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anatomy midterm review

Total questions: 184

Worksheet time: 2hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The front is my ____________ side
a)
posterior 
b)
anterior
c)
dorsal
d)
sagital
2.
Another word for back is
a)
ventral
b)
anterior
c)
dorsal
d)
sagital
3.
Another word for front is
a)
ventral
b)
posterior
c)
dorsal
d)
sagital
4.
My nose is ______________ to my shoulders
a)
inferior
b)
superior
5.
My elbow is ______________ to my fingers
a)
proximal
b)
distal
6.
Going away from the midline would be ____________
a)
adduction
b)
abduction
7.
A __________________ plane divides the body into upper and lower.
a)
sagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
8.
A __________________ plane divides the body into equal right and left
a)
midsagital
b)
frontal
c)
transverse
d)
oblique
9.
To be on your back
a)
flexion
b)
extension
c)
prone
d)
supine
10.
My ear is more _____________ than my nose
a)
Medial 
b)
lateral
11.
My heart is ______________ to my spinal cord.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
12.
My lungs are ______________ to my small intestine.
a)
Posterior
b)
Anterior
c)
inferior
d)
superior
13.
My liver is ________________ to my humerous.
a)
cephalic
b)
medial
c)
caudal
d)
lateral
14.

Identify the name of the plane located at "A".

a)

Transvers

b)

Lateral

c)

Ventral

d)

Sagittal

15.

Identify the section of the body located at "C".

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

16.

Identify the plane located at "D".

a)

Frontal

b)

Transverse

c)

sagittal

d)

ventral

17.

Identify the section of the body located at "E".

a)

Anterior

b)

Posterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

18.

Identify the plane located at "F".

a)

Lateral

b)

Median

c)

Sagittal

d)

Transverse

19.

Identify the quadrant located at "W".

a)

Left Lower Quadrant

b)

Right Upper Quadrant

c)

Left Upper Quadrant

d)

Epigastric Region

20.

Identify the quadrant located at "Y".

a)

Right Lower Quadrant

b)

Left Lower Quadrant

c)

Right Diagonal Quadrant

d)

Right Superior Quadrant

21.

In reference to the diagram, in which region would you find the Appendix?

a)

Epigastric

b)

Right Iliac

c)

Left Iliac

d)

Right hypochondriac

22.

Name the term that describes the study of body functions.

a)

Anatomy

b)

Physiology

c)

Functionology

d)

HowThingsWork-ology

23.

This term is used to describe a patient lying on their back with the face up. (hint: how do you carry a bowl of soup?)(hint2: A patient lying on their spine, is a patient lying ______)

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Medial

24.
In what organelle is the genetic material found inside?
 
a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Golgi Complex
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
25.
What organelle is called the "powerhouse" of a cell?

a)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Nucleolus
26.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
27.
You might think of me as the trash collector, but recycler is maybe more accurate. What am I?
a)
mitochondria
b)
lysosome
c)
vacuole
d)
ribosome
28.
I am a protein packaging and shipping machine! Who am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
golgi apparatus
29.
What organelle helps with cell digestion?
a)
Lysosomes
b)
Ribosomes
c)
Golgi Complex
d)
ER
30.
What is the gel-like substance inside of cells called?

a)
photoplasm
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
cytoplasm
31.
What makes the endoplasmic reticulum rough?
a)
Vessicles
b)
Vacuoles
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Chromosomes
32.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondrion
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
33.

In plasma membrane, ___________ phosphate group head is oriented toward the external while _____________ fatty acid tails are oriented toward each other.

a)

hydrophobic; hydrophilic

b)

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

c)

hydrophilic; hydrophilic

d)

neutral; hydrophobic

34.

Which cell is most likely to lose both water molecules and solute molecules as the system approaches equilibrium?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

35.

In this system, solute molecules in cell 2 are most likely to

a)

Remain in cell 2

b)

Adhere to cell 2’s membrane

c)

Diffuse into cell 1

d)

Diffuse into cell 4

36.

Which of the following does NOT expend energy

a)

Diffusion

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Active transport

d)

A sodium-potassium pump

37.

The tails of a phospholipid are…

a)

Hydrophobic

b)

Hydrophilic

38.

A cell membrane is_________

a)

Permeable

b)

Semipermeable

c)

Non Permeable

d)

None of the above

39.

A cell membrane is_________

a)

Permeable

b)

Semipermeable

c)

Non Permeable

d)

None of the above

40.

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a)

breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods

b)

stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates

c)

keeps the cell wall in place

d)

regulates which materials enter and leave the cell

41.

Diffusion is the net movement of molecules from

a)

an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration

b)

an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

c)

an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration

d)

All the above

42.

The movement of water through the cell membrane is

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

concentration gradient

43.
What does "bilayer" mean?
a)
one layer
b)
two layers
c)
laminated
d)
bilateral
44.
This is a balance that organisms maintain through self-regulating adjustments
a)
bilayer
b)
homeostasis
c)
secretions
45.
2. A group of cells with similar structure and function
a)
tissue
b)
ion
c)
stroma
d)
organ
46.
4. Which is not a main function of epithelial tissue
a)
impulse conduction
b)
protection
c)
secretion
d)
filtration
47.
5. Epithelial tissue is often avascular which means
a)
has many blood vessels
b)
has no blood vessels
c)
has veins but not arteries
d)
has only capillaries
48.
6. What two things classify epithelial tissue
a)
layers and cell shape
b)
layers and cell size
c)
layers and cell number
d)
layers and cell origin
49.
8. How would you describe squamous cells
a)
round and tall
b)
flat
c)
box-shaped
d)
stacked and round
50.
12. The epithelium that has tall layers of cells is
a)
simple columnar
b)
stratified columnar
c)
pseudostratified columnar
d)
stratified squamous
51.
17. Which type of tissue is most abundant
a)
Epithelial
b)
Nervous
c)
Connective
d)
Muscle
52.
18. What is osseous tissue
a)
bone
b)
nails
c)
disks between vertebrae
d)
found only in the knee
53.
21. What are lacunae
a)
cells that heal sunburn
b)
special cells that produce cartilage
c)
cavities in bone tissue
d)
cells that produce blood
54.
The three types of muscle tissue are
a)
skeletal, smooth, and cardiac
b)
dense, loose, and striated
c)
squamous, cuboidal, and columnar
d)
skeletal, smooth, and connective
55.
What is a group of similar cells?
a)
Tissue 
b)
Organ
c)
Cell group
d)
Organ system
56.
What is a group of similar tissues?
a)
Tissue 
b)
Organ
c)
Cell group
d)
Organ system
57.
which tissue is this?
a)
Pseudostratified columnar
b)
Stratified Squamous
c)
Simple Columnar
d)
Transitional
58.
What type of Connective tissue is found at the ends of bones to reduce friction?
a)
Cartilage
b)
Dense connective tissue
c)
Adipose Tissue
d)
Loose connective tissue
59.
Which type of epithelial tissue stretches and is found in the bladder and other urinary organs?
a)
Transitional
b)
Simple Cuboidal
c)
Stratified Squamous
d)
Stratified Columnar
60.
Identify:
a)
Areolar
b)
Smooth Muscle
c)
Transitional
d)
Simple Squamous
61.
Cartilage is a type of connective tissue.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
What type of tissue is made of osteocytes?
a)
blood
b)
bone
c)
areolar
d)
adipose
63.
What tissue is this
a)
Bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Blood
d)
Adipose
64.
The four main (primary) kinds of tissues that compose the body’s organs are:
a)
fat, muscle, bone and nerve
b)
blood, muscle, bone and nerve
c)
epithelial, connective, muscle and nerve
d)
skin, fat, muscle and bone
65.
Loose, adipose, and dense are terms for what type of tissue? 
a)
connective
b)
epithelial
c)
nervous
d)
muscular
66.
The layer of the epidermis that is constantly undergoing cell division is the:
a)
stratum granulosum
b)
stratum lucidum
c)
stratum basale
d)
stratum spinosum
67.
Sweat glands in the axillary and genital areas are:
a)
sudoriferous glands
b)
eccrine glands
c)
sebaceous glands
d)
sudoriferous and eccrine glands
68.
Which structure is not associated with the nail?
a)
cuticle
b)
body
c)
cortex
d)
lunula
69.
Downy hair that covers babies:
a)
matrix
b)
vernix caseosa
c)
lanugo
d)
milia
70.
The upper layer of the dermis:
a)
papillary
b)
reticular
c)
apocrine
d)
eccrine
71.
Burn that results in damage to the epidermis and upper dermis and blisters:
a)
1st degree
b)
2nd degree
c)
3rd degree
d)
4th degree
72.
What is the deepest layer of skin that contains blood vessels, sweat, oil and pressure receptors?
a)
reticular layer
b)
stratum corneum
c)
papillary layer
d)
stratum basale
73.
Which structure is not associated with hair?
a)
medulla
b)
cortex
c)
shaft
d)
lunula
74.

Dead, squamous epithelial cells that are filled with keratin, they are constantly being shed from the body's surface

a)

epidermis

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum basale

75.

gradually dies as they reach the surface of the skin, consist of flattened epithelial cells

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum granulosum

c)

stratum corneum

76.

Underneath the stratum granulosum

a)

stratum basale

b)

epidermis

c)

stratum spinosum

77.

single layer of column-shaped cells that are actively dividing; deepest sublayer of the epidermis

a)

veins

b)

arteries

c)

stratum basale

78.

produce milky-colored sweat; glands located in your armpits and genital areas

a)

arrector pili

b)

elastin

c)

apocrine gland

79.

produce clear sweat; places like your face, back, legs

a)

eccrine gland

b)

arrector pili

c)

epidermis

80.

produce sebum (oily substance) located by hair follicles

a)

eccrine glands

b)

stratum basale

c)

sebaceous glands

81.

associated with each hair follicle...when they contract they produce goosebumps

a)

hair follicle

b)

apocrine glands

c)

arrector pili

82.

Which of the following is not a function of bones?

a)

Protection

b)

Blood cell formation

c)

Storage

d)

Absorption

83.
The yellow marrow or medullary cavity stores and creates adipose tissue
a)
True
b)
False
84.
Bone formed by needlelike pieces of bone and lots of space are called
a)
Spongey bone
b)
Cartilage
c)
Compact bone
85.
The adult skeletal system is composed of how many bones?
a)
216
b)
371
c)
206
d)
199
86.
The shaft of the bone
a)
diaphysis
b)
epiphysis
c)
medullary cavity
d)
matrix
87.
What do the bones create?
a)
white blood cells
b)
platlets
c)
red blood cells
d)
flying turkeys
88.
Which type of joint give you the largest range of motion?
a)
pivot
b)
ball-and-socket
c)
hinge
d)
gliding
89.
Which term best describes the joints at the top of your skull?
a)
motionless
b)
flexible
c)
rubbery
d)
elastic
90.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Cranium)

b)

Mandible

c)

Clavicle

d)

Scapula

91.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Cranium)

b)

Mandible

c)

Scapula

d)

Clavicle

92.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Cranium)

b)

Scapula

c)

Clavicle

d)

Mandible

93.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Skull (Mandible)

b)

Clavicle

c)

Mandible

d)

Scapula

94.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Ribs

b)

Vertebrae

c)

Clavicle

d)

Femur

95.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

96.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Vertebrae

b)

Radius

c)

Pelvis

d)

Ribs

97.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

98.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Radius

b)

Ulna

c)

Humerus

d)

Carpals

99.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Femur

b)

Tibia

c)

Fibula

d)

Humerus

100.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Patella

b)

Pelvis

c)

Clavicle

d)

Femur

101.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Patella

b)

Pelvis

c)

Clavicle

d)

Mandible

102.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Femur

d)

Humerus

103.

What bone is highlighted?

a)

Tibia

b)

Fibula

c)

Radius

d)

Ulna

104.

From wrist to fingertip, what is the order of bones?

a)

Carpals, metacarpals, phalanges

b)

Phalanges, metacarpals, carpals

c)

Carpals, phalanges, metacarpals

d)

Metacarpals, carpals, phalanges

105.

From ankle to toe, what is the order of bones?

a)

Tarsals, metatarsals, phalanges

b)

Phalanges, metatarsals, tarsals

c)

Metatarsals, phalanges, tarsals

d)

Tarsals, phalanges, metatarsals

106.

Which of the following is ONLY found associated with a child's bone?

a)

Articular cartilage

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Epiphyseal plate

d)

Periosteum

e)

Marrow cavity

107.

An incomplete bone break, known as a ______________ fracture, is commonly seen in children.

a)

Spiral

b)

Greenstick

c)

Impacted

d)

Comminuted

108.

An open, or compound, fracture can be described as when

a)

bone is crushed

b)

fracture fragments are forced into each other

c)

broken bone is exposed to outside

d)

bone is broken into many fragments

e)

adjacent bones fracture simultaneously

109.

The factor(s) that determine WHERE bone matrix is to be remodeled is (are) _______________.

a)

sex hormones

b)

growth hormone

c)

stress of gravity and pull of muscles on skeleton

d)

parathyroid hormone

e)

calcium level of blood

110.

What type of bone cell is primarily active when bone growth occurs?

a)

Osteoclast

b)

Osteoblast

c)

Chondrocyte

d)

Erythrocyte

e)

Osteocyte

111.

Bone destroying cells known as osteoclasts are activated by the hormone ______________.

a)

calcitonin

b)

parathyroid hormone

c)

insulin

d)

growth hormone

112.

First step of fracture healing is the formation of ___________.

a)

Hematoma

b)

Fibrocartilage callus

c)

Epiphyseal line

d)

Bony callus

113.

What is the process of bone formation?

a)

Heostasis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Hematopoiesis

d)

Ossification

114.

Which bone marking is an attachment for muscle or ligaments?

a)

Fissure

b)

Foramen

c)

Meatus

d)

Fossa

e)

Tubercle

115.

A bone fracture where the bone is broken into many fragmetns is a __________________.

a)

Compound fracture

b)

Simple fracture

c)

Comminuted fracture

d)

Compression fracture

e)

Greenstick fracture

116.

Broken bone ends are forced into each other

a)

Greenstick

b)

Depression

c)

Impacted

d)

Comminuted

e)

Spiral

117.

Incomplete bone break

a)

Greenstick fracture

b)

Depression fracture

c)

Impacted fracture

d)

Comminuted fracture

e)

Spiral fracture

118.

Ragged bone break resulting from twisting forces

a)

Greenstick

b)

Depression

c)

Impacted

d)

Comminuted

e)

Spiral

119.
The bone indicated by #2 is the 
a)
parietal bone
b)
temporal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
occipital bone
120.
The bone indicated by #3 is the 
a)
frontal bone
b)
nasal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
temporal bone
121.
The bone indicated by #4 is the 
a)
frontal bone
b)
nasal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
temporal bone
122.
The bone indicated by #1 is the 
a)
parietal bone
b)
temporal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
occipital bone
123.
The bone indicated by #5 is the 
a)
frontal bone
b)
sphenoid bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
temporal bone
124.
a)
Occipital
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Sphenoid
125.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Lacrimal
126.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Occipital 
127.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Lacrimal
128.
located on the sides of the head; houses the internal portion of the ear
a)
temporal bone 
b)
occipital bone 
c)
zygomatic bone 
d)
frontal bone 
129.
Which food is the most acidic?
a)
bananas
b)
lemon juice
c)
orange juice
130.
A solution with a pH of 7 is________
a)
increasing
b)
neutral
c)
decreasing
d)
apple juice
131.
What would be considered the weakest base? 
a)
8
b)
14
c)
7.8
d)
11.6
132.

A pH of 3 is how many times more acidic than a pH of 5?

a)

2

b)

20

c)

10

d)

100

133.
Which  of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body?
a)
chemical, tissue, cellular, organ system, organ, organism
b)
cellular, chemical, tissue, organ, organism, organ system
c)
chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
d)
cellular, chemical, tissue, organ, organ system, organism
134.
Which of the following body systems is responsible for movement?
a)
skeletal
b)
integumentary
c)
muscular
d)
digestive
135.
Which regions in the abdominopelvic cavity are medial?
a)
umbilical, right and left lumbar
b)
epigastric, right and left hypochondriac
c)
iliac (inguinal), lumbar, hypogastric
d)
epigastric, umbilical, hypogastric
136.
Which of the following terms have the same meaning?
a)
anterior and ventral
b)
medial and lateral
c)
ventral and dorsal
d)
distal and proximal
137.
The homeostatic feedback mechanism that reverses the original stimulus is known as...
a)
negative feedback
b)
positive feedback
138.
What is the monomer of proteins?
a)
nucleic acids
b)
amino acids
c)
fatty acids
d)
monosaccharides (glucose)
139.
How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions in the body?
a)
increase activation energy
b)
decrease activation energy
c)
increase thermal energy
d)
decrease thermal energy
140.
Which abdominopelvic region is your belly button located in?
a)
umbilical
b)
inguinal
c)
epigastic
d)
left hypochindriac
141.

The _____________ structure is the sequence of amino acids bonded in a polypeptide.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

quaternary

142.

TRUE or FALSE Lipid molecules contain at least carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

143.

_____________ molecules consist of two long of strands of bonded nucleotides.

a)

DNA

b)

Element

c)

mRNA

144.

What number is neutral on the pH scale?

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

5

145.

What is an atom that has lost or gained an electron?

a)

element

b)

base

c)

isotope

d)

ion

146.

TRUE or FALSE An acid is a proton acceptor.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

147.

What charge does an electron have?

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

neutral

148.

What lipid consists of three fatty acids bonded to a molecule of glycerol?

a)

phospholipid

b)

triglyceride

149.

Cannot be broken down into simpler substances. Made of entirely one type of atom.

a)

Atomic number

b)

Atomic weight/mass

c)

Element

d)

Isotope

150.
What type of bond results from shared electrons?
a)
Covalent Bond
b)
Ionic Bond
c)
Hydrogen Bond
d)
Water Bond
151.
What is an ion?
a)
 A small atom
b)
A large atom
c)
A neutral atom
d)
A charged atom
152.
Which subatomic particle is neutral?
a)
Neutron
b)
Positron
c)
Proton
d)
Electron
153.
If an atom has 5 protons and 4 electrons, what is its charge?
a)
Neutral
b)
Positive
c)
Negative
d)
Unknown
154.
Sugar is an example of a _______.
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Lipid
155.
How many neutrons does a sodium atom have? 
a)
23
b)
11
c)
12
d)
34
156.
Which of these is not a required element in a carbohydrate?
a)
Carbon
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Oxygen
157.
Water is polar because....
a)
it has cations and anions
b)
its made of two non-metals
c)
it is a solute
d)
it has unequal electron sharing
158.
Saturated fats.....
a)
solidfy at room temperature
b)
remain liquid
c)
are easily broken down. 
d)
have double bonding
159.
What element do all organic compounds contain
a)
H
b)
O
c)
C
d)
N
160.
contains the sugar deoxyribose and the bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
161.
A type of bond, unequal sharing of electrons; otherwise, assymetrical.
a)
covalent
b)
ionic
c)
polar covalent
d)
single covalent
162.
Protein catalyst.
a)
enzyme
b)
carbohydrate
c)
lipid
d)
nucleic acids
163.

An adult man's entire back is worth what percentage when using the rule of nines?

a)

9%

b)

18%

c)

27%

d)

36%

164.

You have arrived on scene to find a 12-year-old girl who has been burnt by chicken noodle soup from the stove. She has blisters and redness on her chest. How would you classify this burn?

a)

It is a first-degree burn.

b)

It is a full-thickness burn.

c)

It is a partial-thickness burn.

d)

It is a superficial burn.

165.

There are three methods of calculating an area of burned skin. Which method is the MOST used?

a)

A Broselow tape

b)

Rule of nines

c)

Rule of palm

d)

The Lund and Browder chart

166.

The client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears pink, has blisters, and is very painful. How to categorize this injury?

a)

Full-thickness

b)

Partial-thickness superficial

c)

Partial-thickness deep

d)

Superficial

167.

The client has burns on both legs. These areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or bleeding are present, and there is just a “small amount of pain.” How to categorize this injury?

a)

Full-thickness

b)

Partial-thickness superficial

c)

Partial-thickness deep

d)

Superficial

168.

What systems allows the body to move and controls movement within the body?

a)

Digestive

b)

Sensory

c)

Muscular

d)

Integumentary

169.

What system coordinates body activity through hormones?

a)

Integumentary

b)

Endocrine

c)

Reproductive

d)

Respiratory

170.

What system covers the body and protects other body system?

a)

Integumentary

b)

Sensory

c)

Skeletal

d)

Cardiovascular

171.

What system exchanges gases between the air and blood?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Respiratory

c)

Urinary

d)

Nervous

172.

What system filters the blood and removes liquid wastes?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Respiratory

c)

Endocrine

d)

Urinary

173.

What system provides body system support and protection?

a)

Cardiovascular

b)

Skeletal

c)

Digestive

d)

Integumentary

174.

What system processes food and eliminates food waste?

a)

Endocrine

b)

Integumentary

c)

Urinary

d)

Digestive

175.

What system filters the blood and removes liquid waste?

a)

Urinary

b)

Sensory

c)

Digestive

d)

Reproductive

176.

What system coordinates body activities though hormones?

a)

Skeletal

b)

Urinary

c)

Endocrine

d)

Reproductive

177.

What system regulates the environment and directs the activities of other body system?

a)

Nervous

b)

Integumentary

c)

Circulatory

d)

Endocrine

178.

What system perceives the environment and sends messages to and from the brain?

a)

Nervous

b)

Cardiovascular

c)

Sensory

d)

Integumentary

179.

What system provides for human reproduction

a)

Endocrine

b)

Integumantary

c)

Urinary

d)

Reproductive

180.

What is the study of body structures, location and function?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Body Systems

c)

Anatomy & Physiology

d)

Cells

181.

What is the basic unit of living things?

a)

Cells

b)

Anatomy & Physiology

c)

Body systems

d)

Chromosomes

182.

What is an organized group of organs that perform a particular function?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Body systems

c)

Cells

d)

Anatomy & Physiology

183.
The __________ is the main organ of the nervous system.
a)
heart
b)
lungs
c)
brain
d)
skin
184.
What is responsible for delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from the body?
a)
cell nucleus
b)
excretory system
c)
nervous tissue
d)
respiratory system

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