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CWCM Pre-Service

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select all of which Adoption and Safe Families Act (ASFA) requires.

a)

Preserve and reunify families (without compromising child safety).

b)

Finalize permanency within 12 months.

c)

Coordination of healthcare services.

d)

Promote adoption of older, minority, and special needs children.

2.

Which of the following establishes procedures for all states when placing children across state lines?

a)

ICPC

b)

MEPA

c)

ICWA

d)

ASFA

3.

ICWA protects ___ ___ heritage under federal law.

(a)  

4.

___ ___ is a guarantee that all legal proceedings will be fair and one will be given notice of proceedings and an opportunity to be heard before one's life, liberty or property is taken away.

a)

Least intrusive

b)

Reasonable Efforts

c)

Due process

d)

Permanency planning

5.

___ ___ refers to intervening to protect a child in ways that produce the least interference with family unity and privacy, yet assure child safety.

a)

Least intrusive

b)

Reasonable efforts

c)

Due process

d)

Permanency planning

6.

___ ___ refers to ensuring all reasonable actions have been taken by child welfare professionals to prevent the removal of a child.

a)

Least intrusive

b)

Reasonable efforts

c)

Due process

d)

Permanency planning

7.

___ ___ ensures that children get resolution to their need for safety and a permanent family to raise them.

a)

Least intrusive

b)

Reasonable efforts

c)

Due process

d)

Permanency planning

8.

Which of the following criteria that define a "child" or "youth" in Ch. 39 of the FL Statutes.

a)

unmarried

b)

under 18 years old

c)

has not been emancipated

d)

all of these

9.

Select the two critical windows of development.

a)

birth to three

b)

teen years

c)

school age

d)

prenatal

10.

When a child is exposed to chronic trauma and stress there are significant impacts on their brain development.

a)

true

b)

false

11.

Which of the following is a type of trauma?

a)

terrorism

b)

physical abuse

c)

natural disaster

d)

sexual abuse

e)

all of these

12.

Select the three child vulnerability factors.

a)

young age (6 or younger)

b)

low community visibility

c)

prior reports to the hotline

d)

small number of family members

13.

Which of the following describes a family?

a)

individuals who share ties of blood, marriage, or adoption

b)

a group residing together and consisting of parents, children, and other relatives

c)

all of these

14.

Any additional relatives or persons residing in the home, including but not limited to visitors expected to stay an indefinite length of time or college students expected to return to the home refers to...

a)

household member

b)

family member

c)

paramour

d)

visitor

15.

Patterns of relating or interactions between family members refers to...

a)

family dynamics

b)

family culture

c)

family structure

16.

The set of beliefs about how things should be in the family refers to...

a)

family dynamics

b)

family culture

c)

family structure

17.

___ is any willful or threatening act that results in physical, mental or sexual injury or harm to a child.

a)

abuse

b)

abandonment

c)

neglect

d)

harm

18.

___ ___ are specific family situations that are out-of-control, imminent and likely to have severe effects on a vulnerable child.

a)

maltreatment

b)

danger threat

c)

neglect

d)

threatened harm

19.

___ ___ refers to when an adult commits any violent criminal behavior on an another adult who is also a family/household member that demonstrates disregard for a child or could result in injury to the child.

a)

family violence

b)

domestic violence

c)

physical injury

20.

___ ___ is any assault, aggravated assault, battery, aggravated stalking, kidnapping, false imprisonment, or any criminal offense resulting in physical injury or death of one family or household member by another who was residing in the same single dwelling unit.

a)

family violence

b)

domestic violence

c)

physical injury

21.

___ ___ is being aware of cultural differences within family dynamics.

a)

cultural competence

b)

cultural sensitivity

c)

cultural comprehension

22.

The ___ ___ ___ guides consistent and accurate decision-making by the Hotline counselors and CPIs. It includes definitions of specific maltreatments, excluding factors, and documentation needed to verify maltreatments.

a)

child maltreatment index

b)

CFOP 170-1, CFOP 170-7, CFOP 170-9

c)

Florida Statutes Ch. 39

d)

Florida Administrative Code

23.

Which of these is a type of intake?

a)

abuse

b)

neglect

c)

threatened harm

d)

all of these

e)

special conditions

24.

Which of these are high risk factors for parents?

a)

young age

b)

substance abuse

c)

domestic violence

d)

all of these

25.

Select the two options that are involved in complex trauma.

a)

simultaneous occurrence of maltreatment

b)

sequential occurrence of maltreatment

c)

isolated events of abuse

26.

Substance abuse can lead to...

a)

being a dis-inhibitor for the parent

b)

illegal activity

c)

draining family resources

d)

impaired child caring behaviors

e)

all of these

27.

Select the two safety plans used in cases of domestic violence/family violence.

a)

confidential child safety plan

b)

perpetrator focused safety plan

c)

best practice safety plan

d)

trauma informed safety plan

28.

Select all of the common language solutions used when interviewing children.

a)

use the name the child uses for any word that might be misunderstood

b)

have the child demonstrate, not explain

c)

use short questions

d)

discuss things in an imaginary/make-believe context

29.

There are ___ danger threats.

a)

3

b)

5

c)

6

d)

11

30.

What must be present in order for a child to be considered unsafe?

a)

danger threat

b)

diminished caregiver protective capacities

c)

vulnerable child

d)

all of these

31.

What does ACE stand for?

(a)  

32.

What is the most common maltreatment among infants?

a)

Neglect

b)

Abuse

c)

Threatened Harm

d)

Abandonment

33.

Which of these is not a developmental domain?

a)

spiritual

b)

physical

c)

emotional

d)

social

34.

Which of these is least likely to be a protective factor in children against substance abuse?

a)

intimidating physical size

b)

self-esteem

c)

relationship with a caring, adult role model

d)

sense of humor

35.

Florida Statutes Ch. 39 states that substance abuse means using in such a manner that results in...

a)

dysfunctional social behavior

b)

addiction

c)

criminal prosecution

d)

allegations of child abuse, neglect, or abandonment

36.

"Gina gets angry at her 1 year old daughter, Brandi, for wetting the bed. Gina says Brandi has been potty trained since she was less than 9 months old and "knows better." In which information does this information belong?

a)

parenting general

b)

parenting discipline

c)

adult functioning

d)

surrounding circumstances of maltreatment

37.

In which information domain do we describe the caregiver's explanation of how a child was injured?

a)

surrounding circumstances of maltreatment

b)

extent of maltreatment

c)

parenting discipline

38.

All of the following are principles of child development except...

a)

children develop into either law-abiding or law-breaking citizens

b)

children construct their own rules for how the world operates

c)

children develop in phases

d)

children vary individually in development

39.

All of the following are ways to assess attachment and bonding of a child and caregiver except...

a)

ask the caregiver how well they're bonding with their child.

b)

talk with service providers and guardian ad litem

c)

organize visits in which interactions can be observed

40.

In terms of interviews, which of the following is most traumatizing for children?

a)

number of different interviewers

b)

how often their story is retold

c)

number of interviews

d)

number of family members involved

41.

What does CPT stand for?

(a)  

42.

Which of the following is the least likely characteristic of addiction?

a)

extreme hyperactivity

b)

continued use in spite of adverse consequences

c)

loss of control

d)

progressive

43.

During which stage of addiction does a user become sick, sweaty, and nauseous?

a)

dependency/addiction

b)

seeking the mood swing

c)

abuse

d)

experimentation/social use

44.

Child Abuse Prevention & Treatment Act (CAPTA) created laws around...

a)

having mandated reporters

b)

removing children as soon as a report has been made

c)

having foster homes reflect diversity

d)

providers having no authority on Indian reservations

45.

Which of the following is the least likely category of risk factors for substance abuse?

a)

socio-economic level

b)

family

c)

peers

d)

community or school

46.

What is the requirement of the Adoption Assistance & Child Welfare Act (AACWA) ?

a)

mandates agencies to demonstrate reasonable efforts prior to removing a child

b)

allows agencies to remove children without reasonable efforts

c)

places burden on parents to prove abuse did not occur

47.

Which of the following is not among CPCs?

a)

talk about child to co-workers

b)

take action for child

c)

recognize child's needs

d)

emotionally attached to child

48.

According to Florida Statutes, how often must a case manager visit the child in the home?

a)

every 30 days

b)

every 25 days

c)

every 60 days

d)

every 5 days

49.

Which of the following is the best way to begin a highly sensitive discussion?

a)

indirect questions

b)

leading questions

c)

open-ended questions

50.

Which of the following is not a special condition referral?

a)

human trafficking

b)

parent unavailable

c)

child on child sexual abuse

d)

foster care referral

51.

Present danger must be ___, ___, and ___ ___.

a)

immediate

b)

significant

c)

clearly observable

d)

continual

e)

impending

52.

The purpose of the FFA is to...

a)

identify families where children are unsafe and in need of ongoing services

b)

determine if children are in present danger

c)

identify CPCs

53.

Which acronym describes the criteria for determining when a family condition meets the safety threshold for impending danger?

a)

OOSIV

b)

ANTS

c)

CSI

d)

FFA-O

54.

___ ___ ___ are personal caregiving behavioral, cognitive, and emotional characteristics that can be specifically and directly associated with being protective of one's young.

a)

caregiver protective capacities

b)

parenting skills

c)

adult functioning domains

55.

A child can be considered ___ when there is no threat of danger within the home or when CPCs within the home can manage threats of danger.

a)

at low risk

b)

safe

c)

unsafe

d)

at high risk

56.

If a parent continues to test positive on their drug screens, their home is considered to not be calm and consistent.

a)

False

b)

True

57.

For the family to meet the safety analysis criteria number 4, "A professional evaluation is not needed", they must complete a mental health evaluation if there is concern for their mental health.

a)

False

b)

True

58.

Before the family can meet safety analysis criteria number 5, "The parents have a physical location in which they reside", the home must be able to pass a reunification home study.

a)

False

b)

True

59.

The main difference between safety and risk is...

a)

the degree of harm to the child

b)

the type of maltreatment

c)

safety is now, risk is future

60.

Case plans are designed to...

a)

keep children safe as soon as it is determined they are unsafe

b)

enhance diminished CPCs

c)

manage and control danger threats

61.

Which of the following is not one of the five danger threshold criteria?

a)

impending danger

b)

observable

c)

out-of-control

d)

vulnerable child

62.

A child can legally be reunified with the parent once conditions for return are met.

a)

true

b)

false

63.

In which category of CPCs would culture fall into?

a)

cognitive

b)

emotional

c)

behavioral

64.

Self-control, physical health, home and financial management, social skills, citizenship, income and employment are included in which category of CPCs?

a)

cognitive

b)

emotional

c)

behavioral

65.

Coping and stress management, intimate relationships, self-care and preservation are included in which category of CPCs?

a)

cognitive

b)

emotional

c)

behavioral

66.

Which two are areas that should be assessed in an FFA-O?

a)

child needs

b)

CPCs

c)

religion

d)

extended family

67.

Conditions for return are...

a)

used to determine what goes into a case plan

b)

only developed when the safety plan is out-of-home

c)

what must change in CPCs

d)

used to determine when a case can be closed

68.

Which of the following is not a safety category?

a)

separation

b)

social connection

c)

child care

d)

behavior management

69.

The primary purpose of a safety plan is to...

a)

justify removal of a child

b)

allow for information collection to occur

c)

control for danger

d)

determine when a case can be closed

70.

Safety analysis criteria are used to determine...

a)

if there needs to be a safety plan

b)

what safety service providers should be utilized

c)

if an in-home plan may be utilized

71.

Select the two examples of present danger.

a)

infant left alone in a parked car

b)

intoxicated caregiver behaving recklessly in the presence of a child

c)

it is discovered the caregiver has a criminal record relating to domestic violence

72.

Which statement best describes the definitions of present and impending danger?

a)

present danger is immediate, significant, and observable; impending danger is imminent

b)

present danger is immediate, but not observable; impending danger is the risk of maltreatment

c)

present danger is immediate and significant; impending danger is also immediate, but not significant

73.

Which statement best describes the relationship between danger threats and risk factors?

a)

all risk factors are danger threats, but not all danger threats are risk factors

b)

all danger threats have risk factors, but not all risk factors are danger threats

c)

three risk factors equals one danger threat

74.

After the completion of an FFA-I, which cases will be required to be opened for case management services?

a)

children determined unsafe regardless of level of risk

b)

children determined safe but there is low risk

c)

children determined safe but there is high risk

75.

___ ___ refers to a child being in state of danger due to caregiver behaviors, attitudes, motives, emotions and/or situations which poses a specific threat of severe harm to a child.

a)

impending danger

b)

present danger

c)

danger threat

d)

danger threshold

76.

Which characteristic of a child is most associated with vulnerability to danger?

a)

dependence

b)

assertive

c)

quiet

d)

peer interaction problems

77.

Which two things should a case manager do when preparing for an FFA-O?

a)

review CPI's FFA

b)

list what case plan tasks to discuss with family during introduction

c)

consult with supervisor

78.

Select which two things are true about sufficient information.

a)

gives us a full picture

b)

tells us everything about a family

c)

is relevant to the particular information domain to most accurately inform the safety determination

79.

Risk of maltreatment means...

a)

likelihood of future maltreatment when compared with other families with similar characteristics

b)

potential severity of abuse or neglect without intervention

c)

lack of protective factors which make the child unsafe and in need of intervention

80.

What is the focus of the FFA?

a)

the household where alleged maltreatment occured

b)

there is no focus for the FFA

c)

wherever the child is at the time of the hotline report

81.

When is the initial risk assessment completed?

a)

when the hotline is received by the CPI

b)

at conclusion of FFA-I

c)

any time during the assessment

82.

This danger threat is primarily used at present danger and rarely should be considered for impending danger.

a)

child has illness/injury (indicative of abuse) that is unexplained, or explanations are inconsistent with illness/injury

b)

caregiver is not meeting essential medical needs

c)

caregiver is threatening to harm the child or is fearful they will harm the child

83.

What is the primary basis for ongoing case management intervention?

a)

parents want services

b)

CPCs are diminished and parents are requesting help

c)

children are unsafe due to impending danger and diminished CPCs

84.

Which standard of proof means "the judge has enough evidence to create the belief that significant impairment to the child's safety may occur if the child is left in the home"?

a)

clear and convincing evidence

b)

preponderance of the evidence

c)

probable cause

85.

Which type of case would not be considered least intrusive?

a)

in-home non-judicial

b)

out-of-home non-judicial

c)

in-home judicial

d)

out-of-home judicial

86.

___ ___ ___ is a period of time when the primary responsibility for a case moves from the CPI to case management.

a)

case transfer process

b)

ongoing case plan

c)

enhancement of caregiver capacities

87.

Which of the following is not available to case managers?

a)

"Purpose Code C"

b)

"Purpose Code Q"

c)

extent of maltreatment in FFA

d)

surrounding circumstances of maltreatment in FFA

88.

Select all of the improper uses of NCIC/FCIC/DAVID information.

a)

sharing information with unauthorized personnel

b)

asking a CPI to submit a request for FCIC/NCIC for unauthorized puposes

c)

querying systems for anything other than investigations assigned

d)

reading "Purpose Code Q" information in preparation to meet a client for the first time

89.

Placements requiring special consideration include all of the following except...

a)

children for whom English is a second language.

b)

children who are victims or perpetrators of sexual abuse.

c)

children with complex medical problems.

d)

sibling placements.

90.

The ___ ___ is a good tool for helping children in care deal with questions about their removal and it provides evidence to the child of being cared for and cared about.

a)

case file

b)

child resource

c)

life book

d)

report card

91.

Case management while a child is missing requires efforts to locate the child, at a minimum, ___ for the first three months and ___ for every additional month thereafter.

a)

bi-weekly; weekly

b)

daily; weekly

c)

monthly; weekly

d)

weekly; monthly

92.

The ___ requires coordination between the department and CBC provider staff with local School Readiness Coalitions and licensed early education or child care providers.

a)

ASFA

b)

Coordinated Child Care Act

c)

Rilya Wilson Act

d)

Title IV-E Act

93.

Examples of required documentation for the Child Resource Record include all of the following except?

a)

immunization record

b)

names and phone numbers for the family safety counselor and supervisor

c)

fee agreement between caregiver and the Department

d)

school information and records

94.

Which of the following is not a way that permanency in a relative placement can be accomplished?

a)

adoption

b)

guardianship

c)

long-term custody

d)

power of attorney

95.

A secondary purpose of the Relative Caregiver Home Study, in addition to helping determine the appropriateness of the placement, is to help secure for the relative caregiver...

a)

access to all court proceedings

b)

adoption rights

c)

funding

d)

housing

96.

Which of the following does not show progressively restrictive placement options?

a)

foster family home, therapeutic foster home, residential group care

b)

noncustodial parents, foster family home, residential group care

c)

relatives, nonrelatives, foster family home

d)

residential group care, medical foster home, residential treatment facility

97.

Which of the following is the least criterion for prioritizing emergency placements?

a)

as close as possible to child's home

b)

keeps siblings together

c)

least restrictive

d)

makes every effort to keep the child's same pediatrician

98.

You have attended a Disposition hearing on your case where the case plan was agreed upon by the parents and legally accepted by the judge. Which hearing must be held within 90 days?

a)

arraignment

b)

initial judicial review

c)

permanency hearing

d)

TPR trial

99.

When is the one instance that reasonable efforts is not required to preserve and reunify the family, according to F.S. 39.806(1)?

a)

expedited TPR

b)

reasonable efforts are always required

c)

when the parent is verbally combative

d)

when the parent sexually abuses their children

100.

The five major dependency staffings are:

a)

case plan, JR, permanency, TPR, adoptions

b)

CSI, GAL, OAG, change-of-goal, change-of-placement

c)

case transfer, CPT, case plan, reunification, permanency

d)

multi-disciplinary, LOC, MOP, UM, TPR

101.

Evidence that may allow a judge to deduce a certain fact from other facts that have been proven is known as:

a)

circumstantial

b)

demonstrative

c)

direct

d)

expert

102.

Which of the following is not a specific intention of MEPA?

a)

to decrease the length of time children wait to be adopted

b)

eliminate discrimination on the basis of race, color, or national origin

c)

facilitate recruitment and retention of foster and adoptive parents

d)

promote multiethnic placements "under one roof"

103.

TPR may be expedited for which of the following reasons?

a)

parents are intellectually challenged

b)

parents engaged in egregious conduct that threatens the life or safety of the child

c)

parents had parental rights of sibling voluntarily terminated

d)

parents have a criminal record

104.

Three types of diligent search include locating...

a)

church records, medical records, school records

b)

the family, a missing/unidentified parent, an adult relative

c)

prior abuse reports, criminal records, residential history

d)

TPR'd children, adult siblings, godparents

105.

Initial JR hearing must be held within ___ days of the disposition hearing or ___ after court acceptance of the case plan, but no later than ___ after removal.

a)

30; 30; 6

b)

60; 60; 6

c)

90; 30; 6

d)

90; 90; 6

106.

Hearing at which the parents/caregivers have the opportunity to admit to, consent to, or deny allegations contained in the dependency petition is the...

a)

shelter hearing

b)

arraignment hearing

c)

dependency adjudicatory hearing

d)

disposition hearing

107.

The Department must successfully convince the court that it has met the two criteria of ___ and ___ in order to get court approval of a removal.

a)

filing a shelter petition; notifying the parents of the court date

b)

grounds for removal (probable cause); reasonable efforts

c)

imminent harm; legal sufficiency

d)

safety; permanency