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PHS Midterm Review

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When was health insurance developed?

a)

1920s

b)

1930s

c)

1940s

d)

1950s

2.

Then American Public Health Association and the National Environmental Health Association are both examples of which of the following?

a)

Professional organizations

b)

Student organizations

c)

Regulatory agencies

d)

Unions

3.

Which of the following is NOT a way to gain experience for working in the medical field?

a)

Volunteering in a hospital

b)

Job shadowing medical professionals

c)

Taking a fellowship in a research lab

d)

Writing a medical blog

4.

The number of health science job opportunities will shrink in the future.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

During the Renaissance, artists used dissection to better depict the human form.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

The invention of the printing press resulted in an increase in the average life span.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Health science professionals should understand the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act which details how caring doctors must be to their patients.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Ophthalmologists fall under the therapeutic pathway.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

_____________ _____________ maintaining and improving a patient's overall health in the long-term.

a)

Therapeutic Services

b)

Diagnostic Services

c)

Health Informatics

d)

Biotechnology research

10.

_____________ _____________ screening and examining patients using manual or technological methods.

a)

Therapeutic Services

b)

Diagnostic Services

c)

Health Informatics

d)

Biotechnology research

11.

_____________ _____________ maintaining medical records and patient data, managing medical finances and handling medical technology.

a)

Therapeutic Services

b)

Diagnostic Services

c)

Health Informatics

d)

Biotechnology research

12.

_____________ _____________ developing new treatments and technologies to improve diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.

a)

Therapeutic Services

b)

Diagnostic Services

c)

Health Informatics

d)

Biotechnology Research and Development

13.

_____________ _____________ maintaining the physical and emotional enviornment necessary for healthcare providers to treat patients.

a)

Therapeutic Services

b)

Diagnostic Services

c)

Support Services

d)

Biotechnology Research and Development

14.

Which of the following is a career in Therapeutic Services?

a)

Physician

b)

Pathologist

c)

Clinical Data Specialist

d)

Dietary Manager

e)

Microbiologist

15.

Which of the following is a career in Diagnostic Services?

a)

Physician

b)

Pathologist

c)

Clinical Data Specialist

d)

Dietary Manager

e)

Microbiologist

16.

Which of the following is a career in Health Informatics?

a)

Physician

b)

Pathologist

c)

Clinical Data Specialist

d)

Dietary Manager

e)

Microbiologist

17.

Which of the following is a career in Support Services?

a)

Physician

b)

Pathologist

c)

Clinical Data Specialist

d)

Dietary Manager

e)

Microbiologist

18.

Which of the following is a career in Biotechnology Research and Technology?

a)

Physician

b)

Pathologist

c)

Clinical Data Specialist

d)

Dietary Manager

e)

Microbiologist

19.

The following steps are in correct order to become a physican.

1. Develop effective study habits and maintain excellent grades in high school.

2. Get a bachelor's degree

3. Take the MCAT

4. Submit a medical school application

5. Complete a medical school interview

6. Learn in the classroom & laboratory experiences in medical school

7. Obtain clinical experiences in medical school

8. Complete a residency program

9. Take the US Medical Licensing Examination

10. Practice medicine

a)

True

b)

False

20.

The healthcare industry accounts for the largest percentage of overall GDP (gross domestic product) in the US

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Why would an individual partake in medical tourism?

a)

To travel the world

b)

To pursue cheaper, advanced, or unique opportunities

c)

To experience different medical practices

d)

None of these

22.

What contributes to the growth of the healthcare industry?

a)

Changes to national health insurance regulations

b)

Developing countries

c)

Technology

d)

All of the above

23.

Convert 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit to degrees Celsius.

(degree Fahrenheit - 32)/1.2

a)

66

b)

54.8

c)

47.2

d)

37

24.

The number on the bottom of a fraction is known as?

a)

Denominator

b)

Numerator

c)

Factor

d)

Product

25.

Allison must administer three acetaminophens to her patient every 4 hours. How much acetaminophen should the patient get in 78 hours?

a)

18

b)

24

c)

36

d)

54

26.

Which of the following medical positions is used to describe a person lying face down?

a)

Supine

b)

Lateral

c)

Prone

d)

Vertical

27.

If a person is NOT trained and practiced in CPR, but they are the only person present when a victim becomes unconscious with no pulse or breathing, what should they do?

a)

Perform CPR using an AED

b)

Perform traditional CPR

c)

Perform hands-only CPR

d)

No nothing

28.

Compression ratio for adult CPR is?

a)

30:2

b)

15:2

c)

45:2

d)

None of these

29.

How many fingers do you use for compressions on an infant?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

30.

When should you use an AED?

a)

Never

b)

Always

c)

When it arrives

d)

After finishing CPR

31.

Which of the following is considered healthy blood pressure

a)

80/120

b)

120/80

c)

90/130

d)

130/90

32.

Which of the following is the exchange of thoughts, opinions, or information by speech writing or behavior?

a)

Communication

b)

Discussion

c)

Transmission

d)

Research

33.

Which of the following would the telephone be considered when communicating?

a)

Information source

b)

Channel

c)

Message

d)

Receiver

34.

If someone is not willing to compromise on their idea, this is an example of which communication styles?

a)

Passive

b)

Aggressive

c)

Assertive

d)

Passive-aggressive

35.

Which of the following involves selecting the appropriate channel of communication for the message delivery?

a)

Decoding

b)

Transmitting

c)

Encoding

d)

Listening

36.

Answering a question asked of you is an example of?

a)

Feedback

b)

Noise

c)

Message

d)

Receiver

37.

Which of the following are the two types of listening?

a)

Casual and business

b)

Assertive and passive

c)

Active and selective

d)

Active and passive

38.

Distance in relation to your audience when presenting is which of the following?

a)

Paralinguistic

b)

Proximity

c)

Inflection

d)

Orientation

39.

The technique used to influence attitudes toward a product, an idea is known as?

a)

Propaganda

b)

Bandwagon

c)

Communication

d)

Politics

40.

When identifying the audience, what are the 4 things a presenter must know?

a)

Age, number of people, education level and experience, gender

b)

Personality, number of people, age, and gender

c)

Ethnicity, age, number of people, occasion

d)

Age, number of people, education level & experience, occasion

41.

The basic format of a speech contains which of the following?

a)

Introduction, body, points, support, application, & conclusion

b)

Connection, introduction, preview, body, & conclusion

c)

Preview, introduction, body, review, & conclusion

d)

Introduction, connection, preview, body, review, & conclusion

42.

The use of somone else's ideas without giving them credit is called ____________.

a)

Copying

b)

Stealing

c)

Plagiarism

d)

Cheating

43.

Amber would like to involve the audience while she gives a speech. How can she achieve this?

a)

Use eye contact

b)

Incorporate activities

c)

Ask questions

d)

All of these

44.

______________ sets the mood of the speech from the very beginning.

a)

Pitch

b)

Tone

c)

Mood

d)

Volume

45.

____________ allows the speaker to either take a breath or allows time for the audience to take in what was said.

a)

Discussion

b)

Yawning

c)

Clapping

d)

Pausing

46.

Blake wants to add depth to his presentation about social networking. In order to achieve this he can use _________.

a)

Activities and videos

b)

PowerPoints and videos

c)

Props and PowerPoints

d)

Activities and props

47.

Which of the following is NOT a leadership style identified by Kurt Lewin?

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Participative

c)

Abdicratic

d)

Laissez faire

48.

Which personality trait was discussed as being perhaps the most important trait for a leader?

a)

Vision

b)

Fairness

c)

Integrity

d)

Confidence

49.

Which of the following should the leader analyze to determine group effectiveness?

a)

Identify strengths and weakness

b)

Measure productivity levels

c)

compare the results to the vision

d)

All of these

50.

Which of the following is NOT a form of nonverbal communication?

a)

Eye contact

b)

Texting

c)

Facial expressions

d)

Body language

51.

According to the presentation, which of the following is an organization's most valued asset?

a)

Advertising

b)

Location

c)

People

d)

Products

52.

When a manager defines roles and respnsibilities, a _______________ should be identified.

a)

Most valuable employee

b)

Chain of command

c)

Disciplinary system

d)

Reward system

53.

____________ is the ability to adjust behavior to external situational factors.

a)

Machiavellianism

b)

Control locus

c)

Liaising

d)

Self-monitoring

54.

Which of the following is NOT a successful tactic to use when managing a team?

a)

Having a plan

b)

Managing risks

c)

Being late

d)

Communicating

55.

Which of the following is considered the action of leading a group of people?

a)

Leadership

b)

Teamwork

c)

Following

d)

Facilitating

56.

Which of the following is NOT a quality of collaboration?

a)

Honesty

b)

Inconsistency

c)

Respect

d)

Openness

57.

Which of the following terms assists in handling interpersonal relationships by understanding deeper emotional drives?

a)

Personality types

b)

Emotional intelligence

c)

Learning styles

d)

Team roles

58.

Which of the following is NOT true of teamwork in the workplace?

a)

Encourages support and recognition in team members

b)

Requires team roles to be clearly recognized

c)

Gives leaders a collaborative insight into new opportunities

d)

Creates an inefficient environment

59.

When a team member rejects the ideas of others, they are displaying which team role?

a)

Blocker

b)

Gatekeeper

c)

Initiator

d)

Observer

60.

Individuals, who are action-oriented and more concerned with results than people are considered which personality types?

a)

Expressive

b)

Analytical

c)

Driver

d)

Amiable