role of unconscious desires

c)

It may neglect psychological and social factors in treatment

d)

It focuses too much on self-actualization

150.

A person with OCD is excessively washing their hands. How would a cognitive psychologist interpret this behaviour?

a)

As a learned response to reduce anxiety

b)

As a result of irrational beliefs about contamination

c)

As a symptom of serotonin imbalance

d)

As a culturally reinforced ritual

151.

Which of the following best describes the biopsychosocial model of abnormality?

a)

It integrates biological, psychological, and social factors

b)

It focuses solely on biological causes of mental illness

c)

It emphasizes unconscious motives and early childhood experiences

d)

It views abnormality as a product of cultural norms

152.

Which of the following reflects a sociocultural critique of the DSM-5 diagnostic system?

a)

It overemphasizes neurotransmitter imbalances

b)

It lacks scientific validity

c)

It ignores the role of reinforcement in behaviour

d)

It may reflect Western cultural biases in defining mental illness

153.

Which of the following is not an example of a cause of mental illness from the perspective of the Supernatural theory.

a)

possession by demonic spirits

b)

eclipses

c)

genetic inheritance

d)

displeasure of the gods

154.

Which theory states that brain damage leads to mental illnes

a)

Supernatural Theory

b)

Psychogenic Theory

c)

Somatogenic Theory

155.

Out of the 3 theories in regard to the History of Abnormality, the Psychogenic Theory is the best.

a)
True
b)
False
156.

Which 2 of the following are examples of mental illness causes from the Psychogenic perspective

a)

physical illness

b)

learned associations

c)

sin

d)

stressful experience

157.

The Supernatural, Somatogenic, and Psychogenic theories coexist and recycle over time.

a)
True
b)
False
158.

What were the humours?

a)

Surgery on the skull to release evil spirits

b)

Group Laughing Session

c)

Balancing body fluids by forcibly vomiting, bleeding or urinating

d)

Isolating the mentally ill person from the rest of society

159.

"Humours" fits under which theory?

a)

Hysterical Theory

b)

Psychogenic Theory

c)

Supernatural Theory

d)

Somatogenic Theory

160.

According to the Somatogenic Theory, Mental Illness is caused by...

a)

Possession by evil spirits, displeasure by gods, eclipses, and sin

b)

Traumatic experiences, maladaptive learned associations, and distorted perceptions

c)

Illness, gentic inheritance, brain damage, and imbalance

161.

What are the 3 Theories of the History of Mental Illness?

a)

Supernatural, Somatogenic, and Psychogenic

b)

Hysterical, Biomedical, and Psychogenic

c)

Supernatural, Hysterical, and Trephination

d)

Humour, Somatogenic, and Isolation

162.

Define Trephination

a)

Patient forced to sleep all day and not participate in creative activities

b)

Surgery on the skull to release evil spirits

c)

Balancing body fluids by forcibly vomiting, bleeding or urinating

d)

Isolating the mentally ill person from the rest of society

163.

Which of the following best defines stress?

a)

A state of physical or psychological tension caused by internal or external demands

b)

A condition that only occurs after trauma

c)

A mental illness caused by poor diet

d)

A positive emotional response to success

164.

The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) model was proposed by:

a)

Richard Lazarus

b)

Hans Selye

c)

Walter Cannon

d)

Sigmund Freud

165.

According to Selye’s GAS model, what are the three stages of stress?

a)

Appraisal, coping, exhaustion

b)

Cognitive, emotional, behavioural

c)

Fight, flight, freeze

d)

Alarm, resistance, exhaustion

166.

In the alarm stage of the GAS model, what happens in the body?

a)

The body activates its fight-or-flight response

b)

The body’s resistance to stress peaks

c)

The immune system strengthens

d)

The body returns to homeostasis

167.

During the resistance stage, the body:

a)

Completely shuts down

b)

Tries to cope with the ongoing stressor

c)

Has no physical reaction

d)

Immediately returns to normal

168.

What occurs during the exhaustion stage of Selye’s model?

a)

Energy levels and resistance increase

b)

The stressor disappears

c)

The body’s resources are depleted and illness may occur

d)

Stress levels drop but immunity remains strong

169.

The Transactional Model of Stress and Coping was developed by:

a)

Lazarus and Folkman

b)

Skinner and Watson

c)

Piaget and Freud

d)

Maslow and Rogers

170.

In Lazarus and Folkman’s model, the primary appraisal stage involves:

a)

Choosing a coping strategy

b)

Ignoring the stressor

c)

Evaluating whether an event is a threat, challenge, or irrelevant

d)

Restoring emotional balance

171.

The secondary appraisal stage in the Transactional Model refers to:

a)

Evaluating how important the event is

b)

Assessing one’s ability to cope with the stressor

c)

The automatic physiological response to stress

d)

Returning to homeostasis

172.

Which of the following is an example of a problem-focused coping strategy?

a)

Ignoring the situation

b)

Making a plan to solve the problem

c)

Distracting yourself by watching TV

d)

Engaging in relaxation or meditation

173.

How many versions of the DSM has there been?

(a)  

174.

What does DSM stand for?

a)

Diagnostic and Statistical Measure of Mental Disorders

b)

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

c)

Diagnostic Statutory Measure of Mental Disorders

d)

Diagnostic and Statistical Measure of Mental Dysfunction

175.

The DSM groups psychological problems into (a)   based on
similar symptoms in order to help diagnose and treat mental disorders

176.

Why does the DSM have multiple versions?

a)

To incorporate new findings, changes in clinical understanding and update criteria, improving accuracy

b)

Due to old criteria being no longer accepted

c)

To boost book sales

d)

They are updated for popularity, to match new TV shows, and as a form of performance art to critique the very idea of "correctness"

177.
  1. The DSM-5 is used for

a)
  1. Treating anxiety disorders.

b)
  1. Identifying the cause of mental problems.

c)
  1. Classifying psychological disorders.

d)
  1. Distinguishing between biological and environmental causes of disorders.

178.

Why is it hard to diagnose mental illness?

a)

The complexity of the human mind

b)

External pressures on the diagnostician like time constraints and cognitive biases

c)

A lack of objective physiological tests, reliance on subjective symptom reporting and a significant overlap in symptoms between different conditions.

d)

There are no definitive lab tests or brain scans to confirm them.

179.

The DSM-5 can be used to self-diagnose

a)

True

b)

False

180.

When was the most recent DSM edition published?

a)

2013

b)

2018

c)

2022

d)

2024

181.

The major categories of psychological disorders in the DSM are (select all that apply)

a)

addiction disorders

b)

mood disorders

c)

psychotic disorders

d)

personality disorders

e)

anxiety disorders

182.

Which of the following is an example of physical wellbeing?

a)

Getting enough sleep each night

b)

Spending time with friends

c)

Setting career goals

d)

Learning a new hobby

183.

What is one benefit of regular physical exercise?

a)

It increases stress levels

b)

It weakens your immune system

c)

It improves mood and energy levels

d)

It causes dehydration

184.

What does “wellbeing” mainly refer to?

a)

Only physical health

b)

Feeling happy all the time

c)

A balance of physical, mental, and emotional health

d)

Having lots of money

185.

Which habit best supports mental wellbeing?

a)

Ignoring your thoughts

b)

talking about your feelings

c)

Working nonstop

d)

Avoiding new experiences

186.

What is an example of social wellbeing?

a)

Spending time with supportive friends and family

b)

Avoiding social contact

c)

Comparing yourself to others online